Amino Acids & Proteins Flashcards

1
Q

are the building blocks of proteins.

A

Amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

TRUE/FALSE: Cellular growth, repair, and maintenance

are all dependent on amino acids.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The amino group of one

amino acid can be linked with the carboxyl group of another amino acid

A

Peptide bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Dietary proteins that completely digest dietary proteins into their constituent amino acids.

A

Pepsin & trypsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

PVTTIMHALL:
arginine, histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine,
methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine.

A

Essential amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

proteins provide up to ___% of the total energy

required daily by the body.

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

One important role is
the conversion of ammonia, which is highly toxic, into urea, which can be safely
excreted via the urinary system.

A

Arginine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

needed to help grow and repair body tissues and to maintain the
myelin sheaths that protect nerve cells and is the direct precursor of histamine,
which is involved in immune response.

A

Histidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

are branched-chain amino acids that are

collectively referred to as the branched-chain amino acid group.

A

Isoleucine, leucine, and valine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

plays an important role in hemoglobin formation,

A

isoleucine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

necessary for optimal growth in infants.

A

leucine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

also aid in

maintaining the nitrogen balance in adults.

A

Leucine and valine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

used in treatments for
muscle, mental, and emotional problems such as insomnia and anxiety, as well as
liver and gallbladder disease.

A

Valine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

It plays a role in the production of antibodies and lowering
triglyceride levels. helps in the absorption and conservation of
calcium and plays an important role in the formation of collagen

A

Lysine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

is a source of sulfur, which is

required for normal metabolism and growth.

A

Methionine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

uses an active transport channel to cross the blood–
brain barrier and is used by the brain to produce norepinephrine, a
neurotransmitter that transmits signals between nerve cells.

A

Phenylalanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

alcohol-containing amino acid that is an important component in
the formation of collagen, elastin (a connective tissue protein), and tooth enamel.

A

Threonine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
metabolic precursor for serotonin, melatonin (a neurohormone),
and niacin (a vitamin).
A

Tryptophan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

one of the simplest amino acids and is a product of the breakdown of
DNA or the dipeptides, anserine and carnosine.

A

Alanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

plays a major role in
the transfer of nitrogen from peripheral tissues to the liver for processing and
excretion and strengthens the immune system through production of antibodies.

A

Alanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

one of the principal and most abundant amino acids involved in the transport of
nitrogen.

A

Asparagine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

is the process by which an amine group is introduced into an organic
molecule,

A

Amination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

is the transfer of an amino acid to an α-ketoacid.

A

transamination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

precursor for several
other amino acids. is a metabolite in the citric acid cycle and the urea
cycle. It also participates in the generation of glucose from nonsugar substrates,

A

Aspartic acid,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

is an important structural and functional component of many proteins
and enzymes and has significant antioxidant properties.

A

Cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

serves as a neurotransmitter, and its
dysregulation has been linked to epileptic seizures. It is also important in the
metabolism of sugars and fats and aids in the transport of potassium into spinal
fluid.

A

Glutamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the most abundant amino acid in the body and is synthesized from
glutamic acid.

A

Glutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

synthesized from another nonessential amino acid, serine.

A

Glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

involved in wound healing, especially that of cartilage, and in
the strengthening of joints, tendons, and cardiac tissue. It also works in tandem
with vitamin C to promote healthy connective tissues.

A

Proline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

needed for the proper metabolism of lipids and fatty acids
and plays an important role in the body’s synthetic pathways for pyrimidines,
purines, creatine, and porphyrins.

A

Serine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

precursor of the adrenal hormones epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine
and thyroid hormones including thyroxine. It is important in overall metabolism
and aiding in function of the adrenal glands, thyroid, and pituitary glands.

A

Tyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

recognized as the 21st amino acid; encoded by a UGA codon; has a
specialized transfer RNA (tRNA).

A

Selenocysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

the 22nd naturally occurring genetically encoded amino acid used
by some prokaryotes and single-celled microorganisms in enzymes that are part
of their methane-producing metabolism. This amino acid is not present in humans.

A

Pyrrolysine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
are a class of inherited errors of metabolism in which there
is an enzyme defect that inhibits the body's ability to metabolize certain amino
acids.
A

Aminoacidopathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

one of the most well-known aminoacidopathies and

was the first newborn screening test introduced in the early 1960s.

