Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RESIT REVISION SECOND YEAR > All revision > Flashcards

All revision Flashcards

1
Q

Presentation of flashes/floaters and spider webs.
Visual changes in left eye
Darkening of peripheral vision
No pain nor trauma

A

Retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Risk factors for primary open-angle glaucoma?

A 
Family history 
Afro-carribbean ethnicity 
Myopia 
HyperT
Diabetes mellitus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lisch nodules are an eye characteristic of which inherited condition?

A

Neurofibromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mechanism of action of dorzolamide?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

New-onset inability to see near objects
Red patches on fundoscopy
PMH = life-long smoker and hyperT

A

Wet ARMD

Management = anti-VEGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Description of an ointment

A

Semi-solid grease (oil) with a high lipid content and no preservatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Description of a gel

A

Semi-solid thickened aqueous solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are Blaschko’s lines?

A

Lines that the embryological development of skin follow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where are melanocytes derived from?

A

the neural crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Function of keratinocytes

A

Produce keratin
Synthesis of vit D
Immune function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Breslow thickness?

A

the depth from the granular layer of the epidermis to the deepest melanoma cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Atopic triad

Name them now.

A

Asthma
Eczema
Hayfever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which types of HPV is found in warts and verrucas

A

1-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what do appocrine glands do?

A

scent glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what do eccrine glands do?

A

provide moisture to palms and soles fro grip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which enzyme is deficient in erythropoietic protoporphria?

A

Ferrochelatane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which enzyme is deficient in acute intermittent poryphoria?

A

PBG deaminase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How long does it take for cells to migrate from the basal to keratin layer of the epidermis?

A

28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What mediates type ii and type iii hypersensitivity reactions?

A

IgM and IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what mediates type iv hypersensitivity reactions?

A

TH1 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

are topical steroids lypophillic?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the role of sebaceous glands?

A

maintain skin barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

name the contents of the dermis

A 
collagen
elastin 
ground substance
fibroblasts 
lymphocytes 
macrophages
Langerhans cells 
mast cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

management ladder for psoriasis?

A 
emollients 
vit d analogues (calcitrol)
Dithranol 
coal tar 
steroids (mild) 
salicylate 
photodynamic therapy 
immunotherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is bullous pemphigoid?

A

Autoimmune condition
Antibodies produced against hemi-desmosomes that are involved in the DEJ.

Formation of sub-epidermal blisters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Autoimmune condition
Autoantibodies produced against desmoglein 3.

Loss of adhesion and splitting within the epidermis and loss of desmosomes.
Intra-epidermal blisters and acantholysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Antibody involved in dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

Anti-TTG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Name 2 prandial insulin analogues.

A

Novorapid
Humalog

Peak at 60-90 mins and last 4-5 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Name 2 soluble prandial insulins.

A

Humulin S
Actarapid

Peak at 2-4 hours and last 5-8 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Name 2 analogue basal insulins

A

Lantus

Levemir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which pro-inflammatory mediator stimulates acute inflammation?

A

TNF alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is C3b?

A

An opsonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which type of immunological cell is involved in acute inflammation?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How long after primary contact with an antigen are specific antibodies readily detectable in serum?

A

5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which type of cell secrete antibodies?

A

Plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the basic antibody unit composed of?

A

2 identical heavy chains

2 identical light chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which cell expresses CD8+?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

Kill virally infected body cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do B cells express before switching class?

A

IgM and IgD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is an opsonin?

A

Extracellular protein that binds to cells and induce phagocytes to phagocytose the cells with the opsonins bound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What do helper T cells produce?

A

CD4+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where do leukocytes develop?

A

Primary lymphoid tissue

Red bone marrow and thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the most abundant immunoglobulin?

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which immunoglobulin is found in breast milk, saliva and mucosal secretions?

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the two ways in which B cells can differentiate?

A

Become plasma cells which produce antibodies

Become memory B cells - immunological memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What condition is characterised by 47 XXY?

A

Klinefelter syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the chromosomal make-up of Turner syndrome?

A

45X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Signs and symptoms of Klinefelter’s syndrome.

A 
Infertility 
Small, firm testes 
Frontal baldness absent 
Fewer chest hairs 
Female pubic hair pattern
Long arms + legs 
Poor beard growth 
Anxiety + depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How is Klinefelter’s syndrome diagnosed?

