Allergy/Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

If a child presents with symptoms of allergic rhinitis younger than what age, you should probably think of another diagnosis?
What are three treatment options for allergic rhinitis?

A

Younger than three
Intranasal steroids, first line, oral antihistamines, intro, nasal antihistamines

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2
Q

How long should symptoms be present before diagnosing chronic rhinitis?
What are five other differentials to symptoms of chronic rhinitis?

A

At least four weeks
Hayfever, sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, foreign body, nasal polyp, vasomotor rhinitis

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3
Q

Describe visa motor rhinitis
What are four possible triggers?

A

And osier to some causes, blood vessel, dilation, and symptoms of rhinitis.
Emotions, cold wind, change in temperature, pollution, typical environmental allergens are not triggers

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4
Q

Describe the NPV and PPV of skin testing/aeroallergen testing
What is the gold standard for diagnosing a food allergy?

A

NPV is excellent, PPV is good for inhalants, but not for foods
Oral food challenge

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5
Q

What are three contraindications to immunotherapy for allergies?

A

Poorly controlled asthma
Beta blocker use.
History of repeated episodes of anaphylaxis with allergy shots

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6
Q

Is Rast testing for IGE levels affected by taking antihistamines?
In younger children with allergies to eggs, milk, soy, wheat, they will usually outgrow these by what age? 

A

No, it is not
By five years old

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7
Q

What is the minimum amount of time that a child should be observed after an exposure to an allergen?
Should foods be restricted only based on positive IGE RAST testing ?

A

At least two hours since symptoms can continue to evolve for usually up to two hours
No, food allergies are a clinical diagnosis. You must have the history of a reaction to support the diagnosis of a food allergy.

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8
Q

For aeroallergens, what should the next step be if a child is maxed out on antihistamines, montelukast, and nasal steroids
Is there a contraindication to giving contrast in kids with a shellfish allergy?

A

Refer to an allergist
No, there is not, just give it there is no need to retreat

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9
Q

In a patient with a peanut allergy, you do not need to recommend against all legumes, instead recommend avoidance of what?
If a patient has which two things, it is recommended to test for a peanut allergy prior to introduction of peanuts?

A

Tree nuts (hazel, macadamia)
Severe eczema or egg allergies

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10
Q

Children without eczema and those with mild to moderate eczema who do not have any food allergies can try peanut products at what age?
Is a food sensitivity the same as a food allergy?

A

Six months
No

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11
Q

Describe the areas of the body spared in babies with eczema
How is eczema treated?

A

The diaper folds and flexile surfaces
Emollience, topical steroids, and non-steroids like calcineurin inhibitors like tacrolimus and PDE4 inhibitors like crisaborole

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12
Q

Which type of treatment is preferred for the face in a patient with eczema?
what is the most common cause of acuteurticaria lasting longer than one day?
How long does urticaria caused by food allergies last

A

Non-steroidal treatment like calciceurin inhib or PDE4 inhibitors
Viruses.
Starts with one hour and only last for a few hours

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13
Q

If urticaria Is noted as an isolated skin manifestation, do you need to give epinephrine?
In what situation would you need to give it?

A

No, you do not.
If there are other symptoms of anaphylaxis like breathing related symptoms or other systemic symptoms

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14
Q

How long must urticaria be present to be categorized as chronic?
What are five causes of chronic urticaria?

A

More than six weeks
Idiopathic, auto immune diseases, immune complex, mediated processes, like serum, sickness, chronic viral/bacterial/parasite infections, neoplasm

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15
Q

What enzyme is deficient in hereditary angioedema?
How will this present?
Do these patients have pruritis?

A

C1esterace deficiency.
Recurrent episodes of swelling/edema and abdominal pain.
No they do not

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16
Q

Anaphylaxis usually requires how many systems to be affected?
What is the only symptom alone that can be defined as anaphylaxis?
What are the four systems that can be affected?

A

At least two symptoms.
Acute hypotension, presenting hypotonia or syncope.
Skin, respiratory, circulatory, gastrointestinal

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17
Q

Hypertension in anaphylaxis is defined as a drop systolic blood pressure more than what percent?
Which for treatments are given for severe anaphylaxis?
What dilution is epinephrine given in?

A

More than 30%
Epinephrine, antihistamine, IVF, steroids.
1: 1000 dilution

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18
Q

If you are treating anaphylaxis, and the patient is on beta blockers, what do you give to reverse the beta blocker and then give epinephrine again?
What is an anaphylactoid reaction?
What are four exposures that that is associated with?

