Alternative Investments Flashcards

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1
Q

What are common features of alternative investments?

A
Low liquidity
Good diversification
High due diligence costs
Difficult to value
Limited access to information
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2
Q

How can alternative investments be grouped by the role they typically play in a portfolio?

A
  1. Real estate & long-only commodities offer exposure to risk factors and return that stocks and bonds cannot provide.
  2. Hedge funds and managed futures offer exposure to special investment strategies and are heavily dependent on manager skill.
  3. Special strategies and unique asset classes. Private equity and distressed securities are seen as a combination of 1 and 2.
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3
Q

What are the major due diligence checkpoints involved in selecting active managers of alt investments?

A
  1. Market Opportunity – What is it and why is it there? Is the degree of market inefficiency necessary to support a strategy plausible?
  2. Investment Process – Who does this best and what is their edge?
  3. Organization – Are all the pieces of the organization in place?
  4. People – Do we trust the people?
  5. Terms and Structure – Are the terms fair?
  6. Service Providers – Who supports them?
  7. Documents – Read the prospectus, private placement memorandum. Also read the documents.
  8. Write-up – Produce a formal manager recommendation. This ensures organized thought, informs others, and formally documents the process.
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4
Q

What are issues that Alternative Investments raise for Private Wealth Clients?

A
  1. Taxes – Specialized tax expertise may be required.
  2. Suitability -
  3. Communication – Discussing complex strategies is not easy.
  4. Decision risk – Risk of emotionally abandoning a strategy right at the point of maximum loss.
  5. Concentrated positions – Large positions in closely held companies and private real estate should be considered as a preexisting allocation before deciding to add additional private equity or real estate exposure.
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5
Q

What are examples of indirect real estate?

A
Companies that develop and manage real estate.
Real estate investment trusts (REITs)
Commingled real estate funds (CREFs)
Separately managed accounts.
Infrastructure funds.
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6
Q

Discuss the benchmarks for Real Estate. List the name of the Benchmark(s), how they are constructed, and any biases.

A

Benchmarks: NCREIF, NAREIT
Construction: NCREIF is value weighted, NAREIT is cap weighted.
Biases: Measured volatility is downward biased. The values are obtained periodically.

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7
Q

Discuss the benchmarks for Private Equity. List the name of the Benchmark(s), how they are constructed, and any biases.

A

Benchmarks: Provided by Cambridge Associates and Thomson Venture Economics.
Construction: Constructed for buyout and venture capital. Value depnds on events. Often construct custom benchmarks.
Biases: Repricing occurs infrequently which results in dated values.

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8
Q

Discuss the benchmarks for commodities. List the name of the Benchmark(s), how they are constructed, and any biases.

A

Benchmarks: Dow Jones-UBS commodity Index, S&P Commodity Index.
Construction: Assume a futures-based strategy.
Biases: Indices vary widely with respect to purpose, composition, and method of weighting.

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9
Q

Discuss the benchmarks for managed futures. List the name of the Benchmark(s), how they are constructed, and any biases.

A

Benchmarks: MLMI, CTA Indices.
Construction: MLMI replicates the return to a trend-following strategy. CTA Indices use dollar-weighted or equal weighted returns.
Biases: Requires special weighting scheme.

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10
Q

Discuss the benchmarks for distressed securities. List the name of the Benchmark(s), how they are constructed, and any biases.

A

Benchmarks: Characteristics similar to long-only hedge fund benchmarks.
Construction: Weighting equally weighted or based upon assets under management.

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11
Q

What are advantages of direct equity real estate investing?

A

Many expenses are tax deductible.
Ability to use more leverage than most other investments.
Provides more control than stock investing.
Ability to diversify geographically.
Lower volatility of returns than stocks.

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12
Q

What are the disadvantages of direct equity investing?

A
  1. Lack of divisibility means a single investment may be a large part of the investor’s portfolio.
  2. High information cost, high commissions, high operating and maintenance costs, and hands-on management requirements.
  3. Special geographical risks, such as neighborhood deterioration and political risk of changing tax codes.
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13
Q

Who are the major issuers and suppliers of venture capital?