A

Karyotyping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Symptoms and signs of Kallmann’s syndrome

A 
Small male sexual organs 
Decreased body hair 
High pitched voice 
Low libido 
Gynaecomastia 
Tall, slim, long arms + legs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Diagnosis of Kallmann’s syndrome?

A

MRI of pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which type of thyroid cancer produces calcitonin?

A

Medullary

cancer of C cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which medication should be used in Grave’s disease to help control symptoms while awaiting endocrinologist appt.?

A

Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which diabetic medication is contraindicated in heart failure?

A

Pioglitazone

causes fluid retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Management of thyrotoxicosis and a tender goitre?

A

Naproxen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the appropriate insulin fluid regime for a patient presenting with diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

IV insulin 0.1 unit/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Low dexamethasone test does not suppress cortisol levels but a high dexamethasone test does.
Where in the body is the problem?

A

Pituitary

Cushing’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Both a low and high dexamethasone test do not suppress cortisol levels.
What are the potential causes?

A

Ectopic ACTH production from a tumour (e.g. lung)

Adrenal adenoma

Corticosteroid therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is first line management for a prolactinoma?

A

Cabergoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Causes of tinnitus

A

Hearing loss
Noise damage
Ageing
Medication use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which type of epithelium is found in a cholesteatoma?

A

Keratinising squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Symptoms of cholesteatoma

A 
Foul smelling discharge 
White mass behind intact tympanic membrane 
Hearing loss 
Resistance to antibiotics 
Attic crust in retraction pocket
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which diseases can put you at risk of developing a cholesteatoma?

A

Down’s syndrome

Turner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Definitive treatment of cholesteatoma

A

Surgery (mastoidectomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which type of hearing loss does a vestibular neuroma result in?

A

Unilateral Sensorineural hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Symptoms of vestibular Schwannoma/acoustic neuroma

A 
Asymmetrical hearing loss 
Facial numbness 
Progressive episodes of dizziness 
Tinnitus 
Difficulty localising sounds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which nerve is affected in vestibular schwannoma

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which disease increases risk of vestibular Schwannoma?

A

Neurofibromatosis type 2

Autosomal dom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Diagnosis of vestibular Schwannoma

A

Audiogram - sensorineural hearing loss
Gadolinium enhanced MRI scan of head
CT head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the pathophysiology behind BPPV?

A

Otolith material floating into the vestibular canals and stimulating hair follicles during certain movements.
Duration = 30 secs to 1 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How is BPPV diagnosed?

A

Dix-Hallpike manouvre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How is BPPV managed?

A

Epsley Manouvre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What does an audiogram in BPPV show?

A

NORMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which test is positive in Ménière’s disease?

A

Romberg’s test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the treatment for Ménière’s disease?

A

Low salt diet
Diuretics
Anti-emetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the difference between viral and bacterial labyrinthitis?

A

Viral (serous) = inflammation of the labyrinth only and usually presents with less severe hearing loss and vertigo

Bacterial (suppurative) = direct microbial invasion of the inner ear and usually presents with severe to profound hearing loss and vertigo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which bacteria most commonly cause acute otitis media?

A

Strep. Pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis
Strep. Pyrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Treatment for acute otitis media?

A

Watch and wait for 4 days
Amoxicillin
Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How is glue ear diagnosed?

A

Otoscopy - shows TM retraction, middle ear fluid bubbles
Tuning fork tests - conductive hearing loss
Audiometry - conductive hearing loss
Tympanometry - type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which bacterias cause otitis externa?

A

Staph. Aureus
Proteus spp.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Management of otitis externa

A

Aural toilet and debridement
Topical antimicrobial drops (Ciprofloxacin) if bacterial
Acitic acid/clottimazole if fungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Diagnosis for nasal trauma

A

Review in ENT clinic after 5-7 days post-injury

Exam immediately or after 5-7 days to avoid swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which artery is most likely to cause epistaxis?

A

Anterior Ethmoidal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Name some causes of nasal polyps

A

Churgg strauss syndrome

Non-allergic asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Treatment for nasal polyps

A

MILD
Intranasal corticosteroid with leukotrine receptor antagonist
Surgical polypectomy

SEVERE
Short course oral corticosteroid with leukotrine receptor antagonist
Surgical polypectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Name the two non-allergic rhinitis’s

A

Vasomotor rhinitis

Non-allergic rhinitis with eosinophilia syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How is non-allergic rhinitis diagnosed?

