Altklausur Flashcards

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1
Q

In E.coli the co translational targeting depends on specific ribonucleoprotein complexes like
- SRP
- SecA
- SecB

A

SRP

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2
Q

The TAT-pathway
- allows the transmembrane transport of folded proteins
- allows the transport of protein complexes already loaded with cofactors
- is also present in plastids

A
  • allows the transmembrane transport of folded proteins
  • is also present in plastids
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3
Q

In E.coli the topogenesis of membrane proteins of the inner (plasma) membrane occurs in most cases
- co translational
- SecY-dependent
- YidC dependent but not SecY dependent

A
  • co translational
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4
Q

Secretion of proteins via the Type IV system (T4SS) requires the hydrolysis of ATP in the
- cytoplasm
- periplasm
- the extracellular space

A
  • cytoplasm
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5
Q

The formation of disulphide bounds in secretory proteins occurs in E. coli
- in the cytoplasm
- in the periplasm
- at the extraperiplasmic surface of the outer membrane

A
  • periplasm
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6
Q

The lipidation of outer membrane proteins in bacteria occurs
- in the cytoplasm
- at the periplasmic surface of the plasma membrane
- at the periplasmic surface of the outer membrane

A
  • in the cytoplasm
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7
Q

The import of proteins into the matrix of mitochondria requires a targeting signal
- that can form a amphipathic helix
- that contains positive charges
- that is enriched in leucines and isoleucines
The process uses
- GTP
- ATP
- PMF
as energy source.

A
  • that can form a amphipathic helix
  • ATP
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8
Q

beta-barrel proteins (e.g. porins) of the outer mitochondrial membranes are inserted
- directly from the cytoplasm
- using a pathway that crosses the inter membrane space
- using PMF as energy source

A
  • using a pathway that crosses the inter membrane space
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9
Q

The inter membrane space
- has a redox potential that supports the formation of disulfide bounds
- has a redox potential that blocks the enzymatic reshuffling of disulfide bounds / requires enzymatic factors for the formation of disulfide bounds
- requires enzymatic factors for the formation of disulfide bounds

A
  • has a redox potential that supports the formation of disulfide bounds
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9
Q

The inter membrane space
- has a redox potential that supports the formation of disulfide bounds
- has a redox potential that blocks the enzymatic reshuffling of disulfide bounds / requires enzymatic factors for the formation of disulfide bounds
- requires enzymatic factors for the formation of disulfide bounds

A
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10
Q

Complex plastids
- contain more than two internal membranes
- contain always two genomes of different evolutionary origin
- descend from eukaryotic plastid-containing protists

A
  • contain more than two internal membranes
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11
Q

The vesicular transport between the ER and the Golgi apparatus requires the direct involvement of
- a COPII coat
- a COPI coat
- SNAREs

A
  • COPI
  • SNAREs
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12
Q

The KDEL-receptor usually transports
- soluble proteins from the ER to the Golgi
- membrane proteins from the ER to the Golgi
- Membrane proteins from the Golgi to the ER
if they have the KDEL motif at their C-terminus.

A
  • membrane proteins from the Golgi to the ER
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13
Q

The import of activated sugars into the medial Golgi requires
- flippases and isoprenes
- antiporters
- aquaporins

A
  • antiporters
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14
Q

The typical stack structure of the Mammalian Golgi is stabilized
- by a static matrix similar to the nuclear lattice
- through interactions between tethering factors which are also involved in membrane traffic through the Golgi and their regulators
- by membrane contact sites which also serve the lipid exchange between Golgi stacks

A
  • through interactions between tethering factors which are also involved in membrane traffic through the Golgi and their regulators
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15
Q

The activation of preproproteinconvertases is triggered
- by cholesterol
- by the concentration of calcium ions
- by the pH

A
  • by the concentration of calcium ions
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16
Q

Name the two currently discussed mechanisms explaining the formation of secretory storage vesicles

A
  • cleavage by PC3 end-protease and PC2 end-protease
  • cleavage by Carboxypeptidase

-> Disulfide bonds hold the rest together so that just A and B segment are left

Secretory vesicles form from the trans Golgi network, and they release their contents to the cell exterior by exocytosis in response to extracellular signals. The secreted product can be either a small molecule (such as histamine) or a protein (such as a hormone or digestive enzyme).

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17
Q

Presently there are three pathways discussed describing the behavior of synaptic vesicles. What are the typical properties that are under dispute for the respective pathway in brief?

A

KISS AND RUN
1) Docking
2) Priming
3) Fusion pore opening
4) Endocytosis
5) NT uptake

KISS AND STAY
1) NT uptake
2) Priming
3) Fusion pore opening

ENDOSOME RECYCLING MODEL
exocytosis/endocytosis cycle with a complete collapse of the vesicle with its target membrane

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18
Q

Phagocytosis depends on the reorganization of
- the cortical actin network
- the tubular spindles
- the Golgi apparatus

A
  • the cortical actin network
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19
Q

The compartment specific release of ligands from their receptor in the different end-lysosomal compartment is usually regulated by
- the Zn concentration in the compartment
- the luminal pH of the compartment
- the binding of Ram proteins to the luminal domains of the receptor

A
  • the binding of Ram proteins to the luminal domains of the receptor
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20
Q

The targeting signal of many enzymes to the lysosome in mammalian cells is
- mannose-6-phosphate
- glucose-1-phosphate
- the SKL-peptide

A
  • mannose-6-phosphate
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21
Q

The degradation of lipid vesicles in lysosomes requires the destabilizing activity of
- glycosylated LAMPs
- the lipid LBPA
- activators presenting membrane lipids to lipases

A
  • the lipid LBPA
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22
Q

A common feature of cytotoxic T-cells and mast cells is the existence of
- secretory lysosomes
- apical early endoscopes
- melanosomes

A
  • secretory lysosomes
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23
Q

Downregulation of membrane receptors (e.g. EGF-receptor) requires
- ubiquitination of cytoplasmic receptor domains
- clathrine-dependent sorting to late endosomes
- ECRT-dependent sorting to internal vesicles of MVB

A
  • ECRT dependent sorting to internal vesicles of MVB
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24
Q

Macroautophagy requires the involvement of
- ubiqutin-like protein tags
- membrane patches of the plasma membrane
- membrane patches of the inner nuclear membrane

A
  • ubiquitin like protein tags
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25
Q

An important difference between microautophagy in comparison to macroautophagy is
- the lack of the formation of a double-membrane structure (phagophore)
- the involvement of lysosomal hydrolyses during digestion of the material
- the maximal size of objects that can be degraded by this process

A
  • the lack of the formation of a double-membrane structure (Phagophore)
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26
Q

Describe briefly (one note for each!) the three currently discussed models, how exocytosis of secretory vesicles or secretory lysosomes may contribute to the repair of small holes on the plasma membrane or membrane ruptures.

A

SECRETORY LYSOSOMES / MVB
- hematopoietic cells (diverse content including exosomes and their content, acid hydrolyses and other proteins)
- acrosomes of sperm cells (procathepsin L; but also other models of its origin!)
- melanosomes (but also other models)
- secretion of morphogens in Drosophila?

EXOCYTOSIS OF CONVENTIONAL LYSOSOMES
- membrane repair (e.g. fibroblasts, muscle, stomach …)
- “defecation” mechanism by lysosomes in all cells?
- secretion is in both cases Ca2+-regulated
- machinery for exocytosis includes general but probably also cell-type specific factors

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27
Q

Name three pathways for lipid exchange between cellular compartments

A
  • spontaneous exchange only fast for short or single-chain lipids (e.g. minutes for lysophosphatidylcholin)
  • lipid transport using the membranous transport containers involved in protein transport
  • lipid transfer proteins; also important for formation of lipid droplets
    -> a) via Diffusion
    -> b) via membrane contact sites
  • lipid exchange between leaflets of the same membrane occurs usually via flippases (ATP-dependent and ATP-independent)
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28
Q

Name the main steps during formation of the nucleus after mitosis of a typical mammalian cell

A
  • Dephgosphorylation of components like INM, nuclear pore and lamin
  • targeting of nucleocytoskeletal proteins and pre-pore forming nucleoporins to the chromosomal surface
  • chromosome clustering removes cytoplasm from reassembling nucleus
  • membrane recruitment (reticular ER and/or vesicles) and fusion by interaction of integral membrane proteins of the inner nuclear membrane (INM) with chromatin
  • formation of ER sheets by enhanced recruitment of integral inner membrane proteins of the INM and of other sheet-forming components into these areas
  • sealing of the envelop (annular fusion) by p97 and ESCRTIII at those sites, were MT (from the spindle) cross the nucleoplasm - cytoplasm borderline
  • (final?) assembling of nuclear core complex
  • transport of the bulk of laming into the nucleus via NPCs
  • formation of the new lamina
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29
Q

The maturation of spliceosomal RNAs involves
- a transient presence of several RNA types in the cytoplasm
- base modifications for several RNA types in the Canal bodies
- base modifications for one type of RNA in the nucleolus

A

(- a transient presence of several RNA types in the cytoplasm)
- base modifications for one type of RNA in the nucleolus

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30
Q

Polyadenylation of RNA
- is a destabilizing motif in the bacteria
- is an enzymatic reaction in eukaryotes inly found during maturation of mRNAs
- is a prerequisite for export of most mRNAs from the nucleus

A
  • is an enzymatic reaction in eukaryotes only found during maturation of mRNAs
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31
Q

Stress granules
- are cytoplasmic membrane surrounded organelles
- are storage sites for mRNA, ribosomal subunits and others during stress
- are sites of maturation of large ribosomal subunits

A
  • are storage sites for mRNA, ribosomal subunits and others during stress
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32
Q

The nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) is a quality control step degrading compromised
- small ribosomal subunits
- tRNA
- mRNA

A
  • mRNA
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33
Q

During post-translational transport across the plasma membrane of bacteria SecA
- directly recognizes and proof-reads the signal sequence
- moves the polypeptide through the SecYEG channel
- cleaves off the signal sequence.
Sec A needs for this
- ATP
- GTP
- PMF

A
  • moves the polypeptide through the SecYEG-channel
  • ATP
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34
Q

Combine the transporters with their correct function:
- Type V autotransporter
- Type III secretion system
- Tat-transporter
- Type I secretory system

  • Needs SecYEG for the transport step across the plasma membrane
  • can translocate substrates already folded in cytoplasm
  • has an ATPase subunit located in the cytoplasm
A
  • Type V autotransporter: needs SecYEG for the transport step across the plasma membrane
  • Type III secretion system: has an ATPase subunit located in the cytoplasm
  • Tat transporter: can translocate substrates already folded in the cytoplasm
  • Type I secretory system: Needs SecYEG for the transport step across the plasma membrane?
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35
Q

In proteobacteria the linkage of disulphide bridges occurs usually (in the extracellular space / in the periplasmic space / in the cytoplasm). Finally, the excessive electrons are (usually / depending on the environmental conditions / never) transferred to oxygen. Eubacterial proteins are (often / rarely / never) modified via N-linked glycosylation. Proteins of the periplasm, which do not fold correctly, are usually (degraded by Clp-type proteases after backtranslocation into the cytoplasm / degraded by proteases in the periplasm / disposed by secretion across the outer membrane). The transport of lipids from the plasmamembrane (PM) to the outer membrane (OM) occurs (via vesicles / via Iipid transfer proteins, forming a street-like connection between the PM and the OM , via diffusion of soluble lipid-binding molecules across the periplasmic space).

A
  1. periplasmic space
  2. ?
  3. often
  4. degraded by proteases in the peri plasm
  5. via Lipid Transfer Proteins, forming a street like connection between the PM and the OM
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36
Q

(The Oxal protein of the inner membrane / protein complexes of the inter membrane space / the ToM-complex) is directly involved in the topogenesis of ß- barrel proteins of mitochondria.
Compared to the matrix, the inter membrane space of mitochondria is (oxidising / reducing / slightly acidic). The majority of proteins found in the stroma of plastids that are coded in the nucleus (are imported via the TOC / are imported via the TIC / contain a cleavable transit peptide)). Proteins with an N-linked glycosylation (have so far no been found in plastids I are frequently found with low abundance, due to the weak activity of an oligosaccharyltransferase in the thylakoid membrane / can be found in some rare cases indicating the existence of an import partway which goes across the endoplasmic reticulum).
According to the presently best-supported model (are all peroxisomal membrane proteins always imported directly from the cytoplasm into the peroxisome / are some membrane proteins able to enter the peroxisome via the endoplasmic reticulum / are all membrane proteins always entering the peroxisome via the endoplasmic reticulum).

A
  1. The Tom-complex
  2. reducing
  3. are imported via the TOC / are imported via the TIC
  4. can be found in some rare cases indicating the existence of an import pathway which goes across the endoplasmatic reticulum
  5. are some membrane proteins able to enter the peroxisome via the endoplasmic reticulum
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37
Q

Describe the transport cycte of the KDEL-receptor using the following terms: ER, Golgi, COPI, COPll, pH, cargo-binding, cargo’release, vesicle. Start with the ER

A

MAINTENANCE OF ER PROTEIN COMPOSITION
Two systems: Retention of proteins, retrieval of proteins

RETENTION
- due to direct or indirect association with cytoplasmic or nucleoplasmic elements (ribosomes, lamins etc) disfavoring entry into exit sites; indirect association could be driven by Ca2+ dependent interactions
-due to TMD with weak hydrophobicity

RETRIEVAL - NEEDS SORTING SIGNALS
- KDELcooh for luminal proteins (recognized by KDEL-receptor family)
- others (recognized by Erv41/46)
- signal in TM of proteins (recognized by Rer1)

  • KKXXcooh for membrane proteins and
  • XXRR- for Type II membrane proteins (both recognized directly by COPI-coat)
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38
Q

Secretory granules (SG) are formed at the (TGN / the sorting endosome / the endoplasmic reticulum) and regularly contain enzymes for (processing of pro- peptides / O-glycosylation / disulphide-bound reshuffling).
NSF (is an ATPase, which dissolved SNARE bundles / is a v-SNARE / is acting after the fusion pore has formed).
Essential factors for clathrine-mediated endocytosis are (Dynamins / SNARE- proteins I AP2l.
During micropinocytosis the membrane carriers (may be coated by clathrin / may be coated by calvin I may be without any detectable coat)’

A
  1. TGN = trans Golgi network
  2. O-glycosylation?
  3. is an ATPase, which dissolves SNARE bundles
  4. Dynamins
  5. may be coated by Clathrin
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39
Q

Explain the term “compensatory endocytosis”

A
  • Endocytosis counterbalances exocytosis (compensatory endocytosis) recycling specific molecules (e.g. SNAREs) or large membrane areas (“excess retrieval”). It regulates the size of the PM and the cell shape.
  • Endocytosis regulates the capacity of the PM for transport of molecules.
  • Endocytosis regulates the capacity of the PM for transport of information (receptor down-regulation)
    -> Endocytosis provides a platform for the integration of cellular signaling pathways
    -> Endocyosis is involved in cell differentiation and embryonic development via clearance of receptors and joining structures from the PM
  • Pathogens and toxins usually enter the cell via endocytosis
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40
Q

The mannose-G-phosphatereceptor (transports acid hydrolases to the late endosome/lysosome / transports some soluble substrates destined for degradations from the extracellular space towards the late endosome/lysosome / guides defective channels from the plasmamembrane to the late endosome/lysosome).
Autophagy is upregulated (during starvation / in order to degrade intracellular pathogenes / during oocyte maturation in mammalia).
The membrane of inner vesicles of MVB are enriched in (Cardiolipine I Bis(monoacylglycero)phosphate / Ganglioside).
(Lysosoms / secretory granules / early (sorting) endosomes) provide the material for the formation and maturation of melanosomes.