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

absence of activity of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) due to
mutations in the PAH gene.

A

PKU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In the newborn, the upper limit of normal

for phenylalanine concentration in the blood is

A

120 μmol/L (2 mg/dL).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In the

absence of PAH activity, phenylalanine concentrations are usually greater than

A

1,200 μmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

can also be the result of a deficiency in the enzymes

needed for regeneration and synthesis of tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4)

A

Hyperphenylalaninemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

cofactor required for the enzymatic hydroxylation of phenylalanine, tyrosine,
and tryptophan.

A

BH4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

the first drug to help manage PKU.
14
The drug helps reduce phenylalanine concentrations by increasing the activity of
the PAH enzyme.

A

sapropterin dihydrochloride (Kuvan®),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

semiquantitative, bacterial inhibition assay for
phenylalanine based on the ability of phenylalanine to facilitate bacterial growth
in a culture medium despite the presence of a growth inhibitor.

A

Guthrie test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

an agar gel plate containing _____ , a growth inhibitor,

is inoculated with Bacillus subtilis.

A

β-2-thienylalanine,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The Guthrie test is sensitive enough to detect serum

phenylalanine concentrations of

A

180 μmol/L (3 mg/dL).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The reference method for quantitative serum phenylalanine is _____;
however, _____ is now considered to be the gold standard for detecting a
variety of congenital diseases in newborns.

A

HPLC;MS/MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Patients
with PKU generally demonstrate an _____ in phenylalanine concentrations
and a ______ in tyrosine concentrations.

A

increase;decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This
inborn metabolic disorder of tyrosine catabolism is characterized by the
excretion of tyrosine and its catabolites in urine or tyrosinuria.

A

Tyrosinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

the most severe form occurring in about 1 in 100,000
births worldwide. This form of tyrosinemia is caused by a mutation in the FAH
gene, which codes for the enzyme fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase (FAH).

A

Type I tyrosinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

caused by a mutation in the TAT gene, which leads to a

deficiency of the enzyme tyrosine aminotransferase (TAT).

A

Type II tyrosinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

rare disorder with only a few cases having been
reported worldwide. It is caused by a mutation in the HPD gene that results in
deficiency of the enzyme 4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase (HPD).

A

Type III tyrosinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

is a toxic metabolite that forms when tyrosine cannot be

metabolized through the appropriate enzymatic pathway.

A

Succinylacetone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The treatment for tyrosinemia is generally a low-protein

diet, but may also include medications such as

A

nitisinone (NTBC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A mutation in the HGD
gene leads to a deficiency of the enzyme homogentisate oxidase (HGD), which
is required for proper metabolism of tyrosine and phenylalanine.

A

Alkaptonuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

HGA is
deposited in the cartilage of the ears, nose, and tendons of the extremities and
results in a dark blue-black pigmentation known as

A

ochronosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

may be performed as a rapid screen for the presence

of HGA in urine.

A

ferric chloride test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Patients with alkaptonuria may be prescribed high-dose

A

Vitamin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

results from an absence or greatly reduced
activity of a complex of enzymes known as branched-chain α-ketoacid
decarboxylase (BCKD).

A

Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

modified Guthrie test (MSUD): An agar gel plate
containing _______, another growth inhibitor, is inoculated with Bacillus
subtilis.

A

4-azaleucine,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A leucine concentration greater than ____ is indicative of MSUD.

A

4 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation

of the IVD gene, which codes for isovaleryl-CoA dehydrogenase

A

Isovaleric acidemia (IVA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Mutations in the CBS, MTHFR, MTR, MTRR, and MMADHC

can result in

A

homocystinuria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

This mutation results in a deficiency of the enzyme ______, which is necessary for metabolism of methionine.

A

cystathionine β-

synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Treatment includes dietary restriction of proteins to reduce concentrations of
methionine as well as high doses of

A

Vitamin B6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

modified Guthrie test (Homocystinuria): In this form of the test, _________ is
utilized as the bacterial growth inhibitor and increased plasma methionine levels
will result in bacterial growth.

A

L-methionine sulfoximine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Citrullinemia belongs to a class of genetic diseases called

A

urea cycle disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

is the result of a mutation in the ASS1 gene. This gene

codes for synthesis of the enzyme argininosuccinic acid synthetase (ASS).