A

Allergic skin prick tests = negative
Serological specific IgE tests = negative
Nasal eosinophil smear = positive

87
Q

What is seen on an x-ray displaying osteoarthritis?

A

Loss of joint space
Osteophytes
Subchondral sclerosis
Subchondral cysts

88
Q

What is seen on an x-ray displaying rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Loss of joint space
Erosions
Soft tissue swelling
Soft bones

89
Q

what is an early sign of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

juxta-articular osteopenia

90
Q

difference between acute viral and acute bacterial sinusitis?

A

acute viral = < 10 days

acute bacterial = > 10 days but < 4 weeks

91
Q

How is acute bacterial sinusitis treated?

A

Watchful waiting for 10 days and then antibiotics (amoxicillin)

92
Q

what is chronic sinusitis?

A

Inflammation of the paranasal sinuses lasting > 12 weeks

93
Q

two categories of chronic sinusitis?

A

With polyps

Without polyps

94
Q

Which pathway is blocked in chronic sinusitis?

A

Osteomeatal complex

95
Q

How can chronic sinusitis be diagnosed?

A 
Anterior rhinoscopy 
Nasal endoscopy 
Sinus CT 
Sinus MRI 
Nasal/sinus cultures
Allergy testing
96
Q

How is chronic sinusitis treated?

A

1st line = amoxicillin/clavulanate + nasal saline irrigations

FAILED medical therapy = endoscopic sinus surgery

97
Q

What are the signs of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Proteinuria > 3g/day

Hypoalbuminaemia (<30)

Oedema

Hypercholesterolaemia

Usually normal renal function

98
Q

Which renal structures does nephrotic syndrome affect?

A

Podocytes

99
Q

Which renal structures does nephritic syndrome affect?

A

Endothelial cells

100
Q

What are the signs of nephritic syndrome?

A

Acute decline in kidney function

Oliguria

Oedema caused by fluid retention

Hypertension

‘Active urinary sediment’ - RBCx and RBC casts

101
Q

What does minimal change nephropathy show on renal biopsy?

A

Normal renal biopsy on light microscopy and immunofluorescence.

Foot process fusion shown on electron microscopy.

102
Q

Management of minimal change nephropathy.

A

1st - oral steroids

2nd - cyclophosphamide (for steroid resistant)

103
Q

Risk factors for focal segmental glomerulonephritis?

A
  • Idiopathic
  • HIV
  • Heroin use
  • Alport’s syndrome
  • Obesity
  • Reflux nephropathy
  • Genetic
104
Q

Causes of membranous nephropathy?

A
  • Idiopathic
  • Hep B
  • Parasites
  • Lupus
  • Malignancies
  • Gold/penicillamine
105
Q

renal biopsy shows sub epithelial immune complex deposition in the basement membrane. Which disease?

A

Membranous nephropathy

106
Q

What are the 2 mechanisms of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?

A
  1. Immune complex deposition and complement activation.

2. Dysregulation of the alternative complement pathway

107
Q

What is the most common glomerulonephritis in the world?

A

IgA nephropathy

108
Q

What does IgA nephropathy show on biopsy?

A

Mesangial cell proliferation and expansion on light microscopy.

IgA deposits in mesangium on immunofluorescence.

109
Q

What is the treatment for IgA nephropathy?

A
  • Blood pressure control
  • ACE inhibitors and ARBs
  • Fish oil
110
Q

Which condition is IgA nephropathy associated with?

A

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

111
Q

What does rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis show on biopsy?

A

Glomerular crescents

112
Q

Management of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.

A
  • Immunosuppression (steroids and cytotoxics or Rituximab)
  • Steroids and Azathioprine
  • Supportive (dialysis if required)
113
Q

What can cause membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?

A

HIV
Hep C
Genetic

114
Q

How is amyloidosis diagnosed?

A

Congo red staining - green birefringence

SAP scan

Biopsy of skin, rectal mucosa or abdominal fat

115
Q

What is the role of calcium resonate?

A

Removes potassium from the body.

116
Q

NICE criteria for an AKI?

