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IDC CORE ADMIN > All Sections > Flashcards

All Sections Flashcards

1
Q

Current Death Program

A

Operational on a worldwide basis during peacetime and may continue to exist in an
area of conflict during major military operations depending on the tactical situation
and logistical support capability

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2
Q

Graves Registration Program

A

Operational when authorized by the responsible commander during major military
operations (wartime usually).
Search, recovery and evacuation (to a temporary cemetery/mortuary due to tactical
situation and logistic capability).

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3
Q

Concurrent Return Program

A

Combines Current Death Program and Graves Registration into one program.
Originates as Graves Registration in the search and recovery
Switches to current death for identification, preparation of remains and shipment

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4
Q

Return of Remains Program

A

(a) Activated upon special legislation of Congress to achieve the following:
1) Provides for permanent disposition of remains buried in temporary cemeteries
that could not be evacuated under the Concurrent Return Program.
2) Can authorize the establishment of one or more permanent American cemeteries
in the overseas area,

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5
Q

who can be a Casualty Assistance Calls officer (CACO)

A

an

active duty commissioned officer or a well-qualified senior enlisted member

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6
Q

The first call should be made to the NOK within

A

24 hours of death

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7
Q

The CACO
helps the PNOK and SNOK with problems surrounding the death and provides
information on such matters as

A

1) Disposition of remains
2) Death gratuity and unpaid pay and allowances
3) Personal effects of deceased
4) Settlement of decedent’s estate
5) Servicemen’s Group Life Insurance (SGLI)
6) Applications for Veterans Administration survivor’s benefits, dependency and
indemnity compensation or pension, social security benefits, etc
7) Shipment of household items
8) Travel of dependents to grave site and to permanent residence

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8
Q

Decedent Affairs Program

A

BUMEDINST 5360.1 series

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9
Q

Decedent Affairs Program Objectives

A

(1) Immediate recovery and identification of deceased personnel.
(2) High standards of and uniformity in services provided.
(3) Minimum elapsed time between death and delivery of remains or cremains to the
primary next of kin (PNOK).
(4) Prompt notification to the PNOK and secondary next of kin (SNOK) concerning matters
applicable to the Decedent Affairs Program.

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10
Q

command responsible for the Decedent Affairs Program

A

Commander, Naval Medical Command And Commandant Of The Marine Corps

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11
Q

Casualty Assistance Calls Program Responsible Officials

A

flow from the Chief of Naval Personnel

through the Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command.

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12
Q

Administration and coordination of Decedent Affairs Program functions

A

Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command acts as program coordinating
authority providing centralized direction and technical support.

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13
Q

officials responsible for directing the disposition of unidentified remains

A

Commander, Naval Medical Command (MEDCOM-332)

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14
Q

Primary Expenses

A

1) Recovery
2) Preparation
3) Encasement of remains

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15
Q

Secondary Expenses

A

Expenses incurred in connection with the funeral and burial of remains

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16
Q

STATE the authority who may grant an extension for the escort past the allotted time

A

commanding officer of that activity for coordination with member’s commanding
officer and the appropriate PSD office

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17
Q

MILPERSMAN 1770-010

A

Personnel Casualty Reporting Requirements

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18
Q

BUMEDINST 5360.1 SERIES

A

Decedent Affairs Manual

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19
Q

OPNAVINST 1770.1

A

Casualty Assistance Calls and Funeral Honors Support

(CAC/FHS) Program Coordination

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20
Q

Temperature range

A

36-40 degrees Fahrenheit

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21
Q

Notification to Next of Kin during Search Operations

A

be advised of

progress at least daily.

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22
Q

Uniform provided to Naval personnel for Burial

A

(1) The Service Dress Blue uniform:
(a) Cap if requested
(b) Shoes if requested
(c) Underwear and hose
(d) Insignia, devices, badges and decorations as authorized the deceased will be
provided.