A
  1. transports acid hydrolyses to the late endoscome lysosome
  2. during starvation / in order to degrade intracellular pathogens
  3. Cardiolipine
  4. Lysosomes
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41
Q

Name the two main mechanistic causes for the asymmetric distribution of membrane lipids at the eukaryotic plasma membrane

A
  • Glycerophospholipids
  • Sphingolipids + cholesterol -> lipid micro domains
  • Bulk synthesis of lipids in the ER, Espresso. also at ER-Mito contact sites
  • Mito synthesizes 45 % of its lipid content
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42
Q

Cytokinesis in mammalian cells, Kormophyten and baker’s yeast

A
  • starts usually with the formation of an ingression furrow -> in somatic mammalian cells
  • requires a break-down of the nuclear envelope - in somatic mammalian cells
  • needs vesicle transport along microtubules to the mid-lane -> in somatic cells of a Kormophyte
  • is always morphologically asymmetric -> in cells of Saccharomyces cerevisiae (Baker’s yeast) (in somatic mammalian cells)
  • ends with a structure termed midbody -> Metazoa (Mammalian)
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43
Q

For the division of chloroplast the involvement of (2 I 3 / 4) different classes of GTPases are needed.
The inheritance of yeast vacuoles requires (a recruitment of ribosomes to the limiting membrane /a fragmentation of the vacuole / a complete block of the metabolic activity of the vacuole).
The fusion of somatic mammalian cells (can be observed in vivo / requires SNARE homologs as fusogenes / requires mitofusin homologs as fusogenes).
Contact sites between endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria (are sites of lipid transport between ER and mitochondria / provide channels for the exchange of proteins between the ER lumen and the inter membrane space of mitochondria / define the sites of mitochondrial fission).

A
  1. 2
  2. a fragmentation of the vacuole
  3. can be observed in vivo
  4. define the sites of mitochondrial fission
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44
Q

The polyadenylation of a mRNA (is in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells always a stabilizing element / is in the nucleus in most cases a stabilising etement / is in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells a destabilizing element)
The identification of a so-called premature stop codon in mammalian cells (occurs in the nucleus / is only important for the cett in the case of selenium depletion / activates an mRNA-editing machinery to repair the defective codon).
Stress granules (are membranous organelles, which form in the cytoplasm / are sites for storage of ribosomes, mRNAs and preinitiation complexes / may exchange their materia! with so-called processing bodies).
The nascent chains of stalled ribosomes in cytoplasm yeast (are degraded via the proteasome / are covalently linked to the mRNA tagging the molecute for degradation / can be deposited in aggregates).

A
  1. is in the cytoplasm a prokaryotic cells a destabilizing element
  2. occurs in the nucleus? -> activates decay
  3. are sites for storage of ribosomes, mRNAs and preinitiation complexes
  4. are degraded via the proteasome
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45
Q

Link the statements (1 to 12) to the viruses (A and B) by writing the statement numbers behind the correct virus. Multiple links are possible (incorrect
answers cost points)
1. 2-,3- and S-fold symmetry
2. A hypodermic “nano”-syringe
3. Helicalsymmetry
4. 12 faces, each with a S-fold symmetry
5. 12 vertices, each with a S-fold symmetry 6. g8p major coat protein, 2700-3000 copies 7. =4
8. Amplitude and pitch
9. Jelly roll structures
10. P=µxp
1 1. Chymotrypsin-like fold 12. Canyon binder drugs
A. Phage M13: B. Picornaviruses:

A

PHAGE M13
- P = µ x p
- helical symmetry
- g8p major coat protein, 2700 - 3000 copies

PICORNAVIRUSES
- Jelly roll structures

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46
Q

a) The lnfluenza HA surface glycoprotein is a lectin.
b) HA auto-catalytically cleaves itself into two fragments, HAI and HA2.
c) The first 20 amino acids of the N-terminus of HA2 constitute the so-called fusoqenic peptide.
d) HA binds sialic acid residues of host-glycoproteins.
e) At high pH a substructure of HA rearranges into a 6-helix-bundle.
0 Fusion inhibitors affect HA 6-helix-bundle formation, which is mandatory for infectivity.

A

a) WRONG
b) WRONG
c) RIGHT
d) RIGHT
e) ?
f) RIGHT

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47
Q

Different statements regarding:
- Tat, transactivator of transcription
- lntegrase
- REV, regulator of expression of virion proteins
- Vif, viral infectivity factor
- Vpu, viral protein out Vpr, viral protein rapid
- Nef, non-evident function Proteinase
- Reverse transcriptase
- GP41
- GP1 20
- CA, capsid protein

A
  • Vif- viral infectivity factor: Hijacks the cellular Cullin5 E3 ubiquitin ligase to ubiquitinylate APOBEC3G
  • REV, regulator of expression of vision proteins: lnvolved in splicing and nuclear export of viralmRNA
  • RNA-RNA duplex dependent RNase activity
  • Tat, transactivator of transcription: Activates CDKg by binding to Cyclin T1 of elonqation factor P-TEFb
  • Vpu, viral protein out: lnduces ubiquitinylation and deqradation of CD4
  • CA, capsid protein: Penta- and hexamer tyPe Protomers
  • Vpr, viral protein rapid: G2 cell cycle arrest to endorse viral LTR activity
  • RNA-dependent RNA polymerase: Reverse transcriptase
  • Nef, non evident function: MHC-class-1 and -2 antiqen reduction
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47
Q

Different statements regarding:
- Tat, transactivator of transcription
- lntegrase
- REV, regulator of expression of virion proteins
- Vif, viral infectivity factor
- Vpu, viral protein out Vpr, viral protein rapid
- Nef, non-evident function Proteinase
- Reverse transcriptase
- GP41
- GP1 20
- CA, capsid protein

A
  • Vif- viral infectivity factor: Hijacks the cellular Cullin5 E3 ubiquitin ligase to ubiquitinylate APOBEC3G
  • REV, regulator of expression of vision proteins: lnvolved in splicing and nuclear export of viralmRNA
  • RNA-RNA duplex dependent RNase activity
  • Tat, transactivator of transcription: Activates CDKg by binding to Cyclin T1 of elonqation factor P-TEFb
  • Vpu, viral protein out: lnduces ubiquitinylation and deqradation of CD4
  • CA, capsid protein: Penta- and hexamer tyPe Protomers
  • Vpr, viral protein rapid: G2 cell cycle arrest to endorse viral LTR activity
  • RNA-dependent RNA polymerase: Reverse transcriptase
  • Nef, non evident function: MHC-class-1 and -2 antiqen reduction
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48
Q

Different statements regarding:
- Tat, transactivator of transcription
- lntegrase
- REV, regulator of expression of virion proteins
- Vif, viral infectivity factor
- Vpu, viral protein out Vpr, viral protein rapid
- Nef, non-evident function Proteinase
- Reverse transcriptase
- GP41
- GP1 20
- CA, capsid protein

A
  • Vif- viral infectivity factor: Hijacks the cellular Cullin5 E3 ubiquitin ligase to ubiquitinylate APOBEC3G
  • REV, regulator of expression of vision proteins: lnvolved in splicing and nuclear export of viralmRNA
  • RNA-RNA duplex dependent RNase activity
  • Tat, transactivator of transcription: Activates CDKg by binding to Cyclin T1 of elonqation factor P-TEFb
  • Vpu, viral protein out: lnduces ubiquitinylation and deqradation of CD4
  • CA, capsid protein: Penta- and hexamer tyPe Protomers
  • Vpr, viral protein rapid: G2 cell cycle arrest to endorse viral LTR activity
  • RNA-dependent RNA polymerase: Reverse transcriptase
  • Nef, non evident function: MHC-class-1 and -2 antiqen reduction
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49
Q

Describe the pathway used by SV40 to its site of genome replication

A
  1. Endocytosis into Calveolae
  2. Fusion with Caveosome, no pH shift
  3. Long transport in vesicles; actin, Rho-GTPase and microtubule-dependent into the ER
  4. Structural rearrangement of the capsid in the reducing milieu of the ER, mysristylated N-term of VP2 exposed
  5. Penetration into cytoplasm; ERAD pathway! (ER-associated protein degradation complex)
  6. Import into nucleus by NPC and NLS in VP2/3
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50
Q

At which intracellular membrane system does the RNA replication of the
following viruses occur?

A

SARS coronavirus: ER
Sindhis virus (Alphavirus): modified Endosomes and lysosomes
Flockhouse virus: Outer Mitochondrial Membrane
Poliovirus: membrane-coated vesicles

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51
Q

Describe the properties of RIG I

A

-C-terminal regulatory domain
- 5’ PPP RNA (also when ss)
- short blunt ds region (also without 5’ PPP) e.g. panhandle of ss (-) RNA virus
- poly Uridine stretches

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52
Q

At which step does Influenza virus interfere with the RIG I signaling pathway? Which viral protein is required for interference

A

Influenza A virus nonstructural protein 1 (NS1) specifically inhibits TRIM25-mediated RIG-I CARD ubiquitination, thereby suppressing RIG-I signal transduction.

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53
Q

Virus evolution. What is a “bottle neck” experiment? Explain briefly by describing an example

A
  • Selection: e.g. by neutralizing monoclonal antibodies or antivirals in cell culture supernatants
  • massive reduction of heterogeneity in population
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54
Q

The infection of members of the genus Flavivirus involves the process of membrane fusion. What is the role of prM during maturation of the visions of these viruses? Describe this process and the role of prM.

A

prM: protection form fusion during budding; Turin cleaves prM into pr and M (in TGN)

1) Co translational association with helper protein (e.g. prM in Flavi-, E2 for Alphaviruses)
2) Helper protein blocks fusion activity; protects virus from premature fusion
3) proteolytic cleavage of helper proteins is a requirement for fusion activity of the fusion protein
4) Due to a low pH in the secretory pathway, pr peptide remains bound to E even after proteolysis and still protects virus from premature fusion with the host cell membrane
5) After secretion into the extracellular milieu (neutral pH), pr peptide is released and the fusion loop in E (internal loop not terminal like class I fusion peptide) becomes fusion active
6) At neutral pH E is a dimer lying flat on the vision; at low pH in the end-some E is converted into a conformation protruding from the vision surface which allows insertion of the fusion loop onto the Endosomal membrane
7) this triggers trimerisation of E which triggers the conformational change leading to the approach of membranes and their fusion

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55
Q

How are retroviruses traveling directly from cell to cell? Describe briefly the mechanism and the functional role of the cell associated retroviral ENV protein in this process?

A

ENV: promotes export of mRNA out of the nucleus

spread cell-to-cell by induction of multimolecular complexes termed virological synapses that assemble at the interface between infected and receptor-expressing target cells.

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56
Q

Describe the domain structure of the protein “p” of Hepatitis B virus in a scheme.

A
  • inckudes motifs in Pol/RT and RH which are shared with retroviral RT
    Additional domain: TP (terminal protein)-domain without know homolog
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57
Q

Before “p” can start the cDNA synthesis on the viral RNA an activation step is required. Describe this activation step and explain the priming reaction in detail. Name the involved molecules and explain the individual steps with a scheme.

A

All DNA-polymerases need a “primer” (3’-OH end) for initiation of DNA synthesis
- 5’ base of (-)-DNA covalently bound to tyrosine in TP-domain of P > “protein priming”
- P protein accepts no other template RNA than pgRNA (<>cDNA synthesis!=
- 5’ end of (-)-DNA localizes in 3’ proximal DR1 (direct repeat 1)
- UUC sequence in DR1 exists also in the epsilon bulge region (sequence of duck HBV)
- Its complementary sequence AAG in the (-)-DNA represents a copy thereof
- epsilon contains origin of replication for (-) DNA
- (-) DNA Synthesis is discontinuous
-> Retroviruses are similar in their mechanisms

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58
Q

The cellular m:R-l22 is a critical host factor for the Hepatitis C Virus life <ycle. Which of the statements Goncerning the mechanisti< and/or functional features for miR-I22’s role in the HCV life cycle given below are correct?

A
  • miR-122 stimulates HCV RNA synthesis prior to promoting viral protein synthesis by displacing PCBP2 from the viral RNA genome via competition with PCBP2 for binding to the 5’ UTR. This mode of action promotes an open, noncircular genome conformation
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59
Q

Proteins using the GEP (general excretion pathway) may be translocated (while being synthesized (cotranslationally) / after termination of their synthesis / before termination of transcription of the corresponding gene).

A
  • while being synthesized (cotransaltionally)
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60
Q

The GEP is the only pathway that (transports soluble proteins into the periplasm / that integrates membrane proteins into the plasma membrane / that integrates porins into the plasma membrane).

A
  • that integrates membrane proteins into the plasma membrane
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61
Q

In some pathways, the GEP-dependent transport is regulated by (a GTPase / a system of two GTPases / is only regulates by ATPases).

A
  • is only regulated by ATPases
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62
Q

The GEP is usually able to transport (unfolded proteins / folded proteins / tRNAs).

A
  • folded proteins
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63
Q

The periplasmic space of E. coli (is reducing and thus allows the formation of disulfide bridges / is ATP-rich and thus allows the folding of proteins / is free of soluble proteases, therefore misfolded soluble proteins need to be reimported into the cytoplasm for degradation).

A
  • is free of soluble proteases, therefore misfiled soluble proteins need to be reimported into the cytoplasm for degradation
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64
Q

For the maintenance of the outer membrane of E. coli (proteins with ß-barrel folds must be integrated / lipopolysaccharides must be translocated to the outer leaflet / cholesterol is translocated across the periplasm).

A
  • lipopolysaccharides must be translocated to the outer leaflet
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65
Q

The translocation of nuclear-coded proteins into the matrix of mitochondria occurs with the direct involvement of (the TOM-complex / the TIM22-complex / mtHSP70).

A
  • the TOM-complex
  • the TIM22-complex
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66
Q

TIM 9/10 is a complex of the intermembrane space, which is essential for the (integration of carrier proteins into the inner membrane / the translocation of proteins into the matrix / the biogenesis of ß-barrel proteins of the outer membrane) whos activity depends on the presence of (ATP / GTP / CTP).

A
  • Integration of carrier proteins into the inner membrane?
  • ATP
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67
Q

Proteins of the matrix that do not fold properly are usually degraded (in the matrix / in the intermembrane space / in the cytoplasm).

A
  • in the cytoplasm
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68
Q

Name the two ways discussed for the formation of Secretory granules (dense core vesicles).

A
  • Condensing vacuole model
  • homotypic fusion model
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69
Q

Describe the major differences between „fluid-phase endocytosis“ and “receptor-mediated endocytosis“. Would the term „Pinocytosis“ match to any of these processes, and if so, why?

A
  • low efficiency, non specific
  • nonspecific mammalian cells drink about one volume per day
  • nutrients may be concentrated in lysosomes by uncharacterized mechanisms
    -> can be summarized as Pinocytosis “senso stricto”
    Receptor mediated endocytosis: uptake of up to 30 % of bound ligands per minute
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70
Q

„Multivesicular bodies“ (MVB) can be part (of a degradation pathway / of a secretion pathway). They contain internal vesicles, into which (membrane proteins / soluble proteins) are sorted, which usually have been tagged before by a
(monoubiquitination / sumoylation / polyubiquitination).