A
  • Rise in creatinine of > 25 mol
  • Rise of creatinine of > 50% in 7 days
  • Urine output of <0.5ml/kg/hour for > 6 hours
117
Q

Pre-renal causes of AKI?

A
  • Dehydration
  • Hypotension
  • Heart failure
  • Bleeding
  • Infection
118
Q

Renal causes of AKI?

A
  • Glomerulonephritis
  • Vasculitis
  • Interstitial nephritis
  • Acute tubular necrosis
119
Q

Post-renal causes of AKI?

A
  • Kidney stones
  • Masses
  • Ureter or urethral strictures
  • Enlarged prostate
  • Prostate cancer
120
Q

Management of AKI.

A
  • IV fluids in pre-renal
  • Stop nephrotoxic drugs (NSAIDs, ACEIs, ARBs, metformin, gentamicin, aminoglycosides, diuretics)
  • Relieve obstruction
  • Avoid contrast
  • Treat underlying cause
121
Q

What can cause IgA nephropathy?

A
  • Respiratory/GI infection (pharyngitis/tonsillitis)
122
Q

Most common organism involved in septic arthritis?

A

Staph aureus

123
Q

Most common organism involved in septic arthritis in children < 5?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

124
Q

Management of septic arthritis?

A

Antibiotics +/- surgical washout

Flucloxacillin IV for 2 weeks, then oral for 2-4 weeks
Penicillin allergy - Clindamycin

125
Q

a) Organism involved in early and late post-op prosthetic join infection?
b) Organism involved in delayed post-op prosthetic joint infection?

A

a) staph aureus

b) staph epidermis

126
Q

How is an osteosarcoma treated?

A
  • Chemotherapy
  • Surgery

RESISTANT TO RADIOTHERAPY

127
Q

How does Ewing’s sarcoma present?

A

Warm swelling
Raised inflammatory markers

radiology: ONION RING sign

128
Q

Which nerve is at risk of damage in a surgical neck of humerus fracture?

A

Axillary nerve damage

129
Q

Management of compartment syndrome

A

Fasciotomoy

130
Q

which nerve is at risk of damage in a humeral shaft fracture?

A

Radial nerve

WRIST DROP

131
Q

Which deformity is caused by a Colles fracture?

A

Dinner fork deformity

132
Q

How is a Smith’s fracture managed?

A

Open reduction and external fixation

133
Q

Which classification system is used for intracapsular hip fractures?

A

Garden Classification

134
Q

Management for reverse oblique transverse subtrochanteric hip fracture?

A

Intramedullary nail

135
Q

Management for (frail, dependent on husband) lady with intracapsular hip fracture)?

A

Hemiarthroplasty

136
Q

Pain on radial side of wrist
Tender at thumb base
Pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist
What is the diagnosis?

A

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

137
Q

Middle-aged runner
Pain at the medial heel bed
Pain made worse when walking on toes

Diagnosis?

A

Plantar fasciitis

138
Q

Which nerve is most commonly affected in meralgia parasthesia?

A

Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

139
Q

What is used for assessing risk of osteoporosis?

A

FRAX tool

140
Q

What does a positive straight leg test suggest?

A

Sciatic nerve pain

141
Q

What is the function of somatostatin?

A
  • Stimulated by growth hormone
  • Acts to increase growth
  • Acts to regulate the secretion of insulin and glucagon

SECRETED BY DELTA CELLS

142
Q

What is the normal fasting blood sugar level?

A

4.4-6.1 mol/l

abnormal = > 7

143
Q

Which tests are used to diagnose diabetes?

A
  • Fasting glucose (overnight fast)
  • 2-hour glucose tolerance test
  • HbA1c (reflects blood sugar level over a 1-3 month period)
144
Q

Normal HbA1c level?

A

< 41

145
Q

Diabetic HbA1c level?

A

> 48

146
Q

Normal and abnormal glucose tolerance test result?

A 
Normal = < 7.7
Abnormal = > 11.1
147
Q

Type 1 diabetes autoantibodies?

A

Anti-GAD

Anti IA2

Anti ZnT8

148
Q

Target HbA1c for a type 1 diabetic?

A

48-59 mmol/l

149
Q

Sick day rules for type 1 diabetics?

A
  • Don’t stop insulin
  • Eat/drink as much as possible
  • Increase blood sugar monitoring to 4x a day at least
150
Q

What is metabolic syndrome?

