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Phase 3B prep > All Random Facts > Flashcards

All Random Facts Flashcards

1
Q

How many days before POP takes effect?

A

48 hours

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2
Q

What is given for meningococcal meningitis in a community setting?

A

IM Benzyl Penicillin

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3
Q

When can IUS/IUD be inserted postnatally?

A

Within 48 hours birth/ >4 weeks post-partum

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4
Q

What is the contraindication of COCP in postnatal women and why?

A

Contraindicated in women <6weeks postpartum + breastfeeding. Due to risk of VTE and contamination of breast milk

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5
Q

Management for mild/moderate otitis externa?

A

Topical drops including combined Abx/steroids/acetic acid

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6
Q

How is IUD licensed as an Emergency Contraceptive?

A

5 days post UPSI or 5 days post earliest possible ovulation

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7
Q

What is the relationship between bupropion and epilepsy and why?

A

Bupropion is a dopamine reuptake inhibitor (also serotonin and noradrenaline) and hence lowers the seizure threshold.

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8
Q

What is the window for ulipristal acetate and levonorgestrel as an emergency contraceptive?

A

Ulipristal Acetate - within 120 hours, Levonorgestrel - within 72 hours

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9
Q

What is the treatment for LUTS in men?

A

Trimethoprim/Nitrofurantoin 7 days

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10
Q

What is the contraindication of COCP in postnatal women not breastfeeding?

A

<3 weeks postpartum with other risks of VTE

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11
Q

What are the long term usage S/E of levodopa?

A

End of dose deterioration, On and Off states, dyskinesia

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12
Q

S/E of Depo-Provera in young women?

A

Reduces bone mineral density

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13
Q

Describe roseola infantum rash and timeline?

A

Erythematous maculopapular rash that is preceded by high fever

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14
Q

What is the alternative to Oxybutynin in urge incontinence and what is the MOA?

A

Mirabegron. B-3 agonist which relaxes the detrusor muscle

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15
Q

What is the difference between tennis vs. golfer’s elbow

A

Golfer’s elbow has pain localised to medial epicondyle but Tennis elbow is pain localised to lateral epicondyle

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16
Q

Is a stroke forehead sparing?

A

Yes

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17
Q

What is Bacillus Cereus caused GE normally caused by?

A

Reheated rice

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18
Q

CT indications post head injury?

A

GCS <13, GCS <15 2hours post initial assessment, suspected/depressed skull fracture, signs of basal skull fracture, >1 episode of vomiting, focal neurological deficit, post-traumatic seizure

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19
Q

Is LMN facial paralysis ipsilateral or contralateral?

A

Ipsilateral

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20
Q

What are the two commonest causes for otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa , Staphylococcus Aureus

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21
Q

How long must the patient be hospitalized for to be considered HAP?

A

> 48 hours

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22
Q

What is the 2 week referral criteria for colorectal cancer patients >40?

A

> 40: Unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain

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23
Q

What is the 2 week referral criteria for colorectal cancer patients >50?

A

Unexplained rectal bleeding

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24
Q

What is the 2 week referral criteria for colorectal cancer patients >60?

A

Any of iron deficiency anaemia, changes in bowel habit, faecal occult blood, rectal/abdominal mass

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25
Q

Which leukemia has the cytogenics T(15:17) translocation?

A

AML

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26
Q

Which pneumonia causing bacteria is associated with erythema multiforme?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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27
Q

When is a FIT test usually used?

A

When patient does not meet criteria for 2 week urgent referral but has Sx for colorectal cancer

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28
Q

Opiate intoxication and withdrawal: What are some features of opiate intoxication?

A

Drowsiness, Confusion, Decreased HR & RR, Constricted pupils

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29
Q

Opiate withdrawal features?

A

Unpleasant but not life threatening. Agitation, Runny eyes and nose, increased HR and BP, cramps nausea diarrhoea and vomiting

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30
Q

What is a section 5(2)?

A

Temporary detainment of a Voluntary patient in hospital up to 72 hours during who should receive assessment that determines if further detainment under the MHA is necessary. No treatment should be given.