A

Glucagon
It is a mast cell degranulation, not IGE mediated from exposure.
NSAID, opiates, vancomycin, contrast 

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19
Q

To make the diagnosis of a true milk, protein allergy that is IGE mediated, look for which two things?
What type of formula should be prescribed?

A

Gastrointestinal symptoms, like vomiting, diarrhea, G.I. bleeding and extra intestinal symptoms like eczema or wheezing.
A hydrolyzed formula, not soy

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20
Q

Is food, protein, induced enteropathy IGE mediated?
How does it often present?
Which disease is a part of this group?

A

No, it is not IGE mediated.
Failure to thrive after months of already being on cows, milk formula.
Celiac disease

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21
Q

What are five symptoms of protein induced enteropathy?
Can this occur in breast fed babies?

A

Diarrhea with or without vomiting, malabsorption, anemia, failure to thrive while on formula, but not well on clears or non-whole protein containing formulas
Yes, but only if enough whole protein from the mom’s diet enters the breastmilk

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22
Q

How is food, protein induced enteropathy diagnosed?
If you suspect, celiac disease, what test do you need to get and what do you look for?

A

It is usually a clinical diagnosis.
You get an upper endoscopy and duodenal biopsy looking for villous atrophy

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23
Q

How do you treat food protein induced enteropathy?

A

If Mom is breast-feeding, ask her to stop drinking milk products, if that does not work change to a hydrolyzed formula or amino acid derived formula

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24
Q

Is Food, protein, induced proctitis or colitis IGE mediated?
What is the main findings/symptom in this?
Which group of babies is this most common in?

A

No, it is not IGE mediated.
Blood in the stool.
Most common in breast-fed infants due to cows, milk protein in the mothers diet, usually they appear well other than blood in the stool

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25
Q

What is FPIES?
How long after eating the offending food do symptoms present?
What are the three most common triggers?

A

It is a non-IGE mediated food intolerance in infants, presenting with severe vomiting with or without diarrhea and often leading to lethargy and a shock state
1–3 hours after ingestion
Cows, milk, soy, rice

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26
Q

What is FPIES?
How long after exposure to the offending food do symptoms present
What are the three most common triggers

A

Is a non-IGE mediated food intolerance in infants, presenting with severe vomiting with or without diarrhea, leading to lethargy and a shock like state
1–3 hours
Cows milk, soy, rice

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27
Q

Lactose intolerance is uncommon in children less than what age?
What test can be done to diagnose lactase efficiency?
How is it treated?

A

Five years, if they have symptoms of this suspect a different diagnosis
Hydrogen breath, test.
Give soy milk because it does not contain lactose 

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28
Q

Describe what is not present in the stool of lactose intolerant children?
Do they have vomiting or rash?

A

The store is not malodorous, it does not have food particles.
No, there is no vomiting and no associated rash, if you see this, you should think of an allergy

29
Q

What is the mediator of a type one hypersensitivity reaction?
Type two?
Type three?
Type four?

A

Type one is IGE mediated.
Type two antibody mediated activating B cells
type three immune complex.
Type four T cell mediated

30
Q

What is the classic example of a type four hypersensitivity reaction?
Drug hypersensitivity syndrome present mainly with which three drugs/groups of drugs
What are the four presenting findings/symptoms?

A

Poison ivy
Sulfa drugs, dapsone, aromatic seizure medication’s
Fever, lymphadenopathy, rash, visceral involvement

31
Q

Which three seizure medications are most commonly associated with hypersensitivity syndrome?
This can also evolve into a more serious syndrome like what?

A

Carbamazepine phenobarbital phenytoin
SJS/TEN

32
Q

Describe an IGE mediated medication hypersensitivity
What do you do to treat syphilis and pregnancy if there is a penicillin allergy?

A

Rash with or without shortness of breath, occurring within one hour of the second dose of a medication, not the first
Desensitize the patient and treat with penicillin

33
Q

Which three systems are affected in serum sickness reactions?
These symptoms appear within how long of exposure?
Which, for exposures are most commonly associated with this

A

Joints with arthritis and arthralgia, kidneys with nephritis rash.
1–2 weeks of exposure.
Cefaclor, amoxicillin, minocycline, anti-venom

34
Q

How do you treat serum sickness?
If a patient has poison ivy, oak, sumac in a sensitive area or it is severe, how long do you treat for?

A

Remove the offending agent, use anti-histamines for rash and itching and NSAID for fever
Give oral steroids for 2–3 weeks, short courses can result in a Re flare 

35
Q

What R2 test that can be done to test humoral immunity?
What is the primary test for cellular immunity?
What is a normal result of the intradermal test?