A

Type 2 diabetes with at least 2 of:

  • Hypertension
  • Central obesity
  • Dyslipidaemia
  • Micro-albuminuria
151
Q

Glycaemic control aims for type 2 diabetes?

A

48-53

152
Q

Features of MODY

A
  • Young onset
  • Family history
  • No autoantibodies
  • Normal BMI
  • Assoc. conditions = renal cysts
153
Q

Background retinopathy changes?

A
  • Microaneurysms (dots)
  • Blot haemorrhages ( <3 or =3)
  • Hard exudates
154
Q

Pre-proliferative retinopathy?

A
  • cotton wool spots - soft exudates
  • > 3 blot haemorrhages
  • venous bleeding/looping
  • deep/dark cluster haemorrhages
155
Q

definition of hypoglycaemia?

A

blood sugar level < 4mmol/l

156
Q

symptoms of hypoglycaemia?

A
  • sweating
  • anxiety
  • hunger
  • tremor
  • nausea
  • palpitations
  • dizzy
  • confusion
  • lack of concentration
157
Q

presentation of DKA?

A
  • reduced GCS
  • deep, sighing breathing
  • sweet smelling breath
  • dehydration
158
Q

management of DKA?

A
  • Fluid resuscitation (0.9% NaCl 10ml/kg)
  • IV insulin (0.1 unit/kg/hr)
  • Monitor and replace K+ if needed
  • Monitor bicarbonate and pH
  • Long-acting insulin should be continued and short-acting stopped
159
Q

Autoantibody most common in Grave’s disease?

A

TRAB-stimulating antibody

160
Q

Grave’s disease goitre description?

A

Smooth, symmetrical

161
Q

DeQuervain’s thyroiditis features.

A
  • Post-viral
  • Patients got from hyper to hypo and then normal
  • Painful goitre
  • Pyrexia
  • Raised inflammatory markers
162
Q

Autoantibodies in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Anti-thyroid peroxidase

163
Q

Management of myxoedema coma?

A
  • Correct hypoglycaemia
  • Actively warm patient
  • Give T3 infusion
  • Give hydrocortisone
164
Q

Most common type of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary

165
Q

Features of medullary thyroid cancer.

A
  • Calcitonin production
  • High calcium levels
  • MEN 2A and 2B
166
Q

Presentation of anapaestic thyroid cancer

A
  • Older patients (60-80)
  • Undifferentiated
  • Fast growing
  • Aggressive
  • Hard, craggy mass
  • Haematological spread
167
Q

Complication of thyroidectomy

A

Hypocalcaemia (long QT syndrome)

168
Q

Name the enzyme that produces calcium phosphate in bones.

A

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

169
Q

Name the biologically active form of vitamin D

A

Calitriol

produced in kidneys via activity of 1 alpha hydroxylase

170
Q

Which DEXA score indicates osteoporosis?

A

T score < -2.5

171
Q

Management of osteoporosis

A

Alendronate, Risendronate
(taken once a week)

Strontium Ranelate
(given when patient unable to tolerate bisphosphonates)

Teriparatide
(given to those who don’t respond to oral therapies)

Denosumab

172
Q

Presentation:

  • Elderly patient
  • Deep, boring, bone pain
  • Pain worse at night + on weight bearing
  • high ALP
  • normal calcium
  • normal phosphate

Diagnosis?

A

Paget’s disease

BONE ENLARGEMENT
DEFORMITY OF BONES

Management:
Anlagesia
Bisphosphonates (Risedronate)

173
Q

Rickets presentation

A 
Bowed legs 
Knocked-kneed
Hypotonia 
Apathy 
Growth retardation
174
Q

Osteomalacia presentation

A

Bone pain
Fractures
Proximal myopathy
Waddling gait

175
Q

Which organism is associated the most with UTIs in children and adults?

A

E. coli

176
Q

UTI management for a non-pregnant woman?

A

Trimethoprim or Nitrofurantoin for 3 days

177
Q

UTI management in symptomatic pregnant women?

A

Nitrofurantoin (not in 3rd trimester)

Amoxicillin or Cefalexin

178
Q

UTI management in asymptomatic pregnant women?

A

Nitrofurantoin (not in 3rd trimester) - 7 days

Amoxicillin, Cefalexin - 7 days

179
Q

UTI management for men?

