Allergies Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

a genetically predisposed inflammatory and pruritic allergic skin disease with characteristic clinical features
It is associated most commonly with IgE antibodies to environmental allergens

A

allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

IgE antibodies to environmental allergens

A

allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F: allergies are curable

A

False -but it can be managed and controlled, which is the primary focus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

allergy is usually an _______ diagnosis

A

exclusionary diagnosis
There is no diagnostic test for allergy
-history and response to treatment can provide clues
-logical approach will lead to correct diagnosis and treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 3 causes of allergy

A

1) Flea
2) Atopy - meds/immunotherapy
3) Cutaneous Adverse Reaction to food - food trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

With allergic dermatitis, what lesions are seen

A

-Erythema
-Excoriation
-Lichenificiation
-Alopecia

due to licking, chewing, biting, scratching
commonly on: ears, paws, underarm, groin, underface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common cause of allergic dermatitis in companion animals in the world

A

Flea Bite Hypersensitivity (Ctenocephalides felis)

but the deadlast cause in Colorado

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is sarcptes scabei typically found

A

elbows, pinnae, distal limbs
extreme pruritus
do superficial skin scrape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the distribution seen with allergic dermatitis in cats

A

1) Papulocrustous lesions
-Crusted papules
-Visual and palpable
-often pruritic

2) Balded patches from overgrooming

3) Reaction pattern

4) ECG

5) Indolent ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Balded patches in a cat can be a manifestation of *

A

allergies- overgrooming

1) flea bite hypersensitivity
2) atopy
3) dermatophytosis
4) cheyletiellosis
5) Bacterial pyoderma
6) Demodicosis
7) Pemphigus foliaceus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What might cause a reaction pattern in a cat

A

1) Feline atopy
2) Feline Symmetrical Alopecia (barbering)
3) Miliary Dermatitis
4) Eosinophilic Granuloma Complex (ECG)
-Eosinophilic plaques
-Eosinophilic Granulomas
-Indolent Ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the three syndromes of the Eosinophilic Granuloma Complex in cats

A

-Eosinophilic plaques
-Eosinophilic Granulomas
-Indolent Ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Eosinphilic Granuloma Complex can be responsive to

A

antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where in the US are fleas high in populations

A

the southeast US and also Southern California
*fleas love humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where do fleas typically bite the dog

A

on the caudal dorsum (pant sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the preferred medication for flea eradication

A

Isoxazoline parasiticides
-Bravecto (fluralaner)
-Nexgard (afoxolaner)
-Simparica (Sarolaner)
-Credelio (Lotilaner)

also good against mites and ticks
aim to kill fleas in about 24 hours (eradication) and ticks at about 48 hours (rickettsial prevention) at about 99% flea kill and 90% tick kill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ectoparaciticides aim to kill fleas in about

A

about 24 hours (eradication) and ticks at about 48 hours (rickettsial prevention) at about 99% flea kill and 90% tick kill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Allergic dermatitis cannot be controlled in flea-endemic environmentas without

A

affective flea control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How to do you tell the difference between environmental and food allergy

A

seasonality is a major consideration, however you can have year round environmental allergies

*vomiting is a poor correlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Food allergy is the least common cause of allergies in companion animals and horses, yet why do we place them on a food trial

A

you can change the food but you cannot change the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cutaneous adverse food reaction is a ______ hypersensitivity

A

IgE hypersensitivity (Type I) to food protein, immune mediated

type III/IV are also possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cutaneous adverse food reaction signs mimic environmental allergy, what are the signs

A

1) Pruritus
2) Ear inflammation (otitis)
3) Secondary skin infections (pyoderma)
4) Hives (urticaria) - rare
5) +/- Gi disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the number one cause of otitis

A

allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the food allergens causing the IgE hypersensitivity

A

Glycoproteins 10,000+ daltons
Animal proteins
-Chicken
-Beef
-Dairy
-Fish
-Wheat
-Egg

Dyes/Preservatives are rare - too simple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T/F: you are born with allergies

A

False- you are born with a genetic predisposition to have allergies
this is why the chicken, beef, dairy are all common food allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T/F: there is a food allergy test

A

False- there is no test available that will reliably diagnose allergy, including food

accurate assessment of specific food allergens cannot currently be made with any commercial test

False positives are common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the pathogenesis of food allergy

A

food allergen binds to IgE receptor and internalization
mast cell degranulation and release of prostaglandins, leukotriens, cytokines, and histamine

Type I hypersensitivty (also Type III/IV possible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is an elimination diet for food allergies *