A
  1. Angel investors
  2. Venture capitalist
  3. Large companies (Strategic partners)
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14
Q

What are the stages that a private company typically goes through when dealing with venture capital?

A
  1. Seed.
  2. Startup.
  3. First stage.
  4. Latter stage.
  5. Exit stage/
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15
Q

In contrast to venture capital, buyout funds usually have:

A
  1. A higher level of leverage.
  2. Earlier and steadier cash flows.
  3. Less error in the measurement of returns.
  4. Less frequent losses.
  5. Less upside potential.
    These differences are the natural consequences of buyout funds purchasing entities in later stages of development or established companies.
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16
Q

Why is convertible preferred stock a good vehicle for direct venture capital investment?

A
  1. Preferred stockholders must be paid before common stockholders. Seniority is included to entice subsequent investors and make those preferred shares more valuable than those issued earlier.
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17
Q

Explain the typical structure of a private equity funds

A
  1. Take the form of limited partnerships of limited liability companies (LLCs).
  2. The time line starts with the sponsor getting commitments from investors at the beginning of the fund and then giving “capital calls” over the first five years, which is referred to as the commitment period.
  3. The expected life of the fund is 7-10 years, with an option to extend 5 years.
  4. Compensation: The sponsor has capital invested that earns a return, to align the sponsor’s interest with investors. Management fee 2% and incentive fee of 20%.
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18
Q

Discuss the issues that need to be addressed in formulating a private equity investment.

A

Low liquidity: Allocation should be 5% or less with a plan to keep for 7 to 10 years.
Diversification through a number of positions: Only investors with over $100 million can invest in the 5 to 10 investments needed for diversification.
Diversification strategy: Know how the proposed private equity investments relates to the overall portfolio.
Plan for meeting capital calls: Committed funds are called as needed, and the investor needs to be prepared to meet the calls.

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19
Q

What does direct commodity investment entail?

A

Purchasing actual commodities or gaining exposure via derivatives.

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20
Q

What does indirect commodity investment entail?

A

Purchases of shares in companies that deal in the commodity.

21
Q

What are the pros and cons of direct investment and indirect investment in commodities?

A

Direct investment gives more exposure, but cash investment can incur carrying costs. Indirect investment may be more convenient, but it may provide little exposure to the commodity.

22
Q

What are the components of the return to a commodity futures contract?

A
  1. Spot return.
  2. Collateral return.
  3. Roll return - Backwardation - positive roll Contango - negative roll.
23
Q

What is the commodity spot return?

A

The spot return (price return) is the return on the futures contract caused by the change in the underlying commodity’s spot price.

24
Q

What is the commodity’s collateral return?

A

If an investor is long a contract and invest the value of the futures in T-bills, he will be able to pay for the required purchases as the futures’ maturity. Such a fully-hedged position should earn the risk-free rate.

25
Q

What is the commodity’s roll return?

A

Backwardation produces a downward-sloping term structure of futures prices (i.e., each successive futures price is lower). Such a condition produces a positive roll return, as the futures prices increase to the spot price. If the term structure is positive, which is a result of contango, the roll return is negative.

26
Q

What is the primary determinant of whether a commodity provides a hedge against unexpected inflation.

A

Whether a commodity is storable and whether tge commodity’s demand is linked to economic activity. The value of storable commodities are positively related to unexpected changes in inflation. That is, they tend to increase (decrease) in value with unexpected increases (decreases) in inflation (e.g., precious metals, industrial metals, and energy).

Nonstorable tend to exhibit the opposite behavior. Agricultural commodities (e.g., livestock, wheat, corm) tend to fall into this category.

Additionally, commodities that have more or less constant demand regardless of the level of economic activity seem to provide little hedge against unexpected changes in inflation.

27
Q

What are the 9 more familiar hedge fund strategies?

A
  1. Convertible arbitrage
  2. Distressed securities
  3. Emerging markets
  4. Equity market neutral
  5. Fixed-income arbitrage
  6. Funds of funds
  7. Global macro
  8. hedge equity
  9. Meger arbitrage
28
Q

Explain the convertible arbitrage hedge fund strategy.

A

Convertible arbitrage commonly involves buying undervalued convertible bonds, preferred stock, or warrants, while shorting the underlying stock to create a hedge.