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23
Q

How many holes are put into a casket and what size

A 
1) A minimum of 20 holes, 2 inches diameter is placed in the casket to permit rapid
entry of seawater.
a) 8 in base
b) 4 in each half of the lid
c) 2 in each end
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24
Q

Casket must be banded with

A

5 nylon bands of not less than 3/4 inch width to prevent
the divided lid from opening.
1) 2 in each half of the lid
2) 1 lengthwise from top to base

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25
Q

Committal at sea of remains shall be conducted outside

A

3-mile limit of the

continental shelf

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26
Q

Committal at sea of remains shall be at depths greater than

A

100 fathoms (600 feet).

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27
Q

DD Form 2064

A

Certificate of Death

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28
Q

Certificate of Death Section I

A

Biographical Data

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29
Q

the DD Form 2064 must have ___ from the medical officer

A

1) Name of Medical Officer
2) Title or Degree of medical officer
3) Grade of medical officer
4) Installation or address of medical officer
5) Date signed
6) Signature of medical officer.

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30
Q

Certificate of Death, DD Form 2064 Section I

A

Biographical Data

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31
Q

Certificate of Death, DD Form 2064 Section 2

A

Medical Statement

medical officer info

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32
Q

Certificate of Death, DD Form 2064 Section 3

A

Disposition of Remains

filled out by mortician

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33
Q

Certificate of Death, DD Form 2064 Section 4

A

Registration of Vital Statistics

Filled out by registry

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34
Q

OPNAVINST 6000.1

A

Management of Pregnant Servicewomen

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35
Q

LIST the responsibilities of the Commanding Officer to the pregnant service
woman.

A

(a) Must assure that the pregnant servicewoman retains a high degree of
commitment to fulfill professional responsibilities.
(b) Ensure no preferential treatment shall be given because of pregnancystatus.
(c) Not harassed

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36
Q

NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.3

A

Medical and Dental Care for

Eligible Persons

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37
Q

Navy policy of worldwide assignment to include appointing a

guardian

A

(OPNAVINST 1740.4E).

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38
Q

General limitations of the Pregnant service woman

A

(b) Physical readiness testing during pregnancy and for 6 months following
convalescent leave.
(c) Exposure to chemical or toxic agents and/or environmental hazards
(d) Standing at parade rest or attention for longer than 15 minutes.
(e) Exempt from all routine immunizations, with the exception of the annual
flu shot, tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap) vaccine.

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39
Q

During the last three months of pregnancy (weeks 28 and beyond), PSW is

A

1) Allowed to rest 20 minutes every four hours
2) Limited to 40-hour workweek (over 7 days, not 5) including watch
standing

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40
Q

PSW Eligible for overseas transfer if

A

1) Has not reached 28th week
2) Adequate obstetrical facilities are available
3) Does not intend to place infant for adoption
4) Base/alternate housing available

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41
Q

PSW Cannot fly after

A

28th week

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42
Q

Operational commands should contact _________ for

reassignment immediately upon receipt of pregnancy

A

COMNAVPERSCOM

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43
Q

PSW May continue to serve aboard a ship until the

A

20th week of pregnancy,
while in port, or during short underway periods, provided an evacuation
capability exists and the time for MEDEVAC is less than 6 hours.

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44
Q

Pregnancy is considered ________ for designated flight status
personnel

A

disqualifying

45
Q

The maternity uniform is mandatory for all pregnant service women in
the Navy when

A

regular uniforms no longer fit

46
Q

Post delivery convalescent leave of

A

12 weeks will normally be granted

by the servicewoman’s C.O

47
Q

DOD funds are not available for elective termination of pregnancy except

A

where the life of the mother would be endangered

48
Q

Occupational Health Professional Responsibilities

A

Provide consultation to C.O.’s to assist them in fulfilling their professional
responsibilities to provide a safe and healthy workplace for the pregnant
servicewoman and her unborn child.