A

Isohemagglutinins and/or serum IgG
Candida delayed type hypersensitivity intradermal test
Greater than 10 mm of induration after 48 hours

36
Q

What R2 test that can be done to test humoral immunity?
What is the primary test for cellular immunity?
What is a normal result of the intradermal test?

A

Isohemagglutinins and/or serum IgG
Candida delayed type hypersensitivity intradermal test
Greater than 10 mm of induration after four hours

37
Q

Define neutropenia in a child less than one year of age and for older children.
There’s a strong association with which finding on the boards that if present likely means there is neutropenia?

A

Less than one year ANC less than 1000, older children, less than 1500
Mucosal ulcerations

38
Q

In Brutons agammaglobulinema, describe if there is present lymphadenopathy/tonsils and PCP pneumonia
In SCID describe the previous two and is there lymphopenia

A

There is no lymphadenopathy and there should not be PCP pneumonia.
There should not be lymphadenopathy in SCID. There may be PCP pneumonia, and there will be lymphopenia 

39
Q

In hyper igm syndrome, is there lymphadenopathy and is PCP pneumonia common?
Is there lymphopenia in DeGeorge syndrome?

A

Lymphadenopathy will be present and PCP pneumonia is possible.
Lymphopenia is present

40
Q

Children with deficiencies in T cell immunity can get recurrent infections by which three pathogens.
You should also look for chronic recurrent ____ infections

A

Viruses, fungi, bacteria.
Recurrent, or chronic Canada infections of the mouth, nails, scalp

41
Q

If an aids or immunocompromise, patient has a negative PPD, which test should you consider for further testing?
Which types of immune cells are deficient in SCID

A

Quantifieron gold
Both b cells and T cells

42
Q

In SCID, which lab test will be severely low?
Do patients with SCID have lymphadenopathy?
If they have a thymus, what treatment is a viable option?

A

Absolute lymphocyte count.
No, they do not have lymphadenopathy because they lack the cells necessary.
A bone marrow transplant

43
Q

At what age and how does SCID present?
A patient who presents with which infection should be considered for SCID?
Can you give SC ID patient’s live vaccines?

A

 3–6 months with otitis media, thrush, diarrhea, dermatitis
PCP pneumonia.
No, you cannot give them live vaccines

44
Q

What is the triad of wiskott aldrich syndrome?
How is it inherited?
Which immunoglobulin is usually low? Which can be high?

A

Small platelets, frequent infections, eczema.
X linked, it only affects males.
IG M is usually low.
IGA can be high

45
Q

A history for a patient with wiskott aldrich Can have which five things
They have the increase risk of what in the third decade of life?
How is it cured?

A

Petechiae, bloody, diarrhea, bloody circumcision, eczema, otitis media
Lymphoma.
Bone marrow transplant

46
Q

How do platelets in ITP differ from WA syndrome?
When you think of low absolute neutrophil count or lymphopenia, you should think of which two types of deficiencies

A

Platelets and ITP are big, they are small in WA
Either T cell or combined disorders 

47
Q

If a patient presents with a murmur and tetany as well as infections, which syndrome should you think of?
Is a bone marrow transplant curative for this syndrome?
Should live vaccines be given to these children?

A

DiGeorge syndrome, from low calcium
No, it is not because there is no thymus to educate new T cells.
No, live vaccines should not be given

48
Q

What is the pneumonic catch 22 for Digeorge syndrome?

A

Cardiac anolamilies
Abnormal facies
Thymic aplasia
Cleft palate
Hypocalcemia

49
Q

What is deficient in ataxia telangiectasia?
These patients will have recurrent pneumonia or sinusitis with a high level of which lab test?
They are at risk of what in the third decade of life due to the combined immunodeficiency

A

 a defect in repair of damage to DNA.
High AFP
Malignancy in the third decade of life

50
Q

What is the defect in CVID?
Because of this, there will be a deficiency in ____
They usually present how?

A

There is a defect in a bee cells and they cannot transform into plasma cells
All immunoglobulin subtypes
Recurrent upper and lower respiratory tract infections, they can also have recurrent herpes and zoster infections

51
Q

How is CVID treated?
What is defective in hyper IgM syndrome?
How do these patients usually present?
At what age do symptoms start?

A

Giving Ig
Due to a missing signal from T cells to B cells, IgM does not get switched to IgG. There is also lymphocytosis and neutropenia.
They present with sinusitis, otitis media, pneumonia with. Haemophilus, nisseria, strep pneumoniae
at about 6 months

52
Q

How is hyper IgM treated?