A
  • of a secretion pathway
  • membrane proteins
  • ?
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71
Q

The following parts of a cell can be selectively targeted by autophagy (peroxisomes / mitochondrial ribosomes / midbodies). During formation of the autophagosome in macroautophagy lipids in the phagophore are (modified via O-glycosylation / modified via ubiquitination / enriched in sphingomyelin). In chaperone-mediated autophagy (only small organelles are digested / chaperones located in the lysosomal lumen are involved / cytoplasmic ATPases are involved).

A
  • peroxisomes, ribosomes,
  • modified via ubiquitination
  • chaperones located in the lysosomal lumen are involved
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72
Q

Name three fundamental mechanisms that are responsible for the asymmetric distribution of lipids between the leaflets of the plasma membrane

A

Most of the Phosphatidylserine (PS) is located on the cytosolic site of the plasma membrane
- Generation and maintenance of PS asymmetry by an energy-dependent flip-awe (ATP hydrolysis)

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73
Q

Which are the two main pathways for delivery of lipids from the ER to the TGN?

A

early targeting at Lipid droplet formation sites during formation, and late targeting to mature lipid droplets after their formation

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74
Q

During cytokinesis the new plasmamembanes are formed (before disassembling of the actin ring / under involvement of ESCRT-proteins / after division of the midbody into two equal pieces) The source of the additional membrane needed is mainly from (the outer mitochondria membrane | the peroxisome | the outer shell of lipid droplets). During open mitosis, the disassembling of the nuclear membrane requires (the phosphorylation of proteins of the nuclear lamina / the proteolysis of the nuclear pore / the transformation of sheet-like ER into tubular ER). ER-stacks in professional secretory cells like B-cells are only stable in the presence of (tight junctions / neurofilaments / ER-cisGolgi contact sites).

A
  • after division of the middy into two equal pieces
  • by fusion of vesicles
  • the transformation of sheet-like ER into tubular ER
  • ER-cis Golgi contact sites
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75
Q

Which function have sno / scaRNA during ribosome biogenesis? Where in the cell do they perform this function precisely? Are members of these RNAs also involved in the biogenesis of other RNPs and if so of which ones?

A
  • guide modification in the nucleoli
    -> Box C/D snoRNAs guide 2’O methylation
    -> Box H/ACA snoRNAs guide pseudouridylation
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76
Q

Capsid of human rhino virus

A
  • Canyon-binder drugs target VP1 and prevent uncoating of the viral capsid.
  • 5 copies of VP1 form the so-called “molecular mountains”.
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77
Q

Bacteriophage MS2

A
  • The capsid triangulation number T equals 3 (T=3).
  • The icosahedron shell is made up of a single type of coat protomer.
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78
Q

Influenza virus Neuranimidase (NA)

A
  • HA is cleaved by the host cell tryptase Clara into two fragments, HA1 and HA2
  • ## The so-called fusogenic peptide, exposed at low/acidic pH, is part of the HA2 fragment.
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79
Q

Link the statements (1 to 12) to the proteins (A to D) by writing the statement numbers behind the proteins/colons. Multiple links are possible.
(incorrect links lead to the deduction of points)
1. CCR5
2. RNA polymerase II
3. Proofreading
4. Ubiquitin ligase recruitment to degrade cellular cytidine deaminase
5. Crm1 - Ran.GTP - eIF-5A export pathway
6. Arrest of proliferating cells at G2/M phase
7. CD4 receptor binding to evoke receptor ubiquitination and degradation
8. 6-Helix-bundle formation
9. tRNA(Lys3)
10. Regulator of viral RNA splicing
11. RNAseH Domain
12. Affects the innate defense factor APOBEC3G

A GP120
B Reverse Transcriptase
C Vif protein
D Rev protein

A
  • Vif protein: ubiquitin ligase recruitment to degrade cellular cytidine deaminase
  • Reverse Transcriptase: tRNA (Lys3), RNAseH Domain
  • Vif protein: Affects the innate defense factor APOBEC3G
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80
Q

At which membrane does the budding of retroviruses occur?
- ER membrane
- intermediate compartment
- Golgi membrane
- plasma membrane

A
  • plasma membrane
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81
Q

Which cellular pathway and protein complexes are involved in retroviral budding? State the names of the pathway and protein complexes.

A

D type retrovirus preassembled “Gag” particles

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82
Q

Which signals in the viral proteins are recognized by the cellular proteins in this pathway?
State the name of the signal and describe it in detail for one viral protein and name for this viral protein its cellular interaction partner.

A

HA and M2 are required for budding and release
- amphipathic helix of M” is sufficient to induce vesicle budding and release
- localizes to the point of membrane scission (neck) (immmuno-gold labeling)
- virus mutant in M2 helix is impaired in membrane scission
-> virus arrays: like beads on a string
- M2 is essential for pinch off

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83
Q

(+)-strand RNA viruses restructure the intracellular membrane systems of the host cell for their genome replication.
Name for each of the compartments listed below one virus which makes use of these membranes for genome replication:
- ER
- Golgi
- Lysosomen
- Mitochondrien

A

ER: Kunjin virus (Flavivirus)
Golgi: Kunjin virus (Flavivirus)
Lysosomen: Rubella virus
Mitochondrien: Flock house virus

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84
Q

For viruses restructuring the ER two basic models/mechanisms how the membrane spherules are generated were postulated based on these analyses. Name the two models/mechanisms and give for each one a viral example.

A
  • Virus induced membrane vesicle
  • replicating RNA reistant to RNAses
  • NTPs etc must have access
  • shielding from immune system? (“innate immunity”; interferon)
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85
Q

Describe a technical device (apparatus) which allows to study the polarity of virus release from infected cells? Use a scheme.

Explain why a certain cell type is required for such a study. Name cell type and its specific features.

State one viral example (virus and family) for each of the possible polarities.

A

Cell culture in a membrane coated chamber; selective release of viruses into the media above or under the cells?

Epithelial cells which can be divided into apical (towards the environment) and basolateral (towards the inside of the body)

Apical: Paramyxoviridae -> SARS coronavirus
Basolateral: Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus

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86
Q

Explain the generation, the function/mode of action of the pr peptide during virion morphogenesis for members of the genus Flavivirus.

A
  • Due to a low pH in the secretory pathway, pr peptide remains bound to E even after proteolysis and still protects virus from premature fusion with the host cell membrane
  • after secretion into the extracellular milieu (neutral pH), pr peptide is released and the fusion loop in E (internal loop not terminal like class I fusion peptide) becomes fusion active
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87
Q

A minority of viruses utilize non-canonical mechanisms in the biogenesis of miRNA molecules. Which of the following answers is/are correct/wrong?

A
  • some viral pre-miRNAs are transcribed by RNA polymerase III
  • all viral pre-miRNAs are exported into the cytoplasm by exportin-5
  • all viral pre-miRNAs are processed by dicer
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88
Q

Der SecY-abhängige post-translationale Transport von Proteinen über den General Excretion Pathway (GEP) verwendet als Energiequelle [ ATP | die PMF | GTP ].

A
  • ATP
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89
Q

Der GEP ist beteiligt an der [ Sekretion von Proteinen mittels Autotransportern | beim TAT-Transportweg | bei der Biogenese von Typ I Pili ].

A
  • beim Tat-Transportweg
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90
Q

Typ III Sekretion benutzt einen makromolekularen Komplex [ der drei Membranen durchqueren kann | der homolog zu Teilen bakterieller Flagellen ist | der ausschließlich co-translational funktioniert ] .

A
  • der drei Membranen durchqueren kann
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91
Q

Die Typ I Sekretion verwendet als ATPasen Vertreter der [ ABC-Transporter | der AAA-ATPasen | der F0/F1-ATPasen ] .

A
  • ABC Transporter
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92
Q

Der Import von Proteinen in die Matrix der Mitochondrien verwendet eine [ saure | amphipathische | hydrophobe ] Signalstruktur, die in Gegenwart ihres Rezeptors
[ eine Helix | eine ß-Faltblattstruktur | ein sogenanntes ß-barrel ] bildet.

A
  • ## hydrophob
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93
Q

Das Mitochondriengenom der Säuger codiert für [ Proteine der äußeren Mitochondrienmembran | Proteine der inneren Mitochondrienmembran | tRNAs der Matrix ] .

A
  • tRNAs der Matrix
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94
Q

Im Zellkern codierte Säugerproteine der inneren Membran, die ein internes Targetingsignal besitzen, nutzen zur Insertion [ den TOM complex | den TIM 22 complex | das mtSecY ] .

A
  • den TIM22 complex
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95
Q

Ordnen Sie die nachfolgend genannten Komponenten des Proteintransportes in die Chloroplasten dem Kompartiment zu, in dem sie vorkommen. Geben Sie auch an, in welchem Kompartiment die Abspaltung des Transitpeptides erfolgt.
Komponenten: TOC, TIC, cpSecY, cpTAT
Äußere Membran
Intermembranraum
Innere Membran
Stroma
Thylakoidmembran
Das Transitpeptid wird im …………………… abgespalten.

A

Äußere Membran: TOC
Innere Membran: TIC
Thylakoidmembran; cpSecY
Stroma: cpTAT

Das Transitpeptid wird im Strom gespalten.

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96
Q

Welche(r) der genannten Mechanismen kommt beim „dual targeting“ tatsächlich vor?
[ Ein Molekül einer Population gelangt zu einem Zeitpunkt X entweder in ein Kompartiment A oder in ein Kompartiment B. | Jedes Molekül der Population kommt zumindest teilweise in Kontakt zu Kompartiment A, bevor es entweder in A verbleibt oder nach B umdirigiert wird. | Moleküle gelangen in Abhängigkeit von zellphysiologischen Zuständen eher nach A oder eher nach B ].

A

Moleküle gelangen in Abhängigkeit von zellphysiologischen Zuständen eher nach A oder eher nach B ].

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97
Q

Der COPII-coat ist am Transport vom ………….. zum ……………. beteiligt.
Der KDEL-Rezeptor dient der Rückführung von Proteinen aus dem ……………………… zum ……………. .
Der Import von Zuckern in den Golgi erfolgt mittels [ Isoprenen über Flippasen | Antiportern | Hexose resp. Pentose-Phosphaten als Transportform ].
In Säugerzellen befinden sich die ER-exit sites [ i.d.R. in der Nähe des Golgi- Apparates | über das ER-Netzwerk verteilt | auch an der inneren Kernmembran].
Ein entscheidender Auslöser für die Aktivierung von Preproteinkonvertasen
ist der im Verlauf des sekretorischen Weges …………………… pH-Wert im Lumen.

A

Der COPII coat ist am Transport vom ER zum ERGIC/cis-Golgi beteiligt.

Der KDEL-Rezeptor dient der Rückführung von Proteinen aus dem Cis-Golgi zum ER.

  • antiportern
  • i.d.R. in der Nähe des Golgi-Apparates

Ein entscheidender Auslöser für die Aktivierung von Preproteinkonvertasen ist der im Verlauf des sekretorischen Weges SAURE pH-Wert im Lumen.

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98
Q

Synaptische Vesikel der Säuger haben normalerweise einen Durchmesser von [ 2nm | 2 μm | 2mm ] .
Die Fusion der Vesikel wird durch den Einstrom von ……………-Ionen getriggert.
Tetanusneurotoxin hemmt die Fusion synaptischer Vesikel ……………………………………….. eines SNARE –Proteins.
Die Endocytose von Rezeptoren kann [ mittels Clathrine-coats | mittels Caveoline| mittelsCoatamer]erfolgen.

A
  • 2 nm
  • Calcium-Ionen
  • SPALTUNG eines SNARE-Proteins
  • mittels Clathrine-coats
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99
Q

Der spezifische Abbau von Lipidvesikeln in Lysosomen wird ermöglicht durch die schützende Wirkung der ……………………………….. auf die Grenzmembran der Lysosomen und die destabilisierende Wirkung von …………………………………………… auf die internalisierten Membranvesikel.

A
  • Aktivatoren
  • Special lipid composition and a low lateral pressure
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100
Q

Beschreiben Sie in drei Hauptphasen der Zytokinese bei Säugerzellen

A
  1. Anaphase - Telophase
    - begin go the assembling of the constriction ring at the PM in the midplane of the cell
    - ingression of the furrow by the actin-myosin ring till the spindle in the midplane is compressed -> formation of midbody
  2. Abscission
    - disassembling of the contractile ring and the spindle in parallel to the sealing of the PM
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101
Q

Kreuzen Sie die richtigen Aussagen an.
Im Rahmen der „organellar inheritance“ während der Mitose fusionieren große Teile des Golgi-Apparates mit dem endosomal/lysosomalen Kompartiment.

Bei der Teilung der Chloroplasten wird zuerst das Membransystem der Thylakoide, dann die innere Membran und zum Schluss die äußere Membran geteilt.

Die homotypische Fusion von Mitochondrien der Säugerzellen erfolgt mittels SNARE-Proteinen.

A
  • Im Rahmen der „organellar inheritance“ während der Mitose fusionieren große Teile des Golgi-Apparates mit dem endosomal/lysosomalen Kompartiment.
  • Bei der Teilung der Chloroplasten wird zuerst das Membransystem der Thylakoide, dann die innere Membran und zum Schluss die äußere Membran geteilt.
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102
Q

Neben rRNA, tRNA und mRNA haben eukaryontische Zellen verschiedene evolutionär konservierte sogenannte „kleine RNAs“.
Nennen Sie drei Beispiele hochkonservierter Arten und ihre Funktion in der Zelle

A

-> miRNA: may regulate the function and stability of target mRNAs by different mechanisms
-> piRNA: down regulation of transcripts form transposons thus controlling their spreading in the genome
-> endogenous siRNA: can repress gene expression post transcriptionally but have also been shown to affect transcription of specific loci and chromosome structure

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103
Q

Die Insertion von Proteinen in die innere Membran von E. coli erfolgt
(immer / in der Regel / selten) post translational. Als wichtige Membranproteine
können daran (SecYEG / YidC / TRAP) beteiligt sein.

A
  • immer
  • SecYEG / YidC
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104
Q

Der TAT-pathway (kann mit Cofaktoren beladene, gefaltete Enzyme über die innere Membran transportieren / verwendet oft lepB zur Abspaltung des Targetingsignales / wird durch Argenine im N-terminalen Bereich des Targetingsignales blockiert).

A
  • kann mit Cofaktoren beladene, gefaltete Enzyme über die innere Membran transportieren / verwendet oft lepB zur Abspaltung des Targetigsignales
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105
Q

Proteine der äußeren Membran von Proteobakterien (sind in der Regel mittels alphahelikalen hydrophoben Abschnitten in der Membran integriert / werden oft vermittels des SecYEG-Komplexes über die innere Membran transportiert / sind – genauso wie die LPS-Moleküle der Membran – immer stark glycosyliert).

A
  • werden oft vermittels des SecYEG-Komplexes über die innere Membran transportiert
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106
Q

Proteine der äußeren Membran von Proteobakterien (sind in der Regel mittels alphahelikalen hydrophoben Abschnitten in der Membran integriert / werden oft vermittels des SecYEG-Komplexes über die innere Membran transportiert / sind – genauso wie die LPS-Moleküle der Membran – immer stark glycosyliert).