A

Type I citrullinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

caused by a mutation in the SLC25A13 gene that

codes for production of the transport protein citrin.

A

Type II citrullinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

helps transport
molecules inside the cell that are used in the production and breakdown of
simple sugars, production of proteins, and the urea cycle.

A

Citrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

another urea cycle amino acid disorder that
is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and is the result of a mutation in
the ASL gene.

A

Argininosuccinic aciduria (ASA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

is an inherited autosomal recessive disorder, occurring in
approximately 1 in 10,000 births worldwide, which is caused by mutations in the
SLC3A1 and SLC7A9 genes.

A

Cystinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

characterized by inadequate reabsorption of cystine
during urine formation in the kidneys resulting in an elevated concentration of
cystine.

A

Cystinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

forms a more soluble

complex with cystine, which prevents it from precipitating and forming stones.

A

Penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Cystinuria can be diagnosed by testing the urine for cystine using _______, which produces a red-purple color on reaction with sulfhydryl
groups.

A

cyanide

nitroprusside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Patients with cystinuria also excrete elevated concentrations of

A

lysine, arginine, ornithine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Blood samples for amino acid analysis should be drawn after at least _____hrs
of fasting to avoid the effect of absorbed amino acids originating from dietary
proteins.

A

6-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

For amino acid screening, the method of choice is

A

thin-layer

chromatography.

77
Q

It is the fact that proteins contain ______ that sets them apart from pure
carbohydrates and lipids,

A

nitrogen

78
Q

four distinct levels of a protein’s structure:

A

primary, secondary,

tertiary, and quaternary.

79
Q

represents the number and types of

amino acids in the specific amino acid sequence.

A

Primary structure

80
Q

refers to commonly formed structures stabilized by

hydrogen bonds between the amino acids within the protein.

A

Secondary structure

81
Q

refers to the overall shape, or conformation, of the protein

molecule.

A

Tertiary structure

82
Q

is the shape or structure that results from the
interaction of more than one protein molecule, or protein subunits, held together
by noncovalent forces such as hydrogen bonds and electrostatic interactions.

A

Quaternary structure

83
Q

lysine, arginine, and histidine

A

basic groups

84
Q

glutamate,

aspartic acid, cysteine, and tyrosine.

A

acidic groups

85
Q

The pH at which an amino

acid or protein has no net charge is known as its:

A

isoelectric point (pI).

86
Q

Proteins differ in their pI values, but for most proteins it occurs in the
pH range of

A

5.5-8

87
Q

The solubility of proteins in blood requires a pH in the

range of

A

7.35 to 7.45.

88
Q

When the secondary, tertiary, or quaternary structure of a protein is
disturbed, the protein may lose its functional and chemical characteristics. This
loss of its native, or naturally occurring, folded structure is called:

A

denaturation.

89
Q

TRUE/FALSE: Protein synthesis occurs at a rate of approximately two to six peptide bonds
per second.

A

TRUE

90
Q

The breakdown of protein occurs in the digestive tract and kidneys, but
primarily in the

A

liver.

91
Q

There are two main routes for converting intracellular proteins to
free amino acids:

A

lysosomal pathway and a cytosolic pathway.

92
Q

The central reactions that remove amino acid nitrogen from the body are
known as

A

transaminations.

93
Q

proteins that catalyze biochemical reactions. They are normally
found intracellularly, but are released into the bloodstream as a result of tissue
damage,

A

Enzymes

94
Q

chemical messenger proteins that control the action(s) of specific
cells or organs.

A

Hormones

95
Q

serve as reservoirs for metal ions and amino acids so they can
be stored without causing harm and released later.

A

Storage proteins

96
Q

contain peptide chains composed of only amino acids.

A

Simple proteins

97
Q

globe-like and have

symmetrical proteins that are soluble in water.

A

Globular proteins

98
Q

form long protein filaments or subunits, are asymmetrical and usually
inert, and are generally water insoluble due to their hydrophobic R groups.

A

Fibrous

proteins

99
Q

consist of a protein and a nonprotein.

A

Conjugated proteins

100
Q

The nonamino part

of a conjugated protein is generally referred to as the

A

prosthetic group.

101
Q

have a metal ion attached to

the protein,

A

Metalloproteins

102
Q

When the percentage of carbohydrate is greater than 40%, the

protein conjugate is referred to as a

A

mucoprotein or proteoglycan.