49
Q

Naval Environmental Health Center

A

Will develop a list of potential reproductive hazards annually and provide
guidance on generic reproductive hazards

50
Q

Industrial hygienists

A

evaluate the presence of shipboard

reproductive hazards

51
Q

Occupational health professionals are available to provide guidance and
counseling on

A

(a) Pre-pregnancy and prevention

(b) Early pregnancy and risk management

52
Q

Pregnant Service Woman Health Care Responsibilities

A

(1) Planning her pregnancy to allow her to meet both her family and military obligation.
(2) Seeking confirmation of pregnancy at a military medical treatment facility

53
Q

Pregnant Service Woman Duty Performance Responsibilities

A

(1) Notifying her commanding officer or officer in charge of her pregnancy.
(2) Performing her military duties within the limits established by hercondition

54
Q

Suitability Screening Program

A

BUMEDINST 1300.2 series

55
Q

purpose of the Suitability Screening Program

A

Determine suitability for overseas, remote or operational assignments by identifying
“special needs”.
Decrease early returns, expenditure of funds and billet gaps

56
Q

Reasonable travel time is

A

two hours of one way surface travel

57
Q

DD Form 2808

A

Report of Medical Examination

58
Q

DD Form 2807-1

A

Report of Medical History

59
Q

NAVMED 1300/1

A

Medical, Dental and Educational Suitability Screening

for Service and Family Members.

60
Q

NAVPERS 1300/16

A

Report of Suitability for Overseas

Assignment

61
Q

who owns the screening process

A

Unit Commanding Officers of the transferring command owns the screening process
and makes the suitability determination

62
Q

service member has ___ days to complete the screening process

A

30

63
Q

OPNAVINST 1300.14D

A

Suitability Screening for Overseas and Remote Duty

Assignment.

64
Q

Gaining MTF assesses local resources and replies to screening MTF within

A

7

working days.

65
Q

MTF CO/OIC provides recommendation

A

to transferring command on NAVPERS

1300/16 Part II.

66
Q

Screening is now required subsequent to periods

A

LIMDU or finding of “fit for

continued Naval service”

67
Q

The primary purpose of the EFM Program is to

A

assist service members in providing for
the special needs of their EFM before, during, and after relocation required by change
of duty assignments.

68
Q

Enrollment in the EFM program is

A

mandatory

69
Q

EFM is a mandatory program governed by

A

OPNAVINST 1754.2C

70
Q

Public Law 94-142

A

“Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975”

71
Q

Public Law 95-561

A

Defense Dependents’ Education Act

72
Q

Public Law 102-119

A

Individuals with Disabilities Education Act Amendments

73
Q

DODINST 1342.12 Series

A

Education Of Handicapped Children In The DOD

Dependent Schools

74
Q

DODINST 1010.13

A

Military Personnel Drug And Abuse Testing Program

75
Q

enrollment criteria of the Exceptional Family Member

A

(1) Family member with long term or chronic medical, psychological, or educational needs.
(2) Enrolled in DEERS.
(3) Resides with sponsor.
(a) Exception: Geo-Bachelor

76
Q

Categories of EFM Program Level I

A

EFM enrollees are those whose medical or educational condition requires
monitoring by the EFM Program Manager but does not preclude the sponsor’s
assignment

77
Q

Categories of EFM Program Level II

A

EFM enrollees are those whose medical or educational condition requires special
placement in compatible geographic areas, pinpointing assignments in CONUS or
overseas.

78
Q

Categories of EFM Program Level III

A

EFM enrollees are exempt from overseas assignment

79
Q

Categories of EFM Program Level IV

A

EFM enrollees require sponsor assignment near major medical facility (either
military or civilian).

80
Q

Categories of EFM Program Level V

A

Homesteading will provide for long term retention of the sponsor and his/her family
in an approved area to benefit the EFM enrollee by creating a stable environment for
procurement of medical and educational benefits

81
Q

Categories of EFM Program Level VI

A

Enrollees require sponsor to enroll temporarily for a period of 6 months but no more
than one year while treatment or diagnostic assessments are ongoing

82
Q

EFM Recommendations are forwarded to

A

Chief, Navy Personnel Command (CNPC) for final

disposition.