A
  • werden oft vermittels des SecYEG-Komplexes über die innere Membran transportiert
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107
Q

Describe the properties of RIG I

A
  • retinoid acid inducible gene I
  • Helikase -> intracellular receptor
  • restriction factor
  • recognizes RNA viruses like Hepatitis C, Influenza
  • pattern recognition receptor
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108
Q

Which of the following statements about the capsid of tomato bushy stunt virus is/are wrong? Multiple answers are possible.
(incorrect answers lead to the deduction of points) (2.5 P)
a) The capsid protein has 3 domains (R, S and P) and can adapt to 3 different environments.
b) The capsid triangulation number T equals 3 (T=3).
c) The P-domains form in total 60 protrusions on the outer surface of the capsid.
d) The icosahedron shell displays 12 x 5-fold, 20 x 3-fold and 30 x 2-fold rotation axis.
e) The small S domains cover the outside of the capsid and form an external framework.
Wrong answers are:

A

c) The P-domains Form in total 60 protrusions on the outer surface of the capsid.
d) The icosahedron shell displays 12 x 5-fold, 20 x 3-fold and 30x2-fold rotation
e) The small S domains cover the outside of the capsid and form an external framework.

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109
Q

Which of the following statements about the capsid of picornaviruses is/are wrong? Multiple answers are possible.
(incorrect answers lead to the deduction of points)
a) The capsid contains 60 copies each of proteins VP1 to VP4.
b) VP2 and VP3 are located at the top of the so-called molecular mountains. c) VP1 to VP3 form jelly-roll-barrel structures.
d) The capsid triangulation number T of picornaviruses equals 4 (T=4).
e) Canyon-binder drugs target VP1 and prevent uncoating of the viral capsid. Wrong answers are:

A

b) VP2 and VP3 are located at the top of the so-called molecular mountains.
d) The capsid triangulation number T of picornaviruses equals 4 (T=4).

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110
Q

Which statements concerning potential modes of action of viral miRNAs are correct?
(cross correct answers; wrong answers will lead to the deduction of points)
(2.5 P)
 Viral miRNAs can regulate the translation of viral transcripts if the miRNAs are not 100 percent complementary to the viral target mRNAs.
 miRNAs of DNA viruses can stimulate the RISC-mediated destruction of viral transcripts if the miRNAs have been transcribed in „antisense“ orientation to the corresponding viral transcript.
 miRNAs of DNA viruses can stimulate the RISC-mediated destruction of viral transcripts if the miRNAs have been transcribed in „sense“ orientation to the corresponding viral transcript.
 Viral miRNAs can function as orthologs of cellular miRNAs if they share with these cellular miRNAs an identical 6 nucleotides long sequence at the 5‘-end of the miRNA.
 Viral miRNAs can function as orthologs of cellular miRNAs if they share with these cellular miRNAs an identical 6 nucleotides long sequence at the 3‘-end of the miRNA.

A
  • Viral mRNAs can regulate the translation of viral transcripts if the miRNAs are not 100 percent complementary to the viral target mRNAs
  • miRNAs of DNA viruses can stimulate the RISC-mdeiated destruction of viral transcripts if the miRNAs have been transcribed in “antisense” orientation to the corresponding viral transcript.
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111
Q

Viruses use different routes for infection. Name for each route one viral example and state whether the virus replicates there or spreads systemically:
(wrong answers will lead to the deduction of points)
Digestive tract:
Eye:
Urogential system:

A

Digestive tract:
Local replication -> Corona

Eye:
Local replication: Adenovirus

Urogenital system:
Local replication: HPV

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112
Q

Viruses have different tissue tropisms. Name one example for each of the following tropisms.
(wrong answers will lead to the deduction of points)
Epithelotropic:
Lymphotropic:
Neurotropic:
Hepatotropic:

A

Epithelotropic: Papilloma Virus

Lymphotropic: Eppstein Barr Virus

Neurotropic: Herpes virus

Hepatotropic: Hepatitis Pathogenese HAV, HBV, HCV

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113
Q

Name four mechanisms how to bend a membrane

A

CLUSTERING
Transmmebrane proteins with inherent curvature inducing curvature in a membrane

MOTIF INSERTION
Insertion of a piece of a protein into one leaflet of the membrane induces curvature

BAR DOMAINS
A BAR domain of a protein inducing and stabilizing the curvature of a membrane

SCAFFOLDING
- cage like structure of Cathrin
- when this structure forms around a membrane, it pulls the membrane into a tight curvature until eventual vesicle budding

CYTOSKELETON
The inherent shape of a cell as controlled by its cytoskeleton requires that the bilayer membrane curves around it

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114
Q

Name four viruses from different families (name virus and family) which can cause hemorrhagic fever

A
  • Flavivirus: Dengue, Yellow Fever
  • Bunyaviruses: Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus (CCHFV)
  • Hantavirus
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115
Q

Which ARBO virus was recently introduced into the Americas and is suspected to cause severe brain damage in human fetuses? Name virus, family, genus and
vector.

A

Zika Virus
Familie: Flaviviridae
Genus: Flavivirus

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116
Q

List three cellular sensors of double stranded RNA

A
  • RIG I like receptors
  • protein kinase R
  • oligoadenylate synthases
  • adenosine deaminase
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117
Q

What other features of an RNA can be recognized by the innate immune system? Name the features and the relevant sensors for the innate response.

A

PPPRs = pattern recognition receptors
PAMP = pathogen associated molecular pattern

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118
Q

How does Influenza virus interfere with signal transduction upstream of IPS1 (=MAVS, CARDIF, VISA)?

A

Influenza A virus nonstructural protein 1 (NS1) specifically inhibits TRIM25-mediated RIG-I CARD ubiquitinazion, thereby suppressing RIG-I signal transduction.

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119
Q

What was the so called “Rabbitpox-Experiment”? What was the outcome and what could be learned?

A

Release of Myxomatosis-virus to control population of European rabbit introduced by immigrants
-> Spread by fleas and mosquitos (passive, no replication in Athropodes)
-> 90 - 99 % lethal for European rabbits

  1. year: Mortality rate 99,8 %
    -> Effizienz killing of rabbits
  2. year: Mortality rate only 25 %
    -> Rapid selection of adaptive mutations in the virus (and the host)
    -> Attenuated virus variants / host population in between only a few years

Later years
-> Mortality lower than birth rate of rabbits

ADAPTION BETWEEN HOST AND VIRUS!

(kind of “bottle neck experiment” -> the ones that couldn’t cope died)

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120
Q

Which of the following statements about the Influenza virus Neuranimidase (NA) and Hemagglutinin (HA) is/are wrong? Multiple answers are possible.
(incorrect answers lead to the deduction of points)
HA is cleaved by a host cell tryptase (Clara) into two fragments, HA1 and HA2.
The so-called fusogenic peptide, exposed at high pH, is part of the HA1 fragment.
NA is a muraminidase that can be inhibited by Penicillin.
4 NA molecules, each displaying a 4-bladed propeller, form the functional biological unit.
Fusion Inhibitors affect HA 6-helix-bundle formation required for infectivity

A
  • HA is cleaved by a host cell try-taste (Clara) into two fragments, HA1 and HA2.
  • The so-called fusogenic peptide, exposed at high pH, is part of the HA1 fragment.
  • NA is a muraminidase that can be inhibited by Penicillin.
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121
Q

Link the items (1 to 10) to the viruses (a to c) by writing the item numbers behind the viruses (behind the colons). Multiple links are possible.
(incorrect links lead to the deduction of points)
1. Triangulation number T = 3
2. ±16 (16.3) coat proteins per helical turn
3. Jelly roll of 8 ß-strands and a Greek key motif
4. Non-enveloped DNA virus
5. Viral lysozyme required to enter the host cell
6. 3 copies each of VP1 and VP4 arrange around pseudo 6-fold rotation axes
7. 60 copies of VP1 to VP4
8. Total of 12 x 5-fold, 20 x 3-fold and 30 x 2-fold axes
9. Canyon binder drugs
10. A few thousand coat protein copies make up the capsid

a) Tobacco mosaic virus:
b) Picornavirus:
c) Bacteriophage T4:

A

a) Tobacco mosaic virus:
- 16.3 coat proteins per helical turn

b) Picornavirus:
- 60 copies of VP1 to VP4
- Triangulation number T = 3
- Canyon binder drugs

c) Bacteriophage T4:
- Triangulation number T = 3

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122
Q

Name three viruses with high tissue specificity and three with low tissue specificity:
(wrong answers will lead to the deduction of points)
High tissue specificity:
Low tissue specificity:

A

High tissue specificity:
- Herpesviruses
- Papillomaviruses
- Retroviruses
- Hepatitis Viruses

Low tissue specificity:
- Alphaviruses
- Genus Flavivirus
- Rabies virus

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123
Q

Some humans have a genotype which protects them against infection by certain viruses. Name two human gene variations and the viruses against which they are protective as well as the putative underlying mechanisms.

A

HCV
- Genetic variation in IL28B
-> upstream region of IL28B gene = IFN gamma 3 = IFN class 3 molecule

SARS-CoV
- Trim 55

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124
Q

What does the term “trans-infection” describe and in which virus system it was discovered?

A

A cell “holds” a pathogen without getting infected (the pathogen does not enter the cell), only to pass it to another cell to infect it

-> HIV-1?

125
Q

Which alphavirus led to massive outbreaks in the human population since 2013? Name virus, main symptoms and route of transmission.

A

Chikungunya Virus -> ss (+) RNA
- gehört zur Gruppe der Arboviren -> transmitted via Arthropodes
- causes Chikungunya fever

126
Q

For which viruses RNA recombination events are part of their regular life cycle? List two viruses and briefly explain the individual role of the recombination event in the replication cycle.

A

FELINE CORONAVIRUS (FCoV)
FeCoV -> RNA recombination, (non homologous) deletions -> FIP virus (Feline infectious peritonitis)
- recombination leads to lethality of the disease -> before its an infection without massive symptoms

ALPHAVIRUSES
Eastern equine encephalitis virus (EEV) + Sindhis virus -> Western equine encephalitis virus (WEEV)
-> leads to formation of a novel virus

127
Q

Explain the generation, the function/mode of action of the pr peptide during vision morphogenesis for members of the genus Flavivirus

A

pr = proteolytic product
-> In the mature, infectious vision, the pr peptide is absent, and the virus undergoes membrane fusion in the end-some at low pH

128
Q

What is the FIP virus? Which disease is associated with this virus? What is unusual about this disease/pathogen?

A

= Feline Infektiöse Peritonitis
- lethal disease
- peritonitis and/or pleuritis
- or granulomatosis in multiple organs

Genomic sequence very similar to the Feline Panleucopenia which leads heart muscle degeneration

129
Q

What is the difference pathogenicity and virulence of a germ?

A

PATHOGENICITY
- quality or state of being pathogenic
-> the potential ability to produce disease
-> qualitative term -> “ALL OR NONE” principle

VIRULENCE
- disease producing power of an organism
- degree of pathogenicity within a group or species
- term that “quantifies pathogenicity”

130
Q

The following statements about the capsid of picornaviruses are: Statement
The capsid contains 60 copies each of proteins VP1 to VP4.
VP2 and VP3 are located at the top of the 20 octamers (called molecular mountains).
VP1 to VP3 are jelly roll barrel structures.
VP4 is buried inside the capsid.
Canyon binder drugs target VP1 and prevent uncoating of the viral capsid.

A
  • The capsid contains 60 copies each of proteins VP1 to VP4.
  • VP4 is buried inside the capsid
  • Canyon binder drugs target VP1 and prevent uncaring of the viral capsid
131
Q

The capsid of tomato bushy stunt virus, with triangulation number T=3, is built up
from 180 identical protein chains. The following statements are: Statement
The capsid protein can be divided into 3 domains, called R, S and P.
180 P-domains make up 90 protrusions on the outer surface of the icosahedron.
Capsid proteins adopt one out of three possible conformations.
The P-domains arrange to generate 45 x 2-fold and 45 x pseudo-2- fold rotation axis.
An icosahedron displays 12 x 5-fold, 20 x 3-fold and 30 x 2-fold rotation axis.

A
  • The capsid protein can be divided into 3 domains, called R, S and P.
  • 180 P-domains make up 90 protrusions on the outer surface of the icosahedron.
  • Capsid proteins adopt one out of three possible conformations.
132
Q

The following statements about influenza virus neuraminidase (NA) are:
Statement
NA is cleaved by the tryptase Clara into two fragments, NA1 and NA2.
The so-called fusogenic peptide is part of the NA1 fragment.
NA is a sialidase (cleaves off sialic acid from glycoproteins) that can be inhibited by Oseltamivir (Tamiflu®).
The receptor binding domain of NA2 displays a jelly roll barrel architecture.
3 NA molecules (4-bladed propellor each) form the functional biological unit, a e) homotrimeric enzyme.

A
  • NA is a sialidase (cleaves off silica acid from a glycoproteins) that can be inhibited by Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
133
Q

Link the statements on the left side with the proteins (by putting a cross in the columns). Multiple links are possible.
Statement
1. Nuclear export of viral RNA
2. RNA/DNA-dependent DNA Polymerase
3. CD4 receptor binding to evoke receptor ubiquitination and degradation
4. Apobec3G
5. Azidothymidine(AZT)
6. RNAseH Domain
7. Proofreading
8. Ubiquitin ligase recruitment to degrade cellular cytidine deaminase
9. Crm1-Ran.GTP pathway
10. Regulator of viral RNA splicing
11. Gly-tRNAGly1

A Reverse Transcriptase
B Rev protein
C Vif protein

A

Reverse Transcriptase: RNase H domain

Rev protein: Nuclear export of viral RNA

Vif protein: APOBEC3G, Ubiquitin ligase recruitment to degrade cellular cytidine deaminase

134
Q

Name three viruses from the genus Flavivirus

A
  • Yellow fever virus
  • Dengue virus
  • Tick borne disease
135
Q

What is the role of prM during maturation of the virions of these viruses? Describe this process and the role of prM.

A
  • protection from fusion during budding; Turin cleaves prM into pr and M (in TGN)
136
Q

Which functions has the glycoprotein of the Vesicular Stomatitis Virus during the infection process?

A

Glycoprotein G is involved in receptor recognition at the host cell surface and then, after endocytosis of the vision, triggers membrane fusion via a low pH-induced structural rearrangement.

137
Q

For what purpose is VSV G therefore often used?

A
  • maybe Immunogenicity Design for Next-Generation Vaccines
138
Q

Which of the hepatitis viruses frequently induce persistent infections?

A
  • HBV
  • HCV
139
Q

Name for each tropism one viral example: (wrong answers will lead to the deduction of points)
Neurotropic
Pneumotropic
Lymphotropic

A

Neurotropic Herpes viruses

Pneumotropic Influenza virus

Lymphotropic Eppstein Barr Virus

140
Q

What changes in the envelope proteins of Influenza A virus are know which lead to a change of the viral tissue tropism? Explain the observed mutations and their effect on the spread of the virus mutants in the host and compare it to the
wild type virus.

A

Influenza virus contains an envelope protein, hemagglutinin (HA), which mediates binding and fusion. HA consists of two subunits, HA1 and HA2. HA1 misdates virus binding and HA2 mediates fusion. The receptor for HA1 is terminal silica acid of N- and O-linked glycans. Influenza virus binds to cells via an interaction between HA1 and silica acid. The virus is subsequently endocytosed, and the low pH of the endosome elicits fusion activity of HA2.

141
Q

State one viral example (virus and family) for each of the possible polarities.

A

APICALWest Nil Virus
BASOLATERAL: Vesicular Stomatitis Virus, Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus

142
Q

Proteins using the GEP (general excretion pathway) may be translocated
- while being synthesized (cotranslationally)
- after termination of their synthesis
- before termination of transcription of the corresponding gene

A
  • while being synthesized (cotranslationally)
  • after termination of their synthesis
143
Q

The GEP os the only pathway that
- transports soluble proteins into the periplasm
- that integrates membrane proteins into the plasma Membrane
- that integrates porins into the plasma membrane

A

NONE

144
Q

In some pathways, the GEP-dependent transport is regulated by
- a GTPase
- a system of two GTPases
- is only regulated by ATPases

A
  • a GTPase (FtsY)
145
Q

The GEP is usually able to transport
- unfolded proteins
- folded proteins
- tRNAs

A
  • unfolded proteins
146
Q

The periplasmic space of E.coli
- is reducing and thus allows the formation of disulfide bridges
- is ATP-rich and thus allows the folding of proteins
- is free of soluble proteases, therefore misfiled soluble proteins need to be reimported into the cytoplasm for degradation

A

NONE

147
Q

For the maintenance of the outer membrane of E.coli
- proteins with beta-barrel folds must be integrated
- lipopolysaccharides must be translocated to the outer leaflet
- cholesterol is translocated across the periplasm

A
  • proteins with beta-barrel folds must be integrated
  • lipopolysaccharides must be translocated to the outer leaflet
148
Q

The translocation of nuclear-coded proteins into the matrix of mitochondria occurs with the direct involvement of
- the TOM-complex
- the TIM22-complex
- mtHSP70

A
  • the TOM-complex
  • the TIM22-complex
  • mtHSP70
149
Q

TIM 9/10 is a complex of the inter membrane space, which is essential for the
- integration of carrier proteins into the inner membrane
- the translocation of proteins into the matrix
- the biogenesis of beta-barrel proteins of the outer membrane
whos activity depends on the presence of
- ATP
- GTP
- CTP

A
  • integration of carrier proteins into the inner membrane
  • the biogenesis of beta-barrel proteins of the outer membrane
  • NONE
150
Q

Proteins of the matrix that do not fold properly are usually degraded
- in the matrix
- in the intermemrane space
- in the cytoplasm

A
  • in the matrix
151
Q

Describe briefly, step by step how proteins are retrieved by means of the KDEL receptor by concentrating on following points: Which conditions lead to the binding and which to the release of its ligand, which vesicle coats interact with the receptor through which compartments the receptor cycles. Start with the unloaded receptor.

A
  1. unloaded KDEL in ER due to pH 7,2 - 7,4
  2. KDEL packed into COP II vesicle for transport to cis-Golgi
  3. cis-Golgi: binding of ligand to KDEL due to low pH (pH 6,5 - 6,8)
  4. packing into COPI for transport to ER
  5. release of ligand in ER (pH 7,2 - 7,4)
152
Q

Name the two ways discussed for the formation of secretory granules (dense core vesicles)

A
  1. condensing vacuole
  2. homotypic fusion
153
Q

For the fusion of a subgroup of synaptic vesicles with the plasma membrane a so-called “kiss-and-run” hypothesis has been formulated. What is the rational basis for the hypothesis and what is the principal difference of the “kiss-and-run” mode from a normal endocytosis - exocytosis cycle?

A

“kiss and run”: the vesicle and the PM do not fuse but some small “pore” is opened to mix the both lumina, the vesicle is reusable

“Normally” the vesicle and membrane are fused together completely.

154
Q

Describe the major differences between “fluid phase endocytosis” and “receptor-mediated endocytosis”. Would the term “Pinocytosis” match to any of these processes, and if so, why?

A
  1. fluid phase endocytosis: slow unspecific uptake of nutrients
  2. receptor-mediated endocytosis: binding of specific ligand to receptor for uptake, fast (30 % per minute)
  3. fluid-phase = Pinocytosis
155
Q

„Multivesicular bodies“ (MVB) can be part (of a degradation pathway / of a secretion pathway). They contain internal vesicles, into which (membrane proteins / soluble proteins) are sorted, which usually have been tagged before by a
(monoubiquitination / sumoylation / polyubiquitination).

A
  • of a degradation pathway
  • of a secretion pathway
  • membrane proteins
  • monoubiquitination
  • polyubiquitination
156
Q

The following parts of a cell can be selectively targeted by autophagy (peroxisomes / mitochondrial ribosomes / midbodies). During formation of the autophagosome in macroautophagy lipids in the phagophore are (modified via O-glycosylation / modified via ubiquitination / enriched in sphingomyelin). In chaperone-mediated autophagy (only small organelles are digested / chaperones located in the lysosomal lumen are involved / cytoplasmic ATPases are involved).

A
  • peroxisomes
  • midbodies
  • NONE
  • chaperones located in the lysosomal lumen are involved
157
Q

Name three fundamental mechanisms that are responsible for the asymmetric distribution of lipids between the leaflets of the plasma membrane

A
  1. Flippase / active transport of PS and PE
  2. asymmteric biosynthesis
  3. unspecific transport
158
Q

Which are the two main pathways for delivery of lipids from the ER to the TGN?

A
  • ER-TGN contact sites
  • vesicles
159
Q

During cytokinesis the new plasmamembanes are formed (before disassembling of the actin ring / under involvement of ESCRT-proteins / after division of the midbody into two equal pieces) The source of the additional membrane needed is mainly from (the outer mitochondria membrane | the peroxisome | the outer shell of lipid droplets). During open mitosis, the disassembling of the nuclear membrane requires (the phosphorylation of proteins of the nuclear lamina / the proteolysis of the nuclear pore / the transformation of sheet-like ER into tubular ER). ER-stacks in professional secretory cells like B-cells are only stable in the presence of (tight junctions / neurofilaments / ER-cisGolgi contact sites).

A
  • under involvement of ESCRT-proteins
  • the outer shell of lipid droplets
  • the proteolysis of the nuclear pore
  • the transformation of sheet-like ER into tubular ER

NONE

160
Q

Which function have sno/scaRNA during ribosome biogenesis? Where in the cell do they perform this function precisely? Are members of these RNAs also involved in the biogenesis of other RNPs and if so of which ones?

A
  • scaRNA for snRNA processing in Cajal bodies
  • snoRNA part of RNP complex (RNA modification) in nucleoplasm
161
Q

Which of the following statements about the capsid of human rhino virus is/are correct/wrong? Multiple answers are possible.
a) The capsid triangulation number T equals 4 (T=4)
b) The icosahedron shell displays 12 x 5-fold, 20 x 3-fold and 30 x 2-fold rotation axes.
c) The capsid contains 60 copies each of proteins VP1 to VP4.
d) VP4displaysajelly-roll-barrelstructure.
e) 5 copies of VP1 form the so-called “molecular mountains”.
f) Canyon-binder drugs target VP1 and prevent uncoating of the viral capsid.

A

b) The icosahedron shell displays 12 x 5-fold, 20 x 3-fold and 30 x 2-fold rotation axes.
c) The capsid contains 60 copies each of proteins VP1 to VP4.
e) 5 copies of VP1 form the so-called “molecular mountains”.
f) Canyon-binder drugs target VP1 and prevent uncoating of the viral capsid.

162
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about Bacteriophage MS2 is/are correct/wrong? Multiple answers are possible.
    a) The icosahedron shell is made up of a single type of coat protomer.
    b) The viral RNA-genome contains a so-called packaging signal.
    c) The coat protomer posesses a jelly-roll-barrel structure.
    d) TheMS2coatprotomerformsahomodimer.
    e) The coat protomer posesses a chymotrypsin-like fold.
    f) The capsid triangulation number T equals 3 (T=3).
A

a) The icosahedron shell is made up of a single type of coat protomer.
b) The viral RNA-genome contains a so-called packaging signal.
d) TheMS2coatprotomerformsahomodimer.
f) The capsid triangulation number T equals 3 (T=3).

163
Q

Which of the following statements about the Influenza virus Neuranimidase (NA) and Hemagglutinin (HA) is/are correct/wrong? Multiple answers are possible.
a) HA is cleaved by the host cell tryptase Clara into two fragments, HA1 and HA2
b) The so-called fusogenic peptide, exposed at low/acidic pH, is part of the HA2 fragment.
c) NA displays muraminidase activity that can be inhibited by β-Lactam-Antibiotics.
d) 4 NA molecules, each displaying a 4-bladed propeller, form the functional biological unit
e) Fusion Inhibitors affect HA fragment 6-helix-bundle formation, which is mandatory for infectivity.
f) Many non-enveloped viruses typically possess a fusion glycoprotein that harbours HA1 - HA2 segments.

A

a) HA is cleaved by the host cell tryptase Clara into two fragments, HA1 and HA2
b) The so-called fusogenic peptide, exposed at low/acidic pH, is part of the HA2 fragment.
d) 4 NA molecules, each displaying a 4-bladed propeller, form the functional biological unit
e) Fusion Inhibitors affect HA fragment 6-helix-bundle formation, which is mandatory for infectivity.

164
Q

Statements about GP120, Reverse Transcriptase, Vif protein, Rev protein

A

GP120: CD4 receptor binding to evoke receptor ubiquitination and degradation

Reverse Transcriptase: RNAseH Domain, tRNA(Lys3)

Vif protein: Ubiquitin ligase recruitment to degrade cellular cytidine deaminase

Rev protein: Crm1 - Ran.GTP - eIF-5A export pathway, Regulator of viral RNA splicing

165
Q

At which membrane does the budding of retroviruses occur?

A

plasma membrane

166
Q

Which cellular pathway and protein complexes are involved in retroviral budding? State the names of the pathway and protein complexes.

A
  • ESCRT complex
  • VPS pathway (vacuolar protein sorting)
167
Q

(+)-strand RNA viruses restructure the intracellular membrane systems of the host cell for their genome replication.
Name for each of the compartments listed below one virus which makes use of these membranes for genome replication:

A

ER: HCV
Golgi: Kunjivirus
Lysosomen: Rubella/Alphavirus
Mitochondrien: Flock house virus

168
Q

By which method were 3D models of the virus-induced membrane structures obtained?
Describe the basic methodology in catchwords (name and principle).

A

electron microscopy/tomography and 3D modeling

169
Q

For viruses restructuring the ER two basic models/mechanisms how the membrane spherules are generated were postulated based on these analyses. Name the two models/mechanisms and give for each one a viral example.

A
  • via invagination
  • via MVB
170
Q

Explain why a certain cell type is required for such a study (polarity of a virus). Name cell type and its specific features.

A

tight junctions

171
Q

State one viral example (virus and family) for each of the possible polarities.

A

apical: Influenza A
basolateral: Herpesviruses

172
Q

What is the in vivo relevance of the polarity in virus release?

A

hide from immune system

173
Q

Viruses take active counter measures against the interferon induction via the RIG-I pathway. Give one example of a (+)-strand and one example of a (-)-strand RNA virus and explain which viral proteins are used to antagonize their recognition by this pathway. Name the viral antagonists and their mode of action.

A
  • Influenza A (-ssRNA) NS1 binds TRIM25 -> no ubiquitination of RIG-1, no binding to IPS-1 -> no interferon
  • HCV NS3-4A inhibits MAVS (IPS-1)
174
Q

Explain the generation, the function/mode of action of the pr peptide during virion morphogenesis for members of the genus Flavivirus.

A

non mature virions -> no membrane fusion/ budding cause pr (helper protein) binds to E

pr proteolytical cleaved but stays at E cause low pH in endosomes/vesicle

neutral pH in extracellular milieu, release of E, conformation chance -> fusion peptide active -> budding

175
Q

A minority of viruses utilize non-canonical mechanisms in the biogenesis of miRNA molecules. Which of the following answers is/are correct/wrong?
some viral pre-miRNAs are transcribed by RNA polymerase III
all viral miRNA precursors are transcribed by RNA polymerase II
all viral pre-miRNAs are exported into the cytoplasm by exportin-5
all viral pre-miRNAs are exported into the cytoplasm by exportin 1 (Crm1)
all viral miRNA precursors are processed by drosha all viral pre-miRNAs are processed by dicer

A
  • some viral pre-miRNAs are transcribed by RNA polymerase III
  • all viral pre-miRNAs are exported into the cytoplasm by exportin-5
  • all viral miRNA precursors are processed by drosha all viral pre-miRNAs are processed by dicer
176
Q

Der SecY-abhängige post-transnationale Transport von Proteinen über den General Excretion Pathway (GEP) verwendet als Energiequelle
- ATP
- die PMF
- GTP

A
  • ATP
  • die PMF
177
Q

Der GEP ist beteiligt an der
- Sekretion von Proteinen mittels Autotransportern
- beim TAT-Transportweg
- bei der Biogenese von Typ I Pili

A
  • Sekretion von Proteinen mittels Autotransportern
  • bei der Biogenese von Typ I Pili
178
Q

Typ III Sekretion benutzt einen makromolekularen Komplex
- der drei Membranen durchqueren kann
- der homolog zu Teilen bakterieller Flanellen ist
- der ausschließlich co-translational funktioniere

A
  • der drei Membranen durchqueren kann
  • der homolog zu Teilen bakterieller Flanellen ist
179
Q

Die Typ-I-Sekretion verwendet als ATPasen Vertreter der
- ABC-Transporter
- der AAA-ATPasen
- der F0/F1-ATPasen

A
  • ABC Transporter
180
Q

Der Import von Proteinen in die Matrix der Mitochondrien verwendet eine
- saure
- amphipatische
- hydrophobe
Signalstruktur, die in Gegenwart ihres Rezeptors
- eine Helix
- eine beta-Faltblattstruktur
- ein sogenanntes beta-barrel bildet

A
  • amphipatische
  • eine Helix
181
Q

Das Mitochondriengenom der Säuger codiert für
- Proteine der äußeren Mitochondrienmembran
- Proteine der inneren Mitochondrienmembran
- tRNAs der Matrix

A
  • Proteine der inneren Mitochondrienmembran
  • tRNAs der Matrix
182
Q

Im Zellkern codierte Säugerproteine der inneren Membran, die ein internes Targetingsinal besitzen, nutze zur Insertion
- den TOM-complex
- den TIM22 complex
- das mtSecY

A
  • den TOM-complex
  • den TIM22 complex
183
Q

Lückentext ER und Golgi Transport

A

Der COP II coat ist am Transport vom ER zum GOLGI beteiligt.

Der KDEL-Rezeptor dient der Rückführung von Proteinen aus dem GOLGI zum ER.

Der Import von Zuckern in den Golgi erfolgt mittels ANTIPORTERN.

In Säugerzellen befinden sich die ER-exit sites ÜBER DAS ER NETZWERK VERTEILT

Ein entscheidender Auslöser für die Aktivierung von Proteinkonvertasen ist der im Verlauf des sekretorischen Weges ÄNDERUNG pH-Wert im Lumen.

184
Q

Synaptische Vehikel der Säuger haben normalerweise einen Durchmesser von
- 2 nm
- 2 µm
- 2 mm

A

NONE

185
Q

Die Fusion der Vesikel wird durch den Einstrom von …………….. Ionen getriggert.

A

-Ca2+

186
Q

Tetanusneurotoxin hemmt die Fusion synaptischer Vesikel ……………… eines SNARE Proteins

A

proteolytic cleavage

187
Q

Die Endocytose von Rezeptoren kann
- mittels Clathrine coats
- mittels Calveoline
- mittels Coatamer
erfolgen

A
  • mittels Clathrine coats
  • mittels Calveoline
188
Q

Was beschreibt der Begriff “kompensatorische Endozytose”?