A

8 weeks
strict.
novel/hydrolyzed - renders protein hypoallergenic by making it smaller, harder to bind to IgE

1) novel protein/carbohydrate
2) home-cooked vs commercial
3) Hydrolyzed
4) Avoiding the offending allergens- dietary history

*Remember treats, table foods, flavored medications, chew toys (rawhides)
*No Rawfood or over the counter diets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What should you do for novel diets for food allergy trial

A

home-cooked (gold standard)
commercial prescription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is true of homecooked diets

A

Unbalanced
Compliance is hard
Often two ingredients - protein and carbohydrate
Consult a Nutrtionist
Use online resources (balanceit.com)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

At what age are you more suspicious of food allergies

A

Dogs <1 year of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is true of commercial prescription diets

A

easy
beware cross-reactivity
-growth? if puppy
-expensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does a small protein size (<10,000d) do to prevent food allergies

A

discourages IgE- crosslinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why might animals still flare with hydrolyzed diets

A

because they arent novel

avoid commonly-fed hydrosates?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T/F: over the counter diets should not be used in restrictive dietary trials

A

True0 occult proteins were found in a variety of OTC wet, dry and raw diets

36
Q

If within 8 weeks of a restrictive dietary trial you had decreased pruritus/inflammation, what should you do?

A

Dietary re-challenge
-Feed the previous diet
-Cutaneous Adverse food reaction patients will flare within two weeks (usually sooner)
this is to make sure that the season didnt change over the past 2 months of the food trial

-if they do not flare within 2 weeks, its likely environment
-if they flare within 2 weeks, its food allergy and keep them on the diet for their life

37
Q

If fleas are killed and no response to diet trial, what should you do

A

Diagnose Atopy Dermatitis

38
Q

Dont use allergy test for diagnosis of allergy, use it for the

A

formulation of immunotherapeutics (only works for environmental)

39
Q

What is the tradename of Oclacitinib

A

Apoquel

40
Q

What is the average age for allergies to present in dogs

A

1-3 years of age

41
Q

Apoquel (oclacitinib) works by

A

Tmax <1hr (onset 2-4 hours)
half life is 4.1 hr

42
Q

Why is Apoquel (oclacitinib) used in dogs over one year of age

A

because one of its adverse effects is demodicosis, which young dogs have a higher prevalence in

43
Q

What is the efficacy of Apoquel (oclacitinib)

A

67% of dogs

44
Q

What are the adverse effects of Apoquel (oclacitinib)

A

Demodicosis
Papillomatosis

45
Q

Does Apoquel (oclacitinib) cause neoplasia?

A

No- only correlation because apoquel is the #1 allergy medication

46
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Apoquel (oclacitinib)

A

JAK1-STAT inhibitor - prevents cytokine release and signaling of
-IL2- T cell proliferation
-IL4- Th2 response (eosinophils, basophils, mast cells)
-IL6- Stimulation of acute phase response
-IL13- igE stimulation (asthma)
-IL31- pruritic mediator

47
Q

What is the pruritic mediator that Apoquel (oclacitinib) blocks

A

IL-31

48
Q

Why do patients on Apoquel (oclacitinib) have a predisposition for demodex

A

blocks the parasite pathway (2,4,6,13,31)
-IL2- T cell proliferation
-IL4- Th2 response (eosinophils, basophils, mast cells)
-IL6- Stimulation of acute phase response
-IL13- igE stimulation (asthma)
-IL31- pruritic mediator

49
Q

What should you do for the 1/3 of patients that do not respond to Apoquel (oclactinib)

A

-Twice daily apoquel? - 88% efficacy
-Antihistamines
-Steroids
-Cytokine (lokivetmab)
-Atopica (modified cyclosporine)
-Allergy testing/immunotherapy

50
Q

Dosing Apoquel (oclactinib) BID can potentially cause

A

inhibition of innate immune function (JAK 2)
1) GM-CSF: leukocyte growth factor
2) EPO- erythrocyte stimulation hormone

51
Q

What is the problem with anti-histamines

A

low efficacy- about 20%
possible placebo?