103
Q

molecules with a composition of 10% to 40% carbohydrate are

referred to as

A

glycoproteins.

104
Q

are those proteins that are combined with

nucleic acids.

A

Nucleoproteins

105
Q

transport protein for the thyroid hormones, thyroxine (T4
), and triiodothyronine (T3); also forms a complex with retinol-binding
protein to transport retinol (vitamin A) and is rich in the amino acid tryptophan.

A

Prealbumin, or transthyretin

106
Q

Prealbumin has

a half-life of approximately

A

2 days

107
Q

synthesized in the liver at a rate of 9 to 12 g/day and is the most
abundant protein in the plasma.

A

Albumin

108
Q

Albumin leaves the bloodstream at a rate of 4% to 5% of
the total intravascular albumin concentration per hour. This rate of movement is
known as the

A

transcapillary escape rate

109
Q

half-life of serum

albumin is

A

20 days

110
Q

Mutations resulting from an autosomal recessive trait can cause an absence of
albumin, known as

A

analbuminemia

111
Q

presence of albumin that has unusual
molecular characteristics; demonstrated by the presence of two albumin bands during
electrophoresis instead of the single band usually observed.

A

bisalbuminemia.

112
Q

Its main function

is in the inhibition of the protease, neutrophil elastase.

A

α1

-Antitrypsin

113
Q

Several phenotypes of α1

-antitrypsin deficiency have been
identified. The most common phenotype is ____ and is associated
with normal α1
-antitrypsin activity.

A

MM (allele PiM)

114
Q

is at greatest risk for developing
hepatic and pulmonary disease from α1
-antitrypsin deficiency.

A

homozygous phenotype ZZ

115
Q

spina bifida, neural tube defects, abdominal wall defects,

anencephaly, general fetal distress, and the presence of twins.

A

elevated AFP

concentration

116
Q

AFP screening is performed between _______ weeks gestation when
maternal AFP increases

A

15 and 20

117
Q

is a reflection of an individual patient’s value compared with the
median.

A

multiple of the median or MoM

118
Q

AFP may also be used as a tumor marker and is fractionated by affinity
electrophoresis into three isoforms:

A

(L1, L2, and L3)

119
Q

The isoforms are based on their reactivity

with the lectin

A

Lens culinaris agglutinin (LCA).

120
Q

considered as a tumor marker for the North American population for screening
chronic liver disease patients for hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).

A

AFP-L3

121
Q

major plasma glycoprotein

that is negatively charged even in acidic solutions lending to its name.

A

α1

-Acid glycoprotein (AAG), or orosomucoid

122
Q

also used in diagnosis and evaluation of neonatal bacterial infections.

A

α1

-Acid glycoprotein (AAG), or orosomucoid

123
Q
α-globulin glycoprotein that is a member of the serine
proteinase inhibitor (serpin) family.
A

α1

-Antichymotrypsin

124
Q

is also associated with the pathogenesis of
Alzheimer’s disease as it is an integral component of the amyloid deposits in
Alzheimer’s disease.

A

α1

-Antichymotrypsin

125
Q

family of serine protease inhibitors,
assembled from two precursor proteins: a light chain and one or two heavy
chains.

A

Inter-α-trypsin inhibitors (ITIs)

126
Q

also known as group-specific component or vitamin D–

binding protein.

A

Gc-globulin (Gc)

127
Q

may be of importance for
bone formation and in the immune system as it can act as a cochemotactic factor
in facilitating chemotaxis of neutrophils and monocytes.

A

Gc-globulin (Gc)

128
Q

three major electrophoretic variants of Gc exist

A

Gc2, Gc1s, and Gc1f.

129
Q

the method of choice for Gc measurements in the clinical laboratory.

A

Immunonephelometry

130
Q

TRUE/FALSE: An individual’s haptoglobin phenotype has been reported as an independent
risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD) in patients with type 2 diabetes
mellitus.

A

TRUE

131
Q

bind free

hemoglobin to prevent the loss of its constituent, iron, into the urine.

A

haptoglobin

132
Q

Three phenotypes of haptoglobin are found in humans:

A

Hp1-1, Hp2-

1, and Hp2-2.