A

den Erhalt einer konstanten PM-Oberfläche durch Endocytose bei starker Exocytose

189
Q

Lückentext Lysosomen, Vesikel, endocytose

A

Die Ablösung endocytierter Giganten von ihren Rezeptoren in endosomalen Kompartimenten erfolgt auf Grund der Änderung DES PH WERTES im Lumen der Kompartimente.

In Säugerzellen erfolgt das Targeting vieler Enzyme zum Lysosomen über MANNOSE-6-PHOSPHAT.

Der spezifische Abbau von Lipidvesikeln in Lysosomen wird ermöglicht durch die schützende Wirkung der GLYCOCALYNX auf die Grenzmembran der Lysosomen und die destabilisierende Wirkung von LBPA/BMP auf die internalisierten Membranvesikel.

190
Q

Beschreiben Sie in drei Hauptphasen der Zytokinese bei Säugerzellen.

A
  1. begin of assembly of constriction ring at the PM (middle of cell)
  2. Midbody formation by actin-myosin ring
  3. Absission: disassembly of ring and sealing of PM
191
Q
  • Im Rahmen der “organellar inheritance” während der Mitose fusionieren große Teile des Golgi-Apparates mit dem Endosomal/lysosomalen Kompartiment
  • Bei der Teilung der Chloroplasten wird zuerst das Membransystem der Thylakoide, dann die innere Membran und zum Schluss die äußere Membran geteilt.
  • Die homonymische Fusion von Mitochondrien der Säugerzellen erfolgt mittels SNARE- Proteinen.
A
  • Bei der Teilung der Chloroplasten wird zuerst das Membransystem der Thylakoide, dann die innere Membran und zum Schluss die äußere Membran geteilt.
  • Die homonymische Fusion von Mitochondrien der Säugerzellen erfolgt mittels SNARE- Proteinen.
192
Q

Neben rRNA, tRNA und mRNA haben eukaryonitsche Zellen verschiedene evolutionär konservierte sogenannte “kleine RNAs”. Nennen sie drei Beispiele hochkonservierter Arten und ihre Funktion in der Zelle

A
  1. snRNA: Spleißosome
  2. snoRNA: part of RNP complex
  3. 7SLRNA: SRP (signal recognition particle)
193
Q

Sie wollen ein Matrixprotein des Schweines mittels cDNA rekombinant in einer Bakterienzelle explizieren und dabei erreichen, dass es sekretiert wird. Welche Veränderungen müssen Sie vornehmen?

A
  • mitochondrial matrix import signal removal
  • bacterial export signal (secDF, SecY) adding
194
Q

Aussagen über VP1, VP2/3, VP4

A

VP1: Myristylated, Canyon binder, Capsid 5-fold symmetry axis, Capsid molecular mountain-top, Capsid outside surface, Jelly role topology

VP2/3: Capsid 5-fold symmetry axis

VP4: Capsid pseudo 6 fold axis, Capsid asymmetric axis

195
Q

Verschiedene Aussagen über Influenza A

A
  • The so-called fusogenic peptide is part of the membrane-anchored HA2 fragment
  • HA is a sialidase that can be inhibited by Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
196
Q

Verschiedene Aussagen über HIV-1 reverse transcription

A
  • A single vRNA strand contains two LTRs, each consisting of a U3-, R- and U5-region.
  • RT is a dimeric protein that tabours only one Nase-H domain.
  • Reverse transcription can be inhibited by nucleoside and non nucleosidic inhibitors
  • Provirus integration into the hosts Genome is at the cost of a 2-basepare loss in the U5 region of each of the two LTRs.
197
Q

The incubation time after the bite by a rabies infected dog is up to

A

several months

198
Q

Describe the individual steps of the spread of rabies infection after inoculation into a muscle of a person’s leg

A

muscle -> peripheral NS -> ganction -> spinal cord -> brain -> CNS -> death

199
Q

Name two viruses (virus and family) whose infection occurs via the gastro intestinal tract

A

Reoviridae: Rotavirus, Orbivirus -> BVDV

Coronavirus (Pigs)

Norovirus -> Caliciviridae

200
Q

Which special property is essential for this viral life style (besides suitable receptor usage) for gastro intestinal viruses?

A

cellular transcription factors are essential for viral promoter

201
Q

Which specialized cells in the gastro intestinal tract play an important role in some of those infections and what is the special property of those cells?

A
  • M cells
  • M cells take up antigens and present them to lymphocytes which are located below
  • but some viruses use M-cells for entry and spreading (Reovirus, Poliovirus) or infection and replication (Rotavirus)
202
Q

What does the abbreviation “GALT” stand for?

A

Gut associated lymphoid tissue

203
Q

Täterin (CD317) exerts an antiviral role. Against which virus family does it act and what is the antiviral mechanism?

A

Retroviruses (budding via ESCRT pathway) (envelope)
- Tetherin in virus membrane bins to Tetherin of CD317 in host membrane
- no budding
- vesicle isn’t released
- uptake of virus into the cell and degradation in lysosome

204
Q

Name three cellular sensors for “foreign” RNA and describe their substrate specificity.

A
  • dsRNA
  • hairpin structure in RNA
  • 5’ Triphosphate
205
Q

Explain shortly the terms and molecular basis of “antigenic shift” and “antigenic drift” in the context of the influenza virus system.

A

DRIFT
- partial immunity possible, normal immune response, new variant (mutations) -> seasonal
(“die schon wieder” = drift)

SHIFT
- zoonosis (animal -> human), no immunity in host, overreaction of immune system, unpredictable/fatal
- pandemic (bop Spanische Grippe shift)

206
Q

Describe the two models for the mechanism of RNA recombination

A

HOMOLOGOUS
between two partners with significant sequence homologies (asp two polioviruses)

NON HOMOLOGOUS
between partners with no significant sequence homologies (virus and mRNA host)

207
Q

Name two RNA viruses for which the process of RNA recombination is an ESSENTIAL step in the regular replication cycle?

A

Orthomyxoviridae - Influenza A (cap-snatching)

Nidovirales - Coronavirus (discontinous transcription)

208
Q

Explain the priming reaction of the reverse transcription of hepatitis B virus. Name the involved molecules

A

5’ epsilon stem loop
- p binds to UUC in epsilon for primer synthesis (Nucleotide primer AAG)
- switch to 3’ DR1 sequence
- Elongation

209
Q

Course of infections

A

Acute infection -> e.g. Influenza virus, Rhinovirus
Chronic infection -> e.g. Hepatitis C virus
Latent infection -> e.g. herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Slow infection -> e.g. HIV

210
Q

Der general excretion pathway (erlaubt in vielen Fällen die Sekretion von gefallteten Proteinen / überquert bei den… auch die äußere Membran / ist homolog zum Proteintransport über das ER)

A
  • erlaubt in vielen Fällen die Sekretion von gefallteten Proteinen
  • ist homolog zum Proteintransport über das ER
211
Q

YidC bzw. homolge dieses Proteins (unterstützen den Transport von Membranproteinen/ und ATPasen/ findet man auch in der inneren Membran von Mitochondrien und der Thylakoidmembran von Plasmiden)

A
  • unterstützen den Transport von Membranproteinen
  • findet man auch in der inneren Membran von Mitochondrien und der Thylakoidmembran von Plasmiden
212
Q

Der TAT-Transportweg (ist GTP abhängig / transportiert gefaltete Substrate / erkennt beim Trgeting ein hydrophobes Signal am N-terminus des Substrates )

A

-transportiert gefaltete Substrate
- erkennt beim Targeting ein hydrophobes Signal am N-terminus des Substrates

213
Q

Die Knüpfung von Disulfidbrücken in Proteobakterien (E.coli) (erfolgt fast nur im Periplasma / beinhaltet eine Elektronentransportkette ohne lösliche Faktoren / führt zur Ausbildung von kovalent verbundenen Intermediaten aus Substrat und Disulfidisomerasen)

A
  • erfolgt fast nur im Periplasma
  • führt zur Ausbildung von kovalent verbundenen Intermediaten aus Substrat und Disulfidisomerasen
214
Q

Die für eine Isomerisierung notwendigen Elektronen kommen (immer über die Atmungskette von Sauerstoff / nur unter aeroben Bedingungen vom Sauerstoff / in der Regel immer über Thioradoxin von NADPH).

A
  • in der Regel immer über Thioradoxin von NADPH
215
Q

Das DegP des Periplasmas agiert während der Biogenese von Proteinen der äußeren Membran als (Chaperon / Protease / Peptidylprolylisomerase).

A
  • Chaperon
  • Protease
216
Q

Das Importsignal für mitochondriale Matrixproteinen in Säugern ist eine (amphiphatische Helix / derigiert das Protein durch den TIM22-Komplex / wird häufig nach dem durchqueren der äußeren Membran im Intermembranraum abgeschnitten)

A

amphiphatische Helix

217
Q

Der Import von Proteinen aus dem Zytoplasma in Plastiden über den TOC-Komplex (erfolgt oft co-translational / benötigt kein GTP / benötigt ausschließlich ARP im Stroma)

A

NONE

218
Q

Wie wird verhindert, das ER-residente Membranproteine durch den Vesikeltransport aus dem ER verloren gehen? Nennen sie die zwei Hauptmechanismen und – so vorhanden – typische Primärstrukturen, die diese Mechanismen steuern.

A

Retention z.B. durch Interaktion mit Ribosomen
Rücktransport über Interaktion mit COPI-coat
Kkxxcooh oder (nh2)XXRR

219
Q

Nennen sie drei Hauptstadien bzw. wichtige Schritte der Biogenese sekretorischer Granula und ihrer Inhalte (Typ dense core vesicle) entsprechend dem „condensing vauole“ Modell.

A
  1. Abschnürren eines großen Bereiches aus dem TGN
  2. Ansäurung, Abschnürung vo Vesikel nicht zum SG gehörenden Proteinen zum Endosom
  3. Reifung der Proteininhalte (Processing von Pro-Sequencen)
  4. Andocken an die Plasmamembran
220
Q

Bei der Reifung von Endosomen kann Material aus dem späten Endosomen (zum TGN / zum Lysosomen / zum sorting endosome) gelangen.

A
  • zum TGN
  • zum Lysosomen
221
Q

Receptor down regulation erfordert als ersten Schritt (eine Neddylierung / eine Sumoylierung / eine Acetylierung) des zatoplasmatischen Teils des Proteins.

A

NONE

222
Q

Das Mannose-6-Phophat Signal (wird endgültig im Golgi geformt / kann Proteine von der Plasmamembran in das Lysosome dirigieren / binder bei leicht saurem pH-Wert an seinen Rezeptor).

A
  • wird endgültig im Golgi geformt
  • kann Proteine von der Plasmamembran in das Lysosome dirigieren
  • binder bei leicht saurem pH-Wert an seinen Rezeptor
223
Q

Macroautophagy (dient u. a. Der Glucosemobilisierung durch Abbau von Glycogranula / ist im Gegensatz zur Mikroautophagy nie selektiv hinsichtlich des Abbaus bestimmter Organellen / benutzt überwiegend Plasmamembranbereiche zur Formierung der Grenzmembran (limiting membrane)).

A
  • dient u. a. Der Glucosemobilisierung durch Abbau von Glycogranula
224
Q

Exosomen sind (Vesikel, die durch Fusion später Endosomen bzw. Lysosomen freigesetzt werden / stehen im Verdacht, RNAs von Zelle zu Zelle transportieren zu können / sind von einer Glycokalyx aus LAM Proteinen umgeben)

A
  • Vesikel, die durch Fusion später Endosomen bzw. Lysosomen freigesetzt werden
  • stehen im Verdacht, RNAs von Zelle zu Zelle transportieren zu können
225
Q

Ein Kontakt zwischen zwei Kompartimenten, bei dem sich eine Fusionspore bildet, die Durchmischung der Lumina erlaubt, die Durchmischung der Grenzmembrane aber im wesentlich verhindert bzw. verzögert wird oft als „kiss and run“-Mechanismus bezeichnet. Nennen sie zwei zelluläre Vorgänge, bei denen solch ein Mechanismus dikutiert wird.

A

Exocytose synaptischer Vesikel
Stofftransport zwischen spätem Endosom und Lysosom

226
Q

Welche Ursachen hat die asymetrische Lipidverteilung zwischen der äußeren und der inneren Lipidshchicht der Plasmamembran der Säuger?

A

Assymetrie in der Lipidverteilung in den exocytotischen Vesikeln
Fehlen von Transportern e.g. für Glycolipide und Sphingolipide
Aktiver Transport von Aussen nach Innen für PE und PS

227
Q

In der ersten Phase der Zytokinese bei Säugerzellen erfolgt die Formierung einer ringförmigen Struktur aus (Aktin / Myosin / Tubulin) unterhalb der Plasmamebran.

A
  • Aktin
  • Myosin
228
Q

Die Auflösung der Kernhülle während des Zellzyklus (wird verhindert durch die Phosphorylierung von Komponenten der Kernpore und der Kernlamina / wird unterstützt durch Mikrotubuli / beinhalte das Zerfallen der Kernporen in Subkomplexe)

A
  • wird unterstützt durch Mikrotubuli
  • beinhalte das Zerfallen der Kernporen in Subkomplexe
229
Q

Das an der Fusion von Mitochondrien beteiligte mitofusin (Fzo1) ist (homolog zu SNARE-Proteinen / strukturell analog zu SNARE-Proteinen / weist keine Ähnlichkeit zu SNARE-Proteinen auf).

A
  • strukturell analog zu SNARE-Proteinen
230
Q

In folgenden RNA-Molekülklassen können post-transkriptional Basen modifiziert werden (rRNA / mRNA / miRNA)

A
  • rRNA
  • mRNA
231
Q

Polyadenylierung führt bei folgenden Molekülen i der Regel nicht zum Abbau (eukaryontischer prä-5srRNA / prokaryontische mRNA / prokaryontische prä-tRNA)

A

NONE

232
Q

Nennen sie drei Eigenschaften / Primärstrukturelemente in eukaryontischen mRNAs, die Einfluß auf ihre Halbwertszeit haben können:

A

Länge Poly-A
Vorkommen ARE
Vorkommen premature Stop

233
Q

A) Clara
B) Neuraminidase
C) Hemagglutinin
D) M2 protein

  1. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme II
  2. RT-Polymerase
  3. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
  4. High pH form with substrate binding domains (a jelly roll) on top (exposed)
    5.Tetramer of 6-bladed β-propeller structure
  5. Hydrolyses HA to form HA1 and HA2
  6. Pentameric structure
  7. Viral glycoprotein
  8. Low pH form exposig the fusogenic peptide for membrane insertion
  9. Sialidase
  10. Tryptase
  11. An acid-activated channel
A

Clara:
6. Hydrolyses HA to form HA1 and HA2
11. Tryptase

Neuraminidase:
3. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
5.Tetramer of 6-bladed β-propeller structure
8. Viral glycoprotein
10. Sialidase

Hemaglutinin:
4. High pH form with substrate binding domains (a jelly roll) on top (exposed)
8. Viral glycoprotein
9. Low pH form exposig the fusogenic peptide for membrane insertion

M2 protein:
12. An acid-activated channel

234
Q

A) Picornaviruses
B) Bacter Bacteriophage MS2
C) Tobacco mosaic virus

  1. Triangulation number T = 3
  2. 16 coat protein per helicasl turn
  3. jellyy roll of 6 β-strands and a Greek key motif
  4. Coat protein dimer recognize RNA packing signal
  5. small genome encodes 4 proteins only
    6.3 copies each of VP1 and VP2 arrange around pseudo 6-fold rotation axes
  6. 60 copies each VP1 and VP4
  7. Total of 8 x 5-fold, 12 x 3-fold and 16 x 2-fold axes
  8. 20 identical equilateral triangular tiles
  9. Diploid DNA-RAN hybrid genome
  10. Canyon binder drugs
  11. A few thousand coat protein copies make up the capsid
A

Picornaviruses
1. Triangulation number T = 3
3. jellyy roll of 6 β-strands and a Greek key motif
7. 60 copies each VP1 and VP4
9. 20 identical equilateral triangular tiles
11. Canyon binder drugs

Bacter Bacteriophage MS2
1. Triangulation number T = 3
4. Coat protein dimer recognize RNA packing signal
5. small genome encodes 4 proteins only

Tobacco mosaic virus
2. 16 coat protein per helicasl turn
12. A few thousand coat protein copies make up the capsid

235
Q

Infections with enteroviruses inuce the expression of the cellular miR-141 in the infected cells. Which statements are correct? (ROT = RICHTIGE ANTWORT)

a) the virus-induced expression of cellular miR-141 reduces the expression of cellular eIF4E protein by degradation of eIF4E-mRNA

b) the virus-induced expression of cellular miR-141 reduces the expression of cellular eIF4E protein by inhibiting of eIF4E-translation

c) the virus-induced expression of cellular miR-141 reduces the expression of cellular eIF4E protein by inhibiting of eIF4G-translation

d) the virus-induced expression of cellular miR-141 reduces the expression of cellular eIF4E protein by degradation of eIF4G-mRNA

e) the virus-induced expression of cellular miR-141 reduces the cap-dependent translation of cellular mRNAs

f) the virus-induced expression of cellular miR-141 decreases the cap-dependent translation of enteroviral RNA

A

b) the virus-induced expression of cellular miR-141 reduces the expression of cellular eIF4E protein by inhibiting of eIF4E-translation

e) the virus-induced expression of cellular miR-141 reduces the cap-dependent translation of cellular mRNAs

236
Q

. A minority of viruses utilize non-canonical mechanisms in the biogenesis of miRNA molecules.

A) Which statements are correct?

a) some viral pre-miRNAs are transcribed by RNA polymerase III

b) all viral miRNAs are transcribed by RNA polymerase III

c) all viral pre-miRNAs are exported into the cytoplam by exportin-5

d) all viral pre-miRNAs are exported into the cytoplam by exportin 1 (Crm1)

e) all viral miRNAs precursors are processed by drosha

f) all viral pre-miRNAs precursors are processed by dicer

A

a) some viral pre-miRNAs are transcribed by RNA polymerase III
c) all viral pre-miRNAs are exported into the cytoplam by exportin-5
f) all viral pre-miRNAs precursors are processed by dicer

237
Q

The biogenesis of ouse gammherpesvirus 68 (MHV 68) and bovine leukemia virus (BLV) encoded miRNAs differ from the main miRNA biogenesis pathway. Name the two common differences.

A

Both transcribed by RNA pol III
Don’t need drosha processing

238
Q

Name two viruses with very narrow and two with very broad host range (virus and family) and their host species.

A

Narrow: HBV (Hepadnaviridae), HCV (Flaviviridae), HAV (Picornaviridae)
Broad: Dengue (Flaviviridae), Rabies virus (Rhabdoviridae)

239
Q

First name the three categories of host factors (not individual proteins) which determine the host or tissuse specificity of viruses and then give one example for each category.

A
  1. Receptor: Polio-Rezeptor (CD155), mouse with receptor permissive for PV
  2. Cellular factors for viral replication: miR122, HCV RNA replication
  3. Cellular factors for virus maturation: ApoB, HCV virion morphogenesis
240
Q

What is the role of the prM in the maturation of virions of the genus Flavivirus? Explain the fate and function of prM during virion morphogensis

A

prM has to protect E from premature fusion during assembly and budding process

prMis cleaved by Furin in the TGN into pr and M; pr remains bound to E due to the low pH in the TG and the secretory pathway and shields fusion loop of E

after budding in neutral pH is released and allows the fusion loop to act in infection

241
Q

Give a short explanation for them terms „genetic shift“ and „genetic drift“ in the context of Influenza virus. What special requirement is prerequisite for one of these two mechanisms?

A

Antigenic drift: small sequence variations by erors of the viral RdRp
Antigenic shift: drastic sequence change by the exchange of a genome segment

Due to double infection of a single cell by two different Flu viruses.
Term: Reassortment of segmented genomes

242
Q

Describe briefly the individual steps after the release of a newly formed influenza A virus until to the release of its genome into a newly infected cell.

A

Virus needs to detach from the cell and uses Neuramidase Enzyme/protein to get away from the parental cell

HA needs to be cleaved by a host protease (like proteinase Clara from Clara cell) into HA1 and HA2

The infectious virus binds to sialic acids attached to cellular prteins

This leads to the uptake of the virus into clathrine coated endosomes

Uppon accidification HA trimer undergoes a conformational change and the virus membrane and the endodsomal membrane fuse, leading to the release of the genome segments into cytoplasm

243
Q

. Influenza A virus can block the induction of interferon alpha/beta with one of its gene products. Explain based on a scheme the underlying molecuar mechanism (which viral gene product, which celular signaling molecule, how is the signaling chain interrupted).

A

Influenza A virus nonstructural protein (NS1) sepcifically inhibits TRIM25-mediated RIG-I CARD ubiquitination, thereby suppressing RIG-I signal transduction.

244
Q

) The budding of retroviruses occurs:

a) ER membrane
b) Plasma membrane
c) Intermediate compartment
d) Golgi membrane

A

b) Plasma membrane

245
Q

Which cellular protein complexes are used by retroviruses for assembly and budding (correct full name and abbreviation).

A

ESCRT-protein complex (endosomal sorting complex required for transport)

246
Q

List two different cellular proteins for these complexes which undergo interactions with two retroviral proteins during budding.

A

ALIX, TSG101

247
Q

RNA recombination:

A) Describe by catchwords and a scheme the two models for the mechanism of RNA recombination.

A

Breakage and ligation
Template shift

248
Q

For which RNA viruses is the process of RNA recombination an essentiell step in the replicaion cycle? Explain two examples by using catchwords.

A

Influenza: cap snatching

Corona/Nidovirusess: Leader primed / discontinuous transcription

249
Q

What are „Negri bodies“, where are they detected, what are they composed of and for which viral infection are they an Indication?

A

Histopathologial changes associated with rabies encephalitis

Pyramidal cells of Ammon’s horn; Purkinje cells of the cerebellum, medulla and various other ganglia

Contain rabies N + M protein and TLR3

250
Q

Viruses use cellular filopodia for cell spread. Name 3 viruses from different families and explain the mechanistic differences in their use of the filopodia for cell to cell spread.

A

a) Newly formed retroviruses accumulate on the cell surface, they surf on existing filopodia and are transported via retrograde transport on filamentous actin to the new target cell
b) long contact between target membrane and filopodia leads to their uptake, facilitates virus transmission followed by intracellular actin driven transport
c9 vaccinia virus: induces from outside the formation of actin-“comet tail”, virus is thereby transported toward target cell , actin-flow in the target cell is used for further transport processes
d) African swine fever virus, induces from inside the formation of filopodia

251
Q

Which of the following statements concerning capsides and envelopes of RNA-viruses are NOT correct?
- The envelope and the capsid of enveloped RNA-viruses usually contain (at least) one glycoprotein, one matrix protein and one nucleocapsid protein.
- The outer envelope of the influenza virus contains one transmembrane channelpermeable for protons.
- The capsid of alpha viruses consists of a protease-degrading itself by autolysis after binding to a receptor on the host membrane, thus enabling the entrance of viral RNA into the host cell.
- The capsid of picorna viruses consist of 60 copies each of the proteins VP1, VP2, VP3 and VP4. Of these, VP1, VP2 and VP3 possess a “jelly roll”-fold
- The capsid of picorna viruses exhibits a dodecahedral-symmetry.

A
  • The capsid of alpha viruses consists of a protease-degrading itself by autolysis after binding to a receptor on the host membrane, thus enabling the entrance of viral RNA into the host cell.
  • The capsid of picorna viruses exhibits a dodecahedral-symmetry.
252
Q

Which of the following statements concerning capsids and envelopes of RNA-viruses are NOT correct?
- The capsid of picorna viruses consists of twelve pentamers of the composition (VP1, VP2, VP3, VP4).
- The capsid of picorna viruses consists of twenty trimers of the composition (VP1, VP2, VP3, VP4).
- The capsid of picorna viruses consists of thirty dimers of the composition (VP1, VP2, VP3, VP4).
- The processing of the picorna viral poly protein P1 in the mature capsid proteins VP1, VP2, VP3 and VP4 is performed by the viral protease 2A.
- “Canyonbinders” are hydrophobic compounds binding in a cavity of the picornaviral capsid surrounding the VP1-pentamer.

A
  • The processing of the picorna viral poly protein P1 in the mature capsid proteins VP1, VP2, VP3 and VP4 is performed by the viral protease 2A.
253
Q

What are the mechanistic features of the miR-122 function during HCV replication? Which statements are correct?
- The cellular miR-122 binds to the 3’ UTR and to the 5’ UTR of the viral genome.
- The binding sites for the cellular miR-122 are exclusively located in the 5’ UTR of the viral genome.
- The mode of action of the cellular miR-122 on HCV replication mainly based on the inhibition of translation of the viral RNA by binding to the 3’ UTR of the viral RNA.
- The mode of action of the cellular miR-122 on HCV replication is mainly based on the increase of stability of the viral RNA by binding to the 3’ UTR of the viral RNA.
- The mode of action of the cellular miR-122 on HCV replication is mainly based on the increase of stability of the viral RNA by binding to the 5’ UTR of the viral RNA.
- The mode of action of the cellular miR-122 on HCV replication is only based on the negative regulation of translation of cellular liver-specific mRNAs by binding to their 3’ UTRs.

A
  • The cellular miR-122 binds to the 3’ UTR and to the 5’ UTR of the viral genome.
  • The mode of action of the cellular miR-122 on HCV replication is mainly based on the increase of stability of the viral RNA by binding to the 5’ UTR of the viral RNA.
254
Q

In which families listed below no expression of viral mRNAs could be detected in any of the examined members?
- Herpes viridae
- Polyomaviridae
- Adenoviridae
- Flaviviridae
- Poxviridae
- Picornaviridae

Explain these observations functionally

A
  • Flaviviridae
  • Poxviridae
  • Picornaviridae

-> no nuclear phase
-> miRNAs generated in nucleus

255
Q

What special mechanism does HCMV use for the egress of new formed virus particles from the nucleus of infected cells? Which cellular process mimicked by the virus?

A

HCMV (human cytomegalovirus) protein UL97 has kinase activity and phosphorylates lamina at the sites where CDK1 would phosphorylate during mitoses: Molecular mimicry of cellular kinase

256
Q

HIV-1 Assembly:
a) Which cellular protein complex is critical for budding of HIV?
b) Which protein of HIV recruits components of this complex and how is the relevant domain in the viral protein called? Give one example for a recruited cellular protein.
c) Which domain in the viral protein is critical for there recruitment?
d) How would you prove a critical function for a cellular protein of this complex in HIV budding?

A

a) Endosomal sorting complex required for transport
b) GAG, Late domain, TSG101
c) late domain
d) siRNA knockdown of TSG101

257
Q

How are experiments called which are used to reduce the number of members of a pre-existing viral quasi species? Design one of those experiments.

A

Bottle neck experiments
- add neutralizing monoclonal antibody to virus, incubate
- add mixture to cell culture

258
Q

By which experimental setup it was shown that there is a massive interaction between vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV) and HeLA cells during viral cell entry? Which class of cellular enzymes were identified as keys players?

A

Systematic siRNA knockdown of all cellular kinases, “Kinasome”

259
Q

Draw the “typical fusion protein” and indicate the names of the relevant domains.

A
  • receptor binding domain
  • central coded coil domain
  • membrane anchor
260
Q

a) For which viruses the terms “antigenic shift” and “antigenic drift” are used?
b) Explain the terms “antigenic shift” and “antigenic drift”

A

a) Segmented negative strand viruses like influenza virus
b) Drift: slow, point mutations accumulate over time
Shift: reassortment of genome segments, drastic, quick

261
Q

Which of the following statements on the HIV-1 protease (PR) are true?
- The PR homonymer contains two times the motive DTG (Asp-Thr-Gly)
- PR cleaves at the sequence F/YY-P (Phe/Tyr-Pro)
- PR cleaves the viral poly proteins Gag and Gag-Pol
- The PR homonymer structure is quite similar to the structures of the acidic proteinases Renin and Pepsin
- Viral replication capacity drives the evolution of protease mutants in the presence/absence of drugs
- Substrat binding to PR follows a “lock-and-key” principle

A
  • The PR homonymer contains two times the motive DTG (Asp-Thr-Gly)
  • PR cleaves at the sequence F/YY-P (Phe/Tyr-Pro)
  • PR cleaves the viral poly proteins Gag and Gag-Pol
  • The PR homonymer structure is quite similar to the structures of the acidic proteinases Renin and Pepsin
  • Viral replication capacity drives the evolution of protease mutants in the presence/absence of drugs
262
Q

RIG I
a) List the three domains of RIG-I (full names)
b) RIG-I detects a PAMP. What does PAMP stand for?

A

a)
- Regulatory domain
- Helicase domain
- cascade activation and recruitment domain
b) pathogen associated molecular pattern

263
Q
  1. Tat (transactivator of transcription)
  2. Rev (regulator of expression of Virion proteins)
  3. Vif (viral infectivity factor)
  4. Vpr (viral protein rapid)
  5. Vpu (viral protein out)
  6. Nef (negative factor/ non evident function)
    A. Hijacks the cellular Cullin5E3 ubiquitin ligase in order to label APOBEC3G for degradation
    B. is produced in an early stage of infection and plays a decisive role in the onset of events
    C. Binds to the cytoplasmic domain of the CD4 receptor and induces ubiquitinylation and degradation of the CD4 receptor
    D. Can act directly as a toxin inducing cell death via apoptosis in uninfected “bystander” T cells
    E. Promotes the RanGTP dependent export of mRNA out of the nucleus
    F. Induces the arrest of proliferating infected cells at the G2/M phase of the cell cycle
A
  1. Tat (transactivator of transcription) : D. Can act directly as a toxin inducing cell death via apoptosis in uninfected “bystander” T cells
  2. Rev (regulator of expression of Virion proteins): E. Promotes the RanGTP dependent export of mRNA out of the nucleus
  3. Vif (viral infectivity factor): A. Hijacks the cellular Cullin5E3 ubiquitin ligase in order to label APOBEC3G for degradation
  4. Vpr (viral protein rapid): F. Induces the arrest of proliferating infected cells at the G2/M phase of the cell cycle
  5. Vpu (viral protein out): C. Binds to the cytoplasmic domain of the CD4 receptor and induces ubiquitinylation and degradation of the CD4 receptor
  6. Nef (negative factor/ non evident function): B. is produced in an early stage of infection and plays a decisive role in the onset of events
264
Q

Which of the following statements on the HIV-1 reverse transcription and integration processes are true?
- VPg (Viral Protein Genome-linked) is the primer molecule in reverse transition of the vRNA into proviral cDNA
- Reverse transcription involves in total 2 x strand swapping
- RT is an RNA- and DNA-dependent DNA-Polymerase deficient of proofreading mechanisms
- Reverse transcription can be inhibited by nucleoside and non-nucleosidic inhibitors
- Provirus integration into the hosts Genome is at the cost of a 2-base pair loss in the U5 region of each of the two LTRs
- IN (intergase) is a dimer displaying two active sites

A
  • Reverse transcription involves in total 2 x strand swapping
  • RT is an RNA- and DNA-dependent DNA-Polymerase deficient of proofreading mechanisms
  • Reverse transcription can be inhibited by nucleoside and non-nucleosidic inhibitors
  • IN (intergase) is a dimer displaying two active sites
265
Q

Lipoproteins of the outer membrane of E. coli
- need cytoplasmic ATP for their transport across the periplasmic space
- have their signal sequence processed by the standard signal peptidase
- are translocated across the plasma membrane using the SecY-dependent translocase

A
  • need cytoplasmic ATP for their transport across the periplasmic space
  • are translocated across the plasma membrane using the SecY-dependent translocase
266
Q

Which protein factors are needed to support post translational transport across the bacterial plasma membrane via the SecYEG-Tpe translocate, which main energy source are used for the actual translocation ands which amino acids are enriched in the targeting signal (signal sequence)?