52
Q

Why are antihistamines commonly used in horses, despite low efficacy

A

used due to cost primarily but still poor efficacy

in horses: insects >atopy > food

-Hydroxyzine, Doxepin, Cetirizine, Chlorpheniramine, Diphenhydramine

53
Q

What are the common causes of allergies in horses

A

Insects > Atopy > food

54
Q

What are the different steroids used to manage allergies

A

Prednisone 0.5-1 mg/kg q24h
Methylprednisone
Dexamethasone
Triamcinolone (acetate)
Depomedrol

55
Q

What is calcinosis cutis associated with

A

iatrogenic or metabolic hypercortisolism

56
Q

T/F: calcinosis cutis is reversible

A

true- except for osteoma cutis

57
Q

How do you diagnose calcinosis cutis

A

biopsy

58
Q

How do you treat calcinosis cutis

A

withdraw steroid
topical DMSO?
minocycline 15mg/kg BID (case report)

resolution takes months

59
Q

calcinosis cutis can cause secondary

A

infection and pruritus

60
Q

caninized monoclonal antibody against IL-31 used to treat canine allergies

A

Cytopoint (lokivetmab)

61
Q

T/F: Cytopoint (lokivetmab) has an age requirement of >1year

A

False - no age requirement

62
Q

What is the onset of Cytopoint (lokivetmab)

A

8 hours (half life of 9 days?)

63
Q

TF: Cytopoint (lokivetmab) can be used in cats

A

False- it is caninized monoclonal antibody against IL-31

64
Q

What is the efficacy of Cytopoint (lokivetmab)

A

87% of dogs

65
Q

What are the adverse effects of Cytopoint (lokivetmab)

A

unsure- possible:
-vomiting?
-immunogenicity?
-drug interactions?
-long-term safety?

least amount of adverse effects of 4 allergy meds

66
Q

Calcineurin inhibitor used to manage allergies

A

Atopica (modified cyclosporine)

67
Q

T/F: you can combine apoquel with cytopoint after monotherapeutic failures

A

True

68
Q

What is the onset of Atopica (modified cyclosporine)

A

4-6 weeks
tmax 90min

69
Q

What is the efficacy of Atopica (modified cyclosporine)

A

74% dogs
78.6% cats

70
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Atopica (modified cyclosporine)

A

inhibits calcineurin, specifically T cell function- blocking
IL2, IL4, IFN (macrophage activator), and TNF-a (early immune activation)

71
Q

What are the indications to use Atopica (modified cyclosporine)

A

Atopic dermatitis
Lupoid disease
Pemphigus variants
Cutaneous vascultitis
Sterile pyogranulomatous dermatitis
Sterile panniculitis
Perianal fistulas
Sebaceous adenitis

72
Q

Of Apoquel, Cytopoint, and Atopica what is most likely to cause opportunistic infections

A

Atopica - global cytokine inhibitor

fungal (saprophytic)
UTI
papillomatosis, fibropapillomas
Demodicsosi
toxoplasma, herpes (cats)
Psioriasiform lichenoid dermatosis
digital pododermatitis

73
Q

What are the dose related adverse effects of Atopica (modified cyclosporine)

A

Vomiting
Diarrhea
Gingival hyperplasia
Hyperglycemia?
Opportunistic infection
Hypertrichosis, shedding
Tremors
Psioasiform lichenoid dermatosis
Pruritus
Neoplasia

74
Q

Why might you put Atopica (modified cyclosporine) in the freezer?

A

Reduces vomiting???

75
Q

What drug might cause gingival hyperplasia

A

Atopica (cyclosporine)
Amlodipine

76
Q

Is long-term use of Atopica (modified cyclosporine) or Steroids safer

A

Atopica (modified cyclosporine)

77
Q

How should you give Atopica (modified cyclosporine)

A

-Frozen (off-label)
-With food (off-label)
-if vomiting, wait

if no response in 4-6 weeks, increase the dose
if effective decrease to EOD

78
Q

How is the dose ketoconazole affect Atopica (modified cyclosporine) dosing

A

it reduces the dose and therefore the cost but remember that ketoconazole can cause hepatopathy and hair lightening

79
Q

How effective is allergy testing/immunotherapy

A

60-70% efficacy

80
Q

allergy testing/immunotherapy efficacy is acheieved in

A

6-12 months

81
Q

What is the most common environmental allergens in CO ***

A

grasses, trees, weeds

82
Q

What is the only treatment known to treat primary allergy disease

A

immunotherapy

83
Q

immunotherapy only works for what allergies

A

environmental- also the only non-drug option for environmental allergies

84
Q

T/F: allergy testing is a diagnostic test

A

False- you have patients without allergies getting positive skin test

this is just made to make the recipe for immunotherapy

85
Q

Allergy is the #1 cause of

A

secondary infectious pyoderma

86
Q

Whats the way to go for horses with environmental allergies

A

immunotherapy