83
Q

responsibilities of BUMED with regards to the EFMP

A

Maintain CSC/EFM Developmental Centers, composed of multi-disciplinary
specialties, at major fleet concentration sites
Identify an EFM coordinator at each Navy MTF

84
Q

responsibilities of the Command with regards to the EFMP

A

Commanders, Commanding Officers, and Officers in Charge (OIC) Appoint an EFM point of contact (POC).

85
Q

responsibilities of the MTF Coordinator

A

Serve as command point of contact (POC).

86
Q

responsibilities of the Service Member with regards to the EFMP

A

Update file every 3 years, 12 months prior to receiving orders, or as family needs
change.

87
Q

Disenroll from EFM Program and inform EFM Program Manager (PERS-45) through
Commanding Officer when

A

(a) Previously enrolled EFM has sufficiently recovered from impairment so that
specialized medical care and/or special educational services are no longer required.
(b) Divorced or legally separated.
(c) EFM dies.
(d) EFM no longer resides in home, or is no longer DEERS eligible

88
Q

DD Form 2992

A

MEDICAL RECOMMENDATION FOR FLYING OR SPECIAL OPERATIONAL DUTY

89
Q 
The purpose of the DD Form 2992 Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special
Operations Duty (Aeromedical)
A

is to notify the commanding officer or officer in charge
and other designated individuals that the named aircrew member is no longer medically
recommended for flying duties

90
Q

Who may issue an Aeromedical Grounding Notice

A

All medical department personnel (corpsmen, Nurse Corps officers, etc.) are
authorized to issue an Aeromedical Grounding Notice.

91
Q

When issuing “Down Chits”, an original and two (2) copies are made

A

(a) The original goes to the Commanding Officer or Officer in Charge
(b) First copy goes to the Operations Officer
(c) Second copy is for the Training Officer

92
Q

All personnel engaged in duties involving flying and all candidates for such
duty, must conform to the physical standards of the

A

anual of

the Medical Department (MANMED), Chapter 15.

93
Q

BUMEDINST 6410.9

A

Medical Monitoring Flight Personnel in Locations

where Flight Surgeons are not Available

94
Q

OPNAVINST 3710.7T

A

NATOPS General Flight and Operating Instructions,

Chapter 8, Aeromedical and Surviva

95
Q

When issuing “Up Chits”, an original and two (2) copies are made

A

(a) The original goes to the Commanding Officer or Officer in Charge
(b) First copy goes to the Operations Officer
(c) Second copy goes to the Training Officer

96
Q

Completed physical examinations shall be filed in sequence with other periodic
examinations and a copy kept on file

A

for 3 years

97
Q

aviation mishap Label each photograph as soon as possible with

A

name, SSN, rank, date of incident

98
Q

Chronological Account of Activities of Previous

A

72 Hours

99
Q

The IDC must collect laboratory specimens from the survivors to be used by the
investigation. The following is a list of the specimens required

A

1) 2 gray top tubes
2) 2 purple top tubes
3) 3 red top tubes
4) Urine sample (at least 70-75cc)

100
Q

All samples are to be labeled with the following information

A

1) Patient’s name
2) Rank/Rate
3) SSN
4) Unit
5) Date/Time of collection
6) Test(s) to be performed

101
Q

Aspirin

A

Affects the regulation of body temperature by acting on the hypothalamus

102
Q

Nasal Decongestants

A

Insomnia, Fatigue, Headaches, Diarrhea

103
Q

Cough Drops

A

Depression of the CNS (Central Nervous System) with high doses

104
Q

Petroleum Jelly-based Products

A

Becomes crusty when exposed to 100% O2

105
Q

Aviation personnel on approved antibiotics may be considered for an up chit prior to
the completion of the course of therapy as long as

A

the condition being treated has

resolved in all significant aspects with no adverse reaction

106
Q

CLASS 1: Aviation Personnel

A

Engaged in the Actual Control of Aircraft

107
Q

CLASS 2: Aviation Personnel

A

not engaged in Actual Control of Aircraft,

108
Q

Expiration Date of Clearance

A

the last day of the Member’s Birth

Month

IDC CORE ADMIN (4 decks)

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