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31
Q

Who is needed to conduct a section 3

A

1 Approved Mental Health Professional and 2 Doctors both of who have seen patient in the last 24 hours

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32
Q

What is a section 136?

A

Police are able to remove patients from a public place to a place of safety i.e. police station/ A and E

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33
Q

What is a section 2?

A

Admission for assessment up to 28 days, not renewable. Patient can be given treatment.

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34
Q

Who organises a section 2?

A

Approved mental health professional or nearest relative based on recommendation of 2 doctors, one of which must be approved under section 12(2). Usually consultant psychiatrist.

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35
Q

What is a section 4?

A

Detainment in hospital up to 72 hours for assessment. Used as an emergency where section 2 would cause a delay. (Usually done by GP and an AMHP)

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36
Q

What is a section 3?

A

Detainment of patient up to 6 months to receive treatment. Can be renewed.

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37
Q

What is the treatment for transient global amnesia?

A

No treatment needed

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38
Q

How long should Sx last to be considered as a prolonged grief disorder?

A

> 6 months

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39
Q

What is the pathological finding in Pick’s disease?

A

Accumulation of TAU proteins in neurons

40
Q

What are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Alogia, Anhedonia, Avolition, Affective incongruity or blunting

41
Q

What is the association with hyperventilation and calcium levels?

A

Hyperventilation can reduced arterial CO2 and increase blood pH. Alkalosis promotes calcium binding to albumin causing hypocalcaemia.

42
Q

What are the type B personality disorders?

A

Antisocial, Borderline, Histrionic, Narcissistic

42
Q

What is the pathophysiology of refeeding syndrome?

A

Rapidly increasing insulin levels move potassium, magnesium and phosphate extracellularly intracellularly

42
Q

What are examples of typical antipsychotics?

A

Haloperidol, Chlopromazine

42
Q

What are the side effects of typical antipsychotics?

A

Parkinsonism, Acute dystonia, akathisia, tardive dyskinesea

42
Q

What are Schneider’s first rank symptoms?

A

Auditory hallucinations, Thought disorder, Passivity phenomena, Delusional perceptions

42
Q

What is neologism?

A

Creation of new words comprehensible to only the patient

42
Q

What is the triad for normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

Wet Wobbly Weird or Urinary incontinence, gait abnormality, dementia and bradyphrenia

43
Q

What are some side effects of SSRIs?

A

GI upset, GI bleeding, Hyponatraemia, Anxiety & Agitation, QT prolongation (Citalopram)

44
Q

What are the features of cannabis intoxication?

A

Drowsiness, impaired memory, increased HR, appetite & paranoia, dry mouth, slowed reflexes

45
Q

What are the features of LSD intoxication?

A

Increased HR, Temperature, BP, labile mood, hallucination, sweating, insomnia, dry mouth

46
Q

What causes CJD?

A

Prions, which are misfolded proteins that induce other proteins to misfold. This causes neurones to die leaving holes in brain tissue.

47
Q

What is the triad for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?

A

Confusion, Ataxia, Ophthalmoplegia

48
Q

What AMT score is indicative of dementia?

A

<8/10

49
Q

What are the S/E of lithium TOXICITY?

A

Coarse tremor, Visual disturbance, Confusion, Cardiac arrhythmias, CNS disturbances like seizures, impaired coordination, dysarthria

50
Q

What is a S/E of venlafaxine?

A

Increase BP & HR. Contraindicated in uncontrolled HTN

51
Q

What is the difference between PAD and GAD

A

PAD happens in short bursts, no identifiable trigger, feels well in between episodes

52
Q

Sildenafil and erectile dysfunction?

A

Treatment for erectile dysfunction

53
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for flight or flight response?

A

Amygdala

54
Q

What’s the difference between OCD and OCPD?

A

OCPD pleasurable, OCD distressing

55
Q

What are the features of clozapine toxicity?

A

Confusion, drowsiness, ataxia, tachycardia

56
Q

What is the timeline difference between embolic vs thrombotic cause of ALI?

A

Embolic cause symptoms over few minutes, thrombotic develops over hours to days

57
Q

Where does the tongue point in a hypoglossal lesion?

A

Tongue classically deviates to side of lesion

58
Q

What is buerger’s disease?

A

Non atherosclerotic vasculitis affecting small and medium arteries

59
Q

Which artery is affected in Leriche Syndrome?

A

Aortoiliac artery stenosis

60
Q

What is the screening outcome for AAA

A

<3cm no further action, 3-4.4 Rescan 12 months, 4.5-5.4 Rescan 3 months, >5.5 Refer for intervention

61
Q

What is the initial management for ALI?

A

ABC, Analgesia, IV unfractionated heparin, Vascular review

62
Q

What is the secondary prevention management for PAD?

A

Statin and Clopidogrel

63
Q

What is the investigation of choice in varicose veins/chronic venous insufficiency?

A

Venous Duplex Ultrasound - will show retrograde flow

64
Q

What is the screening for AAA?

A

One off for males >65

65
Q

What is the treatment in an EVAR?

A

A stent is placed in the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm

66
Q

What are the criteria for a high risk rupture AAA

A

> 1cm/year enlargement, symptomatic, >5.5cm

67
Q

What are some risk factors for AAA?

A

Smoking, HTN, syphilis, Ehler Danlos, Marfans

68
Q

When is compression bandaging considered appropriate?

A

When ABPI <0.8

69
Q

Features of Venous Insufficiency?

A

Oedema, brown pigmentation, lipodermatosclerosis, eczema

70
Q

Management for Venous Ulcers

A

4 layer compression following exclusion of arterial disease

71
Q

What is a marjolin’s ulcer?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma occurring at sites of chronic inflammation or previous injury

72
Q

What are features suggestive of thrombotic ALI?

A

Pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, no obvious source for emboli, reduced/absent pulse in contralateral limb, Evidence of widespread vascular disease - TIA, MI, Stroke

73
Q

What are features suggestive of embolic ALI?

A

Sudden onset, No history of claudication, Clinically obvious source of emboli (AF/ recent MI), No evidence of PVD (normal pulses in contralateral limb), Evidence of proximal aneurysm

74
Q

Which artery block is likely to cause calf pain/buttock pain?

A

Femoral artery - Calf pain, Iliac artery - Buttock pain

75
Q

What is the management for severe PAD/ CLI?

A

angioplasty +/- stent if <10cm vs bypass/endarterectomy if >10cm

76
Q

What is the investigation for a ruptured AAA?

A

Depends. Haemodynamically stable - CT , unstable - diagnosis is clinical

77
Q

What is the features of a ruptured AAA?

A

Severe, central abdominal pain radiating to back, pulsatile expansile mass, patients may be shocked

78
Q

What is superficial thrombophlebitis?

A

Inflammation associated with thrombosis of one of the superficial veins, usually the long saphenous veins of the leg

79
Q

What are risk factors for varicose veins?

A

Female, Obesity, Pregnant, Increasing age

80
Q

When to refer varicose veins to secondary treatment?

A

Significant lower limb symptoms i.e. pain, discomfort, swelling , previous bleeding from sites, skin changes, superficial thrombophlebitis, ulcers

81
Q

What is temporal arteritis?

A

Vasculitis affecting medium and large sized vessels

82
Q

Features of temporal arteritis?

A

Rapid onset (<1 months), Headache, Jaw claudication, tender palpable temporal artery, vision changes, associations with PMR

83
Q

What are the investigations for temporal arteritis?

A

Raised ESR/CRP, skip lesions on temporal artery biopsy

84
Q

Temporal arteritis management?

A

High dose glucocorticoid: IV methylprednisolone for vision, otherwise prednisolone if none. Urgent ophthalmology review.

85
Q

What are features of PMR?

A

Aching and morning stiffness of proximal limb muscles

86
Q

Management for PMR?

A

Prednisolone

87
Q

What are the S/E of carbimazole?

A

Agranulocytosis; WBC count to be done if signs of infection. Increased risk of congenital malformations; especially first trimester

88
Q

What are the S/E of Mirtazapine?

A

Sedative, increased appetite

89
Q
A

Phase 3B prep (10 decks)

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