29
Q

Explain the distressed securities hedge fund strategy.

A

Buying distressed securities. Because they are already distress, shorting may be difficult or impossible.

30
Q

Explain the emerging markets hedge fund strategy.

A

Buy emerging markets. Generally only permit long positions. Often there are no derivatives to hedge the investments.

31
Q

Explain the equity market neutral (pairs trading) hedge fund strategy.

A

Combines long and short positions in undervalued and over-valued securities, respectively, to eliminate systematic risk while capitalizing on mispricing.

32
Q

Explain the fixed-income arbitrage hedge fund strategy.

A

Taking long and short positions in fixed-income instruments based upon expected changes in the yield curve and/or credit spreads.

33
Q

Explain the fund of funds hedge fund strategy.

A

A hedge fund that invests in may hedge funds to get diversification.

34
Q

Explain the global macro hedge fund strategy.

A

Global macro strategies take positions in major financial and non-financial markets through various means (e.g., derivatives and currencies), focusing on an entire group of area of investment instead of individual securities.

35
Q

Explain the hedge equity hedge (i.e., equity long-short) fund strategy.

A

Largest hedge fund classification in terms of AUM. These strategies take long and short positions in under- and over-valued securities, respectively. Hedge equity strategies do not focus on balancing the positions to eliminate systematic risk and can range from net long to net short.

36
Q

Explain the merger arbitrage hedge fund strategy.

A

Focuses on returns from mergers, spin-offs, takeovers, and so on.

37
Q

What are the five general segments that hedge fund strategies can be classified as.

A
  1. Relative value strategies
  2. Event-driven strategies
  3. Equity hedge
  4. Global asset allocators
  5. Short selling
38
Q

Explain the relative value strategy classification for hedge funds.

A

Relative value strategies attempt to exploit price discrepancies through various long and short strategies and on the the relative mispricing.

39
Q

Explain the event-driven strategy classification for hedge funds.

A

Invest with a short-term focus on an event like a merger (merger-arbitrage) or the turnaround of a distressed company (distressed securities).

40
Q

Explain the equity hedge strategy classification for hedge funds.

A

Entails taking long and short equity positions with varying overall net long or short positions and can include leverage.

41
Q

Explain the global asset allocators strategy classification for hedge funds.

A

Take long and short positions in a variety of both financial and non-financial assets.

42
Q

Explain the short-selling strategy classification for hedge funds.

A

Takes short only positions in the expectation of a decline in value.

43
Q

What are two popular hedge fund risk measures?

A
  1. Downside deviation

2. Sharpe Ratio

44
Q

What are the limitations of the Sharpe Ratio?

A
  1. Time dependency - Sharpe ratio is biased upwards by a factor of the square of time.
  2. Assumes normality - Hedge funds are using skewed with significant leptokurtosis (fat tails).
  3. Assumes liquidity - illiquid holdings have upward-bias Sharpe ratios.
  4. Assumes uncorrelated returns - returns that are correlated over time will artificially lower the standard deviation.
  5. Stand-alone measure - Does not consider diversification.
45
Q

Describe the trading strategy of managed futures.

A

CTAs that specialize in systematic trading strategies typically apply sets of rules to trade according or contrary to short-, intermediate-, and/or long-term trends.

A discretionary CTA trading strategy generates returns on the managers’ expertise, much like any active portfolio manager.

CTAs can also be classified according to whether they trade in financial markets, currency markets, or diversified markets.

46
Q

What is the primary benefit to managed futures?

A

Superior risk-adjusted performance and diversification. Performance is related to specific strategies and time periods. Private funds seem to add value while publicly traded funds have performed badly.

CTAs exhibit negative correlations with equities.

47
Q

What are the strategies associated with distressed securities?

A

1) Long-only value investing
a) High-yield investing
b) Orphan equities investing
2) Distressed debt arbitrage
a) Short stock, buy debt.
3) Private equity
a) An “active approach”.

48
Q

Describe the risk associated with distressed securities.

A

1) Event risk - return depends on an event for the particular company.
2) Market liquidity risk - low liquidity.
3) Market risk -risk from macroeconomic changes.
4) J-factor - unpredictable nature of bankruptcy judge rulings.