133
Q

is an autosomal recessive
inherited disorder associated with decreased concentrations of ceruloplasmin,
typically 0.1 g/L, and excess storage of copper in the liver, brain, and other
organs, which results in hepatic cirrhosis and neurologic damage.

A

Wilson’s

disease

134
Q

Copper is also deposited in the cornea,

producing the characteristic:

A

Kayser-Fleischer rings.

135
Q

inhibits proteases such as trypsin, thrombin, kallikrein, and
plasmin by means of a bait region that can entrap proteinases.

A

α2

-Macroglobulin

136
Q

It is the major component of the β-globulin fraction on protein
electrophoresis and plays an important role in the transport of iron.

A

Transferrin, or siderophilin

137
Q

is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait due to mutation

of both transferrin genes, with a resulting absence of transferrin.

A

Atransferrinemia

138
Q

bind with free heme, which causes oxidative

damage.

A

Hemopexin

139
Q

the light chain component of the major
histocompatibility complex or human leukocyte antigen (HLA). This protein is
found on the surface of most nucleated cells and is present in high
concentrations on lymphocytes.

A

β2-Microglobulin

140
Q

It is synthesized in the
liver and is classified as a glycoprotein because it has considerable carbohydrate
content.

A

Fibrinogen

141
Q

TRUE/FALSE: individuals
with CRP levels greater than 3 mg/L have four to six times greater risk for
development of diabetes than individuals with lower levels of CRP.

A

TRUE

142
Q

is the C-reactive protein, but is named for a
monoclonal antibody–based test methodology that can detect CRP at levels
below 1 mg/L.

A

High-sensitivity CRP (hsCRP)

143
Q

Acute-phase reactants

A
CRP
Ceruloplasmin
Hemopexin
Haptoglobin
α1-Antichymotrypsin
α1-Acid glycoprotein (AAG)
α1-Antitrypsin
Albumin
Fibrinogen
Transferrin
Prealbumin
144
Q

it is also a useful marker for monitoring the success or

failure of reperfusion.

A

myoglobin

145
Q

is a nephrotoxin, and in
severe muscle injury, concentrations of myoglobin may raise very quickly
causing damage to the kidneys.

A

myoglobin

146
Q

Cardiac troponin (cTn) represents a complex of regulatory proteins that include:

A

troponin C (TnC), troponin I (cTnI), and troponin T (cTnT)

147
Q

are considered the “gold standard” for
diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) in which the blood supply to the
heart muscle is suddenly impeded.

A

Cardiac troponins

148
Q

Natriuretic peptides are a family of structurally related hormones that include:

A

atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), B-type (or brain) natriuretic peptide (BNP), C-
type natriuretic peptide (CNP), and dendroaspis natriuretic peptide (DNP).

149
Q

NT-proBNP and BNP are found in greatest

concentration in the

A

left ventricular myocardium

150
Q

is used to help predict the short-term risk of

premature delivery.

A

Fetal fibronectin (fFN)

151
Q

an accurate marker of cerebrospinal fluid
leakage and have also been used as a potential marker in detecting impaired
renal function

A

β-Trace protein (BTP), or prostaglandin D synthase

152
Q

not
influenced by glucocorticoid therapy; evaluated as a promising
marker in the diagnosis of perilymphatic fluid fistulas.

A

β-Trace protein (BTP)

153
Q

proteolytic fragments of collagen I
formed during bone turnover, and their presence in serum and urine is a
biochemical marker of bone resorption.

A

Cross-linked C-telopeptides (CTXs)

154
Q

is used to measure CTX in the laboratory.

A

ECLIA technology

155
Q

is freely filtered by the glomerulus and almost completely
reabsorbed and catabolized by the proximal tubular cells; new sensitive endogenous serum marker for the
glomerular filtration rate because it is produced and destroyed at a fairly constant
rate.

A

Cystatin C

156
Q

insoluble fibrous protein aggregates formed due to an alteration in
their secondary structure known as β-pleated sheets.

A

Amyloids

157
Q

refers to
conditions in which amyloids are abnormally deposited in organs and tissues,
including the heart and blood vessels, brain and peripheral nerves, kidneys, liver,
spleen, and intestines, causing localized or widespread organ failure.

A

Amyloidosis

158
Q

are not routinely performed, but
may be used to aid in the differential diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease from other
forms of dementia.