A

Ivig and bactrim ppx for pcp

53
Q

The pneumonic, some nasty killers have some capsule protection can be used used to remember which encapsulated bacteria

A

Strep pneumo
neisseria
Klebsiella
Haemophilus
Salmonella
Cryptococcus neoformans

54
Q

Children with which two syndrome or especially susceptible to encapsulated bacteria?
If you suspect a bee cell deficiency, how should you test for it?

A

Brutons and Sickle cell
Get titers for something that the child was already immunized against such as tetanus, and this will be low

55
Q

In the cell deficiencies, there are less infections with which two pathogens?
Brutons agammaglobuminemia Is due to a defect in what?
At what age will it present?
Do they have tonsils? Lymph nodes?

A

Viruses and fungi
It is a total absence of B cells, and thus there will be no immunoglobulins.
They present at six months.
They do not have tonsils or they are small and no palpable lymph nodes

56
Q

How can a child with Brutons agammaglobuminemia present
Do these children get PCP pneumonia?
How is it treated and cured?

A

Around six months with a history of many antibiotic courses from infections, likely due to encapsulated organisms also sepsis, meningitis, recurrent pneumonia
No, they do not, if you see this think hyper IgM or SCID
Treat with ivig for life and prophylactic antibiotics, bone marrow transplant is curative

57
Q

How can deficiencies in the compliment system be diagnosed?
What is deficient in the autosomal dominant hyper IGE syndrome?
What are three E’s of this syndrome?
In these patients, eczema usually starts as early as when ?

A

Test for CH 50
Impaired neutrophil, chemotaxis leading to extremely high IGE levels
Eosinophilia, eczema, elevated IGE
As early as the first week of life

58
Q

Patients with hyper IGE syndrome will also have which two pneumonic findings

A

Recurrent cold staph infections/abscess/boils with no surrounding erythema because neutrophils cannot move there, delayed shedding of primary teeth

59
Q

C5 – nine complement deficiency has an unusual predilection toward infections from which bacteria?
How do you prevent these infections in this group?

A

Neisseria infections.
Early men ninja cockle vaccination in the first year of life

60
Q

In cyclic neutropenia that is Autosomal dominant, describe the cycle of neutropenia. It usually does not require treatment, but if the patient has infections, then what can be given at the Nadir of the cycle?
They are prone to which infections and which type of lesions?

A

Neutropenia lasting for about one week every month
GCSF
Clostridium perfringins infections and oral lesions

61
Q

How is chronic granulomatous disease inherited?
If they have which infection they likely have CGD.
Will they have lymphopenia or neutropenia?

A

X linked recessive, only appears in boys
Serratia
No, those will be normal, but this is due to an issue with the functional/oxidative burst mechanism

62
Q

Which five organisms most commonly caused infections in CGD
Which other four presentations can patients with CGD have

A

Aspergillus, Candida, E. coli, staph, serratia
Liver, abscess, osteomyelitis, recurrent lymphadenitis, recurrent skin infections

63
Q

Which five organisms most commonly caused infections in CGD
Which other four presentations can patients with CGD have

A

Aspergillus, Candida, E. coli, staph, serratia
Liver, abscess, osteomyelitis, recurrent lymphadenitis, recurrent skin infections

64
Q

How is CGD diagnosed?
How is this treated?

A

Dihydroehodamine fluorescence followed by nitroblue tetrazolium dye test
Lifelong prophylactic antibiotics, antifungals, and interferon gamma

65
Q

In leukocyte adhesion deficiency, what is the defect?
Which three visible/exam findings can be present

A

There is a defect in neutrophil leaving vascular to get to infected areas.
Black/infected looking cord stump without any pus or inflammation, delayed separation of cord, delayed wound healing

66
Q

Which lab test will be abnormal in leukocyte adhesion deficiency?
How is this diagnosed?
How is it cured?

A

There will be high white blood cell counts and neutrophilia as high as about 20,000 or 100,000 with infections
Rebuck skin window cd11/18 flow cytometry
Bone marrow transplant, they will die by the age of one without this

67
Q

What is the classic triad of chediak higashi syndrome?
How will neutrophil look on microscopy?
They may also have two other findings?

A

Neutropenia, poor neutrophil chemotaxis, platelet dysfunction
They will have giant lysosomal granules.
Oculocutaneous, albinism, frequent skin, and lung infections with staph and strep

68
Q

Skin testing tests for which type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type 4