A

Factors: SecA, SecB (not essential)
energy sources: ATP, PMF (not essential)
amino acids: hydrophobic (N-terminal signal peptide N-H-C-domain, N-domain is positively charged, the H-domain is hydrophobic, and the C-domain is more polar)

267
Q

Which protein factors are needed to support post translational transport across the bacterial plasma membrane via the SecYEG-Tpe translocate, which main energy source are used for the actual translocation ands which amino acids are enriched in the targeting signal (signal sequence)?

A

Factors: SecA, SecB (not essential)
energy sources: ATP, PMF (not essential)
amino acids: hydrophobic (N-terminal signal peptide N-H-C-domain, N-domain is positively charged, the H-domain is hydrophobic, and the C-domain is more polar)

268
Q

The signal sequence which directs a protein to the Tat-pathway
- bears a so-called Twin-Arginine-Motive blocking its entry into the SecY-dependent translocate
- is glycosylated at its N-temrinus after the transfer
- is cleaved during the transfer by a signal peptidase

A
  • bears a so-called Twin-Arginine-Motive blocking its entry into the SecY-dependent translocate
269
Q

Lipidation of proteins which are finally located in the outer leaflet of the outer membrane occurs usually
- at the periplasmic side of the plasma membrane
- at the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane
- at the periplasmic side of the outer membrane

A
  • at the periplasmic side of the plasma membrane
270
Q

Typ I secretion (T1SS)
- consumes ATP during transport
- requires the activity of the SecY-dependent translocate
- allows gram-negative bacteria the simultaneous secretion of proteins across inner and outer membrane

A
  • consumes ATP during transport
  • allows gram-negative bacteria the simultaneous secretion of proteins across inner and outer membrane
271
Q

Name all membranes of plastids of the viridiplantae that have proteins coded in the nucleus. For which of these membranes dies the import from the cytoplasm require the activity of the TIC?

A

membranes with proteins coded in the nucleus:
- outer membrane
- inner membrane
- thylakoid membrane

membranes that require the activity of TIC:
- inner membrane

272
Q

Signals targeting soluble proteins to the peroxisomal matrix are located
- at the N-terminus
- at the C-terminus
- in an internal hydrophobic segment

A
  • at the N-terminus
  • at the C-terminus
273
Q

The transport of proteins into the thylakoid lumen may require components with homology
- to the bacterial SRP
- to the TAT-pathway
- to the YidC

A
  • to the bacterial SRP
  • to the TAT-pathway
  • to the YidC
274
Q

The targeting to the TOC complex may include steps that require
- GTP
- PMF
- ATP

A
  • GTP
  • ATP
275
Q

In order to reach their final destination, proteins of the mitochondrial matrix coded in the nuclear genome have to cross
- three membranes
- one membrane
- two membranes

A
  • two membranes
276
Q

beta-barrel proteins of the outer mitochondrial membrane are integrated into the bilayer
- After a brief passage across the inter membrane space
- after a passage across the inner membrane and the inter membrane space
- directly coming from the cytoplasm

A
  • After a brief passage across the inter membrane space
277
Q

The import of proteins into the matrix of peroxisomes requires
- the presence of an ATPase in the matrix
- a completely unfolded conformation of the substrate
- the presence of ubiquitin

A
  • the presence of ubiquitin
278
Q

During maturation of secretory granules
- the volume of the lumen decreases
- protein maturation by endoproteases is blocked
- the pH of the lumen decreases

A
  • the volume of the lumen decreases
  • the pH of the lumen decreases
279
Q

During receptor down regulation (e.g. of tyrosine kinases) ear-marked receptors are usually endocytose via
- Clathrin-dependent endocytosis
- the GEEC pathway
- phagocytosis

A
  • Clathrin-dependent endocytosis
280
Q

According to the cisternal-maturation model
- a complete back-transport of large unfragmented late (trans) Golgi stacks is mandatory
- the transport of soluble proteins is mainly performed via transient tubular connections between the different Golgi stacks
- vesicular Transport is only essentially involved in the back-transport of molecules

A
  • vesicular Transport is only essentially involved in the back-transport of molecules
281
Q

Sorting of ear-marked receptors during receptor down regulation into internal vesicles requires
- COPII coat proteins
- Caveolin
- ESCRT proteins

A
  • ESCRT proteins
282
Q

Typical protein modifications occurring in the lumen of the Golgi are
- acetylation of amino termini of proteins
- O-linked glycosylation
- further modification of Asa-linked oligosaccharides

A
  • O-linked glycosylation
  • further modification of Asa-linked oligosaccharides
283
Q

The Exocyst
- is involved in the tethering of vesicles during constitutive secretion
- supports the recycling of SNAREs after exocytosis directly
- consists of globular proteins

A
  • is involved in the tethering of vesicles during constitutive secretion
284
Q

During receptor down regulation (e.g. tyrosine kinases) receptors are ear-marked via
- ubiquitinoylation
- neddylation
- acetylation

A
  • ubiquitinoylation
285
Q

The Golgi apparatus in the yeast S. cerevisiae
1. has no early or late Golgi compartments
2. has usually no stack-like appearance
3- is exclusively concentrated at the microtubule organizing center (MTOC)

A
  1. has usually no stack-like appearance
286
Q

Name the three principle concepts which explain the exchange of luminal content between compartments of the end/lysosomal system

A
  • maturation
  • vesicular
  • kiss-and-run
287
Q

The concept of a kiss-and-run mechanism of exocytosis requires a regular and direct involvement
- SNARE-proteins
- Clathrin
- endosomes

A
  • SNARE proteins
288
Q

During receptor down regulation (e.g. of tyrosine kinases) ear-marked receptors are sorted to internal vesicles at the
1. TGN
2. late endosome
3. lysosome

A
  1. late endosome
289
Q

The KDEL-receptor
1. is a membrane protein
2. recognizes signals at the cytoplasmic domains of ER-membrane proteins
3. supports the retrieval of luminal proteins into the ER

A
  1. is a membrane protein
  2. supports the retrieval of luminal proteins into the ER
290
Q

name the major mechanistically difference between the process of microautophagy compared to macroautophagy

A

Micro: Cargo uptake via membrane invaginations

Macro: Cargo uptake via envelopment and sealing, then fusion with lysosome -> residual body

291
Q

Tetanus toxin
1. blocks exocytosis by blocking calcium influx to the cell
2. blocks the loading of synaptic vesicles with neurotransmitters
3. is a protease that cleaves and inactivates SNARE proteins

A
  1. is a protease that cleaves and inactivates SNARE proteins
292
Q

Lipid droplets
- are degraded after fusion with peroxisomes
- have a core of neutral lipids that is surrounded by a lipid bilayer
- are formed at the outer membrane of mitochondria

A

NONE

293
Q

The asymmetry in the lipid composition of the plasma membrane is caused by
- specific transport of lipids from one leaflet of the plasma membrane to the other
- the restriction of particular biosynthetic pathways to tone of the leaflets of the Golgi membrane
- a very fast degradation of lipids at the extracellular leaflet of the plasma membrane

A
  • specific transport of lipids from one leaflet of the plasma membrane to the other
  • the restriction of particular biosynthetic pathways to tone of the leaflets of the Golgi membrane
294
Q

The non-ovoid shape of nuclei of neutrophils is
- controlled by components of the cytoskeleton
- important for their capability to migrate from the blood.stream into the surrounding tissues
- a result of the lack of nuclear pores

A
  • controlled by components of the cytoskeleton
295
Q

The fusion of mammalian somatic cells
- leads to the formation of syncytial tissues
- occurs only under pathological or artificial conditions
- depends on SNARE proteins

A

NONE

296
Q

The lipid transport from the ER to the plasma membrane uses
- membrane contact sites between the plasma membrane and the endoplasmatic reticulum
- membrane containers (e.g. vesicles) of the secretory pathway
- lipid droplets

A
  • membrane contact sites between the plasma membrane and the endoplasmatic reticulum
  • membrane containers (e.g. vesicles) of the secretory pathway
297
Q

The inheritance of the nucleus during open mitosis
- needs as an early step the phosphorylation of crucial components like Lamina or nucleoporins
- involves the activity of ESCRT complexes to allow the closure of the nuclear membrane after disassembling of microtubules in a late step
- is usually accompanied by a massive synthesis of nucleoporins during anaphase

A
  • needs as an early step the phosphorylation of crucial components like Lamina or nucleoporins
298
Q

In mammalian cells sheet-like ER
- has usually a constant luminal distance
- is only found as part of the nuclear envelope
- is usually an important part of the so-called rough ER

A
  • has usually a constant luminal distance
  • is usually an important part of the so-called rough ER
299
Q

The constriction observed during fission of chloroplasts in viridiplantae requires
- actin cables in the inter membrane space of the plastids
- dynamin related proteins assembling to a ring in the cytoplasm
- a self-assembling GTPase of bacterial origin at the inner membrane

A
  • dynamin related proteins assembling to a ring in the cytoplasm
  • a self-assembling GTPase of bacterial origin at the inner membrane
300
Q

Vacuoles of the yeast S.cerevisiae are inherited during cytokinesis
- by cleaving them into two equally sized parts
- by partially vesicularization followed by a myosin and actin dependent transport of these vesicles into the new forming daughter cell
- by completely dissolving them into small pieces which are randomly distributed between mother and daughter cell via diffusion

A
  • by partially vesicularization followed by a myosin and actin dependent transport of these vesicles into the new forming daughter cell
301
Q

During cytokinesis
- in metazoan the ESCRT complex usually triggers the plasma membrane fusion as the final step of abscission
- the formation of the cleavage furrow is regularly observed in adult tissues of viridiplantae
- in metazoan the midbody is usually divided between the two daughter cells

A

NONE

302
Q

A polyA-tail usually enhances degradation
- of cytoplasmic mRNA in the yeast S.cerevisiae
- of aberrant pre-tRNA in the nucleus of S.cerevisiae
- of mRNA in E.coli

A
  • of aberrant pre-tRNA in the nucleus of S.cerevisiae
  • of mRNA in E.coli
303
Q

Name two examples of biomolecular condensates involved in RNA metabolism. Where within the cell are they located and in which key process are they involved?

A

Nucleus: Cajal bodies, spliceosomal RNA-modification

Nucleus: Nucleolus, spliceosomal RNA-modification

304
Q

The nonsense mediated decay of mRNA
- is activated, when a termination codon is outside of a permitted distance to a marker on the particular mRNA
- needs always a cleavage by an endonuclease as starting signal
- may use the presence of an Exon joining complex as a marker

A
  • is activated, when a termination codon is outside of a permitted distance to a marker on the particular mRNA
305
Q

tRNA maturation in mammalian nuclei involves
- addition of a CCA to the 3’ end
- processing by RNAseP
- base modification

A
  • addition of a CCA to the 3’ end
  • processing by RNAseP
  • base modification
306
Q

Assign a correct term to the numbers depicted in the schematic drawing representing Hemaglutinin!

A

1 = signal peptide
2 = silica acid binding
3 = clara cleavage
4 = fusion peptide
5 = 6-helix bundle
6 = membrane anchor

307
Q

HIV1-reverse transcription. Are the following statements true?
- Vpg is the primer molecule in reverse transcription of the vRNA into cDNA
- A single vRNA strand contains two LTRs, each consisting of a U3-, R- and U5-region
- RT is a dimeric protein that harbors only one RNase-H domain
- The RNase-H domain of RT is for proof-reading
- Reverse transcription can be inhibited by nucleoside and non-nucleosidic inhibitors
- Provirus integration into the hosts Genome is at the coast of a dinucleotide loss in the U5 region of each of the two LTRs

A
  • A single vRNA strand contains two LTRs, each consisting of a U3-, R- and U5-region
  • RT is a dimeric protein that harbors only one RNase-H domain
  • Reverse transcription can be inhibited by nucleoside and non-nucleosidic inhibitors
308
Q

Ubiquitination of host proteins, evoked by certain viral assessors proteins, is a strategy that certain viruses utilize to, for example, evade the hosts immune system. Which of the following HIV assessors proteins are active in host-protein ubiquitination?
- Rev, regulator of expression of Virion proteins
- Vpu, viral protein out
- Nef, non-evident function
- Vif, viral infectivity factor
- Tat, trans-activator of transcription
- Vpr, viral protein rapid

A
  • Vpu, viral protein out
  • Vif, viral infectivity factor
309
Q

Virus replication - Lückentext

A

Dengue virus genome replication occurs in membrane vesicles which are INVAGINATIONS from the ER membrane. Dengue shows more similarity to RUBELLA VIRUS. Newly formed Dengue visions are transported from the ER to the Golgi apparatus. In the TRANS-GOLGI pre-M is cleaved by FURIN. pre REMAINS BOUND TO E due to the ACIDIC pH until the visions are secreted from the cell.

310
Q

Some viruses have always a lipid envelope (LE), others exist in naked as well as pseudo-enveloped form (PE).
- Hepatitis C virus
- Hepatitis A virus
- Hepatitis B virus
- Hepatitis E virus

A
  • Hepatitis C virus: LE
  • Hepatitis A virus: PE
  • Hepatitis B virus: LE
  • Hepatitis E virus: PE
311
Q

Some viruses have a very narrow (N), others a very broad (B) spectrum of host species.
- Hepatitis C virus
- Yellow Fever virus
- Hepatitis B virus
- Rabies virus

A
  • Hepatitis C virus: N
  • Yellow Fever virus: B
  • Hepatitis B virus: N
  • Rabies virus: B
312
Q

A minority of viruses utilize non-canonical mechanisms in the biogenesis of miRNA molecules. Which of the following statements are true?
- Some viral pre-miRNAs are transcribed by RNA polymerase III
- All viral miRNA precursors are transcribed by RNA polymerase II
- All viral pre-miRNAs are exported into the cytoplasm by exporting 5
- All viral pre-miRNAs are exported into the cytoplasm by exportin-1 (Crm1)
- All viral miRNA precursors are processed by drohst
- All viral pre-miRNAs are processes by dicer

A
  • Some viral pre-miRNAs are transcribed by RNA polymerase III
  • All viral pre-miRNAs are exported into the cytoplasm by exporting 5
  • All viral pre-miRNAs are processes by dicer