A

Amyloid β42 (Aβ42) and Tau protein tests

159
Q

a brain phosphoprotein, make up
part of the structure of neurofibrillary tangles (twisted protein fragments that
clog nerve cells),

A

Abnormal forms of Tau

160
Q

formed from β amyloid precursor

protein, is associated with the creation of senile plaques.

A

Aβ42

161
Q

The most common method for total nitrogen analysis uses

A

chemiluminescence

162
Q
In
this method (kjeldahl), proteins are assumed to contain an average mass of \_\_\_\_ nitrogen
A

16%

163
Q

measures the amount of nitrogen in the specimen.

A

Kjeldahl method

164
Q

widely used method for the determination of
total protein and is recommended by the International Federation of Clinical
Chemistry expert panel.

A

biuret procedure

165
Q

The reagent also contains ______, which forms a
complex with cupric ions to prevent their precipitation in the alkaline solution,
and ______, which acts as an antioxidant.

A

sodium potassium tartrate; potassium iodide

166
Q

Globulins may be elevated due to

conditions such as:

A

multiple myeloma, chronic inflammatory disorders, and

rheumatoid arthritis.

167
Q

globulins are separated from albumin by a precipitation

process using sodium salt.

A

Salt Fractionation

168
Q
is not specific for albumin and β-
lipoproteins and some α1
- and α2
-globulins will bind to this dye, which could
result in falsely elevated values.
A

Methyl orange

169
Q

is more specific for albumin, but several
compounds, such as salicylates (aspirin), penicillin, conjugated bilirubin, and
sulfonamides interfere

A

hydroxyazobenzene-benzoic acid (HABA)

170
Q

is not affected by interfering substances such as

bilirubin and salicylates; however, hemoglobin binds

A

BCG

171
Q

is not affected by interfering substances such as

bilirubin and salicylates; however, hemoglobin binds & interferes

A

BCG

172
Q

The total globulin concentration in serum is determined by a

direct colorimetric method using

A

glyoxylic acid (results in purple color)

173
Q

uses a higher
voltage coupled with a cooling system in the electrophoretic apparatus and a
more concentrated buffer.

A

High-Resolution Protein Electrophoresis

174
Q

collection of techniques in which the separation of

molecules takes place in silica capillaries.

A

Capillary Electrophoresis

175
Q

the
negatively charged molecules in the specimen also have a tendency to migrate
back toward the positively charged injector end; this is referred to as

A

electrophoretic mobility.

176
Q

zone electrophoresis that separates proteins on the

basis of their pI.

A

Isoelectric focusing (IEF)

177
Q

phenotyping of α1
-antitrypsin
deficiencies, determination of genetic variants of enzymes and hemoglobins,
detection of paraproteins in serum, oligoclonal bands in CSF, and isoenzyme
determinations.

A

clinical applications of IEF

178
Q

Low CSF

protein values are found in

A

hyperthyroidism and when fluid is leaking from the

central nervous system.

179
Q

other conditions that induce

CNS demyelination and elevated concentrations of myelin basic protein include

A

meningoencephalitis, SLE, diabetes mellitus, and chronic renal failure.

180
Q

In very active demyelination, concentrations

of myelin basic proteins of

A

17 to 100 ng/mL

181
Q

In slow

demyelination, values of

A

6 to 16 ng/mL

182
Q

in remission, the values are

less than

A

4 ng/mL.

183
Q

presence of oligoclonal bands are found in:

A

Multiple sclerosis
Guillain-Barre syndrome, bacterial meningitis, viral encephalitis,
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, and neurosyphilis.

184
Q

TP: Normal/Decreased
Albumin: Decreased
Globulin: Increased

A

Hepatic damage, burns, trauma, infections

185
Q

TP: Decreased
Albumin: Decreased
Globulin: Normal

A

Malabsorption, Inadequate diet, Nephrotic syndrome

186
Q

TP: Decreased
Albumin: Normal
Globulin: Decreased

A

Immunodeficiency syndromes

187
Q

TP: Decreased
Albumin: Decreased
Globulin: Decreased

A

Salt Retention Syndrome

188
Q

TP: Increased
Albumin: Increased
Globulin: Increased

A

Dehydration

189
Q

TP: Increased
Albumin: Normal
Globulin: Increased

A

Multiple myeloma, monoclonal & polyclonal gammopathies