A

Trimethoprim or Nitrofurantoin

180
Q

Most common type of bladder cancer?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma (90%)

181
Q

Risk factors for transitional cell carcinoma?

A

Smoking

Carcinogens (Rubber, leather, motor workers, hair dye)

182
Q

Causes of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Schistosomiasis

Smoking

183
Q

Symptoms of prostate cancer?

A

Haematuria

Weight loss

Erectile dysfunction

Fatigue

184
Q

Which staging system is used in prostate cancer?

A

Gleason grading system

185
Q

Which type of prostate cancer tumour looks like a potato?

A

Seminoma

186
Q

Which type of prostate cancer grows hair and is malignant in males but not females?

A

Teratoma

187
Q

Which type of prostate cancer is 100% bHCG positive?

A

Trophoblast (choriocarcinoma)

188
Q

When should APGAR scores be assessed?

A

1, 5 and 10 minutes after delivery

189
Q

Presentation:

  • 3 year old child
  • loud, harsh stridor
  • barking cough
  • hoarseness
  • restless
  • cyanosis

Diagnosis?

A

croup

caused by para-influenza virus most commonly

190
Q

Management of croup?

A

Oral dexamethasone

moderate/severe = nebuliser adrenaline, oxygen (severe)

191
Q

Which organism causes epiglottitis?

A

H. influenzae type B

192
Q

Investigations for epiglottitis?

A

Lateral neck x-ray (thumb-print sign)

193
Q

Management of epiglottitis?

A

oxygen mask

call anaesthetist -> rigid laryngoscopy and intubation

Supportive care and IV antibiotics (ceftriaxone)

194
Q

management for a child with bronchiolitis?

A

Supportive

Urgent admission to hospital if grunting

195
Q

Which virus typically causes bronchiolitis?

A

RSV

196
Q

Which virus causes hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

Coxsackie virus

197
Q

Machinery murmur is caused by which cardiac pathology…

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

198
Q

Which vaccines are given in the ‘6-1 vaccines’ at the ag elf 2 months?

A

Diptheria, tetanus, polio, whooping cough, HiB, Hep B, one dose of the rotavirus vaccine

199
Q

At what age would the average child begin to say ‘mama’ or ‘dada’?

A

9 months

200
Q

What is the first sign of puberty in girls?

A

Breast development

201
Q

At which age should a child be able to crawl?

A

9 months

202
Q

Which virus is associated with tonsillar SCC?

A

HPV

203
Q

Presentation:

  • 35 year old male
  • worsening hearing
  • dad has always had hearing aids
  • normal Rhinne’s and Weber’s tests
  • pure-tone audiometry shows bilateral conducive hearing loss at low frequencies

Diagnosis?

A

Otosclerosis

204
Q

Which diagnostic criteria is used in the diagnosis of tonsillitis?

A

CENTOR criteria

205
Q

Name the cells which detect an NaCl change in the tubular fluid.

A

Macula densa cells

206
Q

What is isotonic contraction and what is it used for?

A
  • When muscle contraction stays the same but the muscle length changes.
  • Used for moving objects and body movements
207
Q

What is isometric contraction and what is it used for?

A
  • When muscle tension develops at a constant muscle length

- Used for supporting objects in fixed positions and maintaining posture.

208
Q

Name the 3 types of skeletal muscle fibres.

A

Slow-oxidative (type I)
Fast-oxidative (type IIa)
Fast-glycolytic (type IIb)

209
Q

Example of a cartilaginous joint?

A

Intervertebral discs

210
Q

Example of a synovial joint?

A

Elbow

211
Q

Functions of synovial fluid

A
  • Lubricates joint
  • Facilitates joint movement
  • Helps minimise wear and tear of joints
  • Aids in nutrition of articular cartilage
  • Supplies chondrocytes with oxygen and nutrients and removes CO2 and waste products
212
Q

NICE criteria for an AKI?

A
  • Rise in creatinine of >25micromol/l in 48 hours
  • Rise in creatinine of > 50% in 7 days
  • Urine output of < 0.5ml/kg/hr for > 6 hours
213
Q

Treatment for anterior uveitis?

A

Topical steroids - reduce inflammation and prevent complications

Mydriatic drops (cyclopentolate) - pupil dilation reduces pressure and pain in the eyes

RESIT REVISION SECOND YEAR (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions