ALL Questions Flashcards
In an Adult, what is the total percentage of burned area burned if the patient’s entire arm, from shoulder to hand, was burned?
9%
A type of radiation that is very penetrating and easily passes through the body and solid materials?
Gamma
A type of radiation that has greater penetration and can travel much further than alpha particles? They can penetrate the skin but be blocked by simple protective clothing.
Beta
What are the 5 types of shock?
Cardiogenic, Hypovolemic, Anaphalactic, Septic and Neurogenic
How do you remove a Singer from a bee?
Scrape with a credit card
S/S Suddenly complains of the worst headache in their lives Think?
Hemorrhagic stroke
S/S Facial drooping, headache, confusion, pronator drift think?
Stroke
What is the term for unlawful touching?
Battery
What is the medical term for Feverish; pertaining to or marked by fever?
Febrile
The medical term for excessive constriction of the pupil of the eye?
Miosis
S/S a pregnant women with a high blood pressure?
Pre-eclampsia
What is Menorrhea?
Normal menstrual or vaginal bleeding
S/S Acute abdominal pain, can be referred to the shoulder accompanied by vaginal bleeding in a woman of child bearing age, rapid and weak pulse, low blood pressure, absent menstrual period.
Ectopic pregnancy
What is ROSC?
Return Of Spontaneous Circulation- person regains a pulse
What are the Shockable rhythms an AED recognizes?
Ventricular Fibrillation and Pulseless Ventricular tachycardia
What is the best way to prevent the spread of communicable diseases?
Hand Washing
S/S 87 y.o. male with difficulty breathing supine in bed with agonal respirations after PPE and scene safe, What is your first intervention?
Ventilate
What are Braxton-Hicks contractions?
Irregular contractions not sustained not indicative of impending delivery- false labor
When may delivery be imminent?
When contractions last 30 seconds to a minute and are 2-3 minutes apart
In neonate resuscitation when do you initiate Bag valve resuscitation?
When the pulse rate is below 100 beats per minute.
In neonate resuscitation when do you initiate Compressions?
When the pulse rate is less than 60 BPM
What are the first steps in neonatal resuscitation?
Drying, warming. positioning, suctioning. Tactile stimulation
How do you control vaginal bleeding after birth?
Place sanitary napkin over the vaginal opening. Do not place anything inside. Massage the Uterus. Have the mother begin nursing.
What is the care for a mother with a prolapsed cord?
Elevate the hips, keep the mother warm, keep the baby’s head away from the cord, wrap the cord in a sterile moist towel, do not push the cord back in. transport mom to the hospital continuing to keep pressure on the head off the cord
If meconium is seen in the amniotic fluid what do you suction first?
Mouth then nose.
Elevated blood pressure, excessive weight gain, excessive swelling to the face, ankles, hands and feet altered mental status, headache, or unusual neurologic findings in a pregnant female>
Pre-eclampsia
Seizures in pregnancy Think?
Eclampsia
In the Glasgow Coma scale what are the 3 behavioral Reponses measured?
Eye opening response, Verbal response and motor response
In the Glasgow Coma scale what are the 4 responses under eye opening and the scores?
Spontaneously 4, to speech 3, to pain 2, no response 1
In the Glasgow Coma scale what are the 5 responses to verbal response?
Oriented to person, place and time -5 Confused -4 Inappropriate words -3 Incomprehensible sounds -2 No Response -1
In the Glasgow Coma scale what are the 6 responses to motor response?
Obeys commands -6 Moves to localized pain -5 Flexion withdrawal from pain -4 Abnormal flexion (decorticate) -3 Abnormal flexion (decerabate) -2 No Response -1
In the Glasgow Coma scale what is considered a comatose patient?
8 or less
In the Glasgow Coma scale what is considered a totally unresponsive patient?
3
In the Glasgow Coma scale what is considered the highest score?
15
During Adult CPR what is the compression to ventilation rate?
30:2
During Child CPR what is the compression to ventilation rate?
15:2
During neonatal resuscitation what is the preferred technique for compressions due to higher blood pressure and coronary perfusion with less rescuer fatigue
The 2 thumb encircling technique
What is the compression to ventilation rate for neonatal resuscitation?
3:1- Why, the compromise of gas exchange is nearly always the primary cause
The signs of bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular breathing in a head injury is called?
Cushing’s Reflex
What is a late sign of shock?
Decreased blood pressure
A policy or protocol issued by the medical director that authorizes EMT’s to perform particular skills in certain situations is called?
Standing orders
What volume of blood loss is considered serious in an average adult?
1000cc
What is the difference between a Thrombus and an Embolus?
A Thrombus is a fibrinous clot formed in and obstructs a blood vessel; an embolus is a fibrinous clot that forms elsewhere in the body and lodges in a vessel.
What is a tension pneumothorax?
An accumulation of air in the pleural space under pressure, compressing the lungs and decreasing venous return to the heart. As intrathoracic pressure increases, the patient develops hypotension, tracheal deviation and neck vein distension.
An accumulation of blood in the sac around the heart is called?
Pericardial tamponade
After you deliver the first shock with an AED, the patient is still pulseless, what should you do next?
Perform 2 minutes or 5 cycles of CPR
What are the Shockable rhythms for the AED?
Ventricular Tachycardia and Ventricular Fibrillation
The 2 types of rhythms that can be shocked by the AED are Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia and Atrial Fibrillation, True or False?
False- They are Pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular Fibrillation
An infant or child who exhibits wheezing, increased breathing effort on exhalation, or rapid breathing without stridor probably has?
A lower airway disease ( bronchitis or asthma )
What is the required amount of suctioning that a suction unit must provide?
30 L/min, 300 mmhg
What does the pneumonic DCAP-BTLS stand for?
Deformities, Contusions, Abrasions, Punctures, Burns, Tenderness Lacerations, Swelling
What does the pneumonic OPQRST stand for?
Onset, Provokes, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Time
What does the pneumonic SAMPLE stand for?
Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last Meal, Events that led to the call -used to determine history
What stage of labor does full dilation of the cervix occur?
First
S/S 64 y.o. c/o trouble breathing, chest pain and congestion. lung sounds crackles bilateral. What is a probable cause?
Left ventricular failure-
Rationale these are signs of possible failure of the left ventricle. The pump portion of the heart is unable to pump efficiently and fluid begins to back up into the lungs.
What heart rate is considered bradycardic?
Heart rate less than 60 BPM
Which is the best answer for a man down in cardiac arrest.
- Turn on AED, attach AED, check pulse and initiate analysis
- BSI, Check pulse, begin compressions, open airway
- BSI, check pulse, open airway, begin compressions
BSI, check pulse, begin compressions, open airway
Which of the following is not a category of shock?
Irreversible, decompensated, compensated, reversible
reversible
What is a side effect of nitroglycerin?
vessel constriction, pitting edema, vessel dilation, headache
Headache
Patients often get headaches from nitro. vessel dilation occurs but is not a side effect it is the desired effect.
What is hypovolemic shock?
Hypovolemic shock, also known as hemorrhagic shock, is a life-threatening condition that results when you lose more than 20 percent (one-fifth) of your body’s blood or fluid supply.
What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in children?
Respiratory arrest
What does nitroglycerin do to the vasculature of the body?
Dilates them to ease the workload on the heart
What is the Glasgow coma scale for a patient with no eye response, incomprehensible sounds, and decorticate posturing?
(6) no eye response-1, Incomprehensible sounds-2, and decorticate posturing-3
What is Decorticate posturing?
Decorticate posture is an abnormal posturing in which a person is stiff with bent arms, clenched fists, and legs held out straight. The arms are bent in toward the body and the wrists and fingers are bent and held on the chest. Think of de-cor-ticate as to the core!
Your patient is feeling sick to their stomach and is bradycardic. What type of response is this?
Sympathetic, Parasympathetic, vagal, emotional
Parasympathetic- it is responsible for slowing the heart rate and intestinal activity
During diastole what do the ventricles do?
Fill with blood- This is the relaxing phase of the heart
During Systole what are the ventricles doing?
The ventricles contract sending blood to the body and lungs
In a multi casualty accident with 2 vehicles how would you triage the following patients for transport, none are trapped? an 86 y.o slumped against the wheel, a 7 y.o with facial lacerations only, a 40 y.o. pregnant woman unconscious, a teenager c/o nausea with an altered level of consciousness, a second teenager who had a seizure earlier and was being transported to the doctor was belted with no sign of injury.
The 86 y.o. and the pregnant female should be transported first due to LOC (level of consciousness), the teenager with an altered level of consciousness should be next then the 7 y.o. and the teenager who had a seizure earlier
Shock from a severe infection is called?
Sepsis
Blood moves from the left ventricle to the?
Lungs, Inferior vena cava, aortic arch, right atrium
Aortic arch–
Right ventricle to the lungs, Inferior vena cava to right atrium,
Resuscitation should not be started if obvious signs of death are present. These signs include all except?
A.Rigor Mortis
B. Putrefaction of body
C.Absence of heart beat
D. Dependent lividity
C. Absence of heart beat. Rationale: Rigor mortis -limbs of corpse stiffen Putrefaction of body- decomposing Lividity- pooling of blood to lower areas of body also called livor mortis livor- (bluish) mortis- (of death)
The recommended field treatment for a patient with cardiac tamponade is?
Compressions at 100 per minute
transcutaneous pacing
rapid transport to ER
pericardiocentesis
Rapid transport to ER
Rationale: removing the fluid surrounding the heart with a needle is the definitive treatment but not recommended in the field and beyond EMT scope of practice. Rapid transport is the most appropriate treatment.
You and your partner Greg are called to a hockey arena where a fan was struck in the side of the chest with a hockey puck that was hit over the protective glass and into the crowd. The man is having a painful time breathing at about 16 a minute. He says his ribs really hurt. What should your treatment include?
A. A chest compression wrap while having the patient maintain his exhaled state
B. Bag valve mask with oxygen attached
C. Sweeping the tongue out of the way to look for airway obstructions
D. High flow O2 with NRM and rapid transport
D. High flow O2 with NRM and rapid transport
Rationale: As long as the patient is able to talk and keep their respirations within range, then high flow O2 and transport would be your best choice.
Which of the following assessment considerations should not be included for facial and eye injuries? A. Inspection B. Palpation of cranial bones C. Eye examination D. Palpation of facial bones
B. Palpation of cranial bones
Rationale: Assessment considerations for facial and eye injuries include: Inspection, palpation of facial bones, and eye examination.
Where on the patient are you going to take the pulse rate via the radial artery? A. Top of the foot B. Thumb side of the wrist C. Behind the ankle D. Side of the neck
B. Thumb side of the wrist
Rationale: Top of the foot is the Dorsalis pedis
Behind the ankle is the posterior tibial
side of the neck is the carotid
Unique anatomy, physiology, and pathophysiology considerations of geriatric patients include all of the following except:
A. Changes in musculoskeletal system makes older patients susceptible to trauma
B.Trauma is infrequent in the elderly due to inactivity
C. Circulation changes lead to inability to maintain normal vital signs during hemorrhage
D. Curvature of upper spine may require padding during spinal immobilization
B. Trauma is infrequent in the elderly due to inactivity
Rationale:
changes in pulmonary, cardiovascular, neurologic, and musculoskeletal systems make older patients susceptible to trauma; circulation changes lead to inability to maintain normal vital signs during hemorrhage and blood pressure drops sooner; multiple medications are more common and may affect assessment - especially vital signs and blood clotting; brain shrinks leading to higher risk of cerebral bleeding following head trauma; skeletal changes cause curvature of the upper spine that may require padding during spinal immobilization; loss of strength, sensory impairment, and medical illness increase risk of falls.
When you correct a problem in the field, what is this called? A. Blood pressure B. Atelectasis C. Intervention D. Miosis
C. Intervention
An unconscious male is found lying in a pool of blood with an arterial bleed on the left leg. What type of shock is this man suffering from?
Hypovolemic Shock
What is Conjunctiva?
A thin layer of membrane that covers the eye
Aqueous Humor-the clear fluid filling the space in the front of the eyeball between the lens and the cornea.
IRIS- is a thin, circular structure in the eye, responsible for controlling the diameter and size of the pupil and thus the amount of light reaching the retina.
Managing a burn includes all of the following except? A. Airway management B. Apply a Dry, sterile dressing C. Rule of Palm D. Prevent hypothermia
C. Rule of Palm
Rationale: Rule of palm is a way of measuring the amount of burn not a treatment
S/S male 18 y.o. at school with glass in eye from test tube exploding in face with blood coming from the eye. What is the best treatment?
A. Bandage the eye with a pressure dressing
B. Remove the glass from the eye
C. Transport with high flow O2
D. Cover the eye with a paper cup, bandage and cover the other eye.
D. Cover the eye with a paper cup, bandage and cover the other eye.
Rationale: pressure dressing would cause more damage,
not supposed to remove penetrating objects, just transport would cause more discomfort for patient especially if they try to look around.
Which of the following would be a low energy penetrating wound?
A. Stab with a knife
B. .22 Cal GSW
C. Blunt trauma with a bat
D. nail in hand from a pneumatic nail gun
A. Stab with a knife
Rationale: .22 Caliber bullet is low energy in a gun shot, a baseball bat is a blunt trauma not penetrating, A pneumatic nail gun is higher energy than a knife
Your patient struck a bus with his head while on his bicycle. On Physical exam you observe unequal pupils and irregular respirations. The BP is 180/90 and a pulse rate of 60. What do these signs describe?
Cushing’s Reflex
Rationale: High blood pressure in head trauma with a low pulse rate and irregular respirations.
brain calls for more pressure for ^O2, low pulse rate because BP too high (Aortic baroreceptors), irregular breaths -brain herniating through the foramen magnum
The patient has pain in the chest from a baseball striking him in the chest. His pressure is 130/60 pulse of 100 and a bruise to the left lateral chest. What is the symptom?
Pain in the chest is a symptom
Rationale: Blood pressure- sign, Pulse- sign Bruise is a sign
Signs and symptoms of rattlesnake bites include all of the following except: A. Progressive weakness B. Hives C. Pain at site D. Seizures
B. Hives
Rationale: Hives is a sign of an allergic reaction which is caused by an allergen not a venomous bite.
A primary survey is done on a patient to?
To reveal life threatening injuries
What are the 2 ways needed to provide adequate C-spine stabilization with a c-collar?
Holding manual stabilization or securing the patient appropriately to the backboard.
You are treating a patient who is “not feeling right”. Which of the following is considered a sign?
A. The patient shows you a contusion on their head
B. She says she is dizzy and feels like vomiting
C. She tells you she ate a whole bottle of sleeping pills
D. The patient states that she has a headache
A. The patient shows you a contusion on their head
Rationale:
Feeling dizzy and stating she has a headache are symptoms. Telling you she took a bunch of pills is history. The visible contusion on her head is a sign because it is objective and you can verify it’s existence visually.
Shock caused by a severe infections is known as?
Sepsis
When a patient’s blood pressure drops to a dangerously low level after administration of nitro this is considered a?
Side Effect
What is CAD and which vessels of the body does it affect?
Coronary Artery disease and Arteries
You have a patient complaining of severe chest pain. The patient is diaphoretic and has a blood pressure of 96/55. You have the patients prescriptions including nitroglycerin. You contact medical control and are ordered to give the patient 1 nitro tablet sublingual. What would you do?
A. Repeat the blood pressure and give the nitro
B. Repeat the blood pressure and ask again what you should do
C. Give the nitro as instructed
D. Attach the AED then give the Nitro.
B. Repeat the blood pressure and ask again what you should do.
Rationale: A side effect of nitroglycerine is a drop in blood pressure which could cause the patient to go into cardiac arrest. By repeating the blood pressure this confirms your last pressure and allows medical control to hear your concern.
You are called for an 86.y.o. male with a possible stroke he is c/o trouble putting on his coat and pants. What are the three things you would use to verify your suspicion of stroke?
Speech, Facial droop and arm drift.
Rationale:
Cincinnati stroke scale any one failure has a high likelihood of stroke.
Remember always check blood sugar as the symptoms mimic a stroke
Your patient is an 18 month old boy who, as reported by his mother, is “acting strange”. You arrive to find the child reclined in his mother’s arms. “I don’t know what’s wrong with him,” she says. “I came out of the bathroom and he started making odd sounds and had spit running out of his mouth.” What is the first thing you should do?
A. Roll the child into a recovery position and begin suctioning the oropharynx.
B. Get a general impression of the child by visually assessing the quality of his respirations, his skin color, and his appearance.
C. Notify the pediatric ward at the hospital of the situation and do a rapid transport with high flow O2 via NRB.
D. Insert a properly measured OPA to secure the airway. Pad the child’s shoulders to align the airway.
B. Get a general impression of the child by visually assessing the quality of his respirations, his skin color, and his appearance.
Rationale: Initially, you want to form a general impression of the patient using the pediatric assessment triangle. (PAT) PAT is Work of Breathing, Skin Circulation, Appearance. The pediatric assessment triangle is used to form a rapid general impression of a child without making physical contact. Look at the child’s appearance and muscle tone. Look at the work of breathing for signs of respiratory distress. Tachypnea or retractions of sternum and or intercostal muscles is a sign of respiratory difficulty. Look at the skin as a quick reference for circulation. Pallor can be a sign of poor circulation.
What would you look for in an assessment of an emergency related to the nervous system? A. Level of activity B. Cardiogenic C. Symmetry of response D. Scene size up
C. Symmetry of response
Rationale: Symmetry of the sensory systems, motor systems, as well as mental status, and speech should be kept in mind when evaluating.
All part of Cincinnati Stroke scale
All are obvious signs of death, except? A. Putrefaction B. Livor Mortis C. Cyanosis D. Rigor Mortis
C. Cyanosis
Rationale:
Cyanosis is a lack of oxygen to the tissues
Livor mortis, is the discoloration of the skin due to the pooling of blood in the dependent parts of the body following death.
Rigor Mortis, is one of the recognizable signs of death, caused by chemical changes in the muscles post mortem, which cause the limbs of the corpse to stiffen.
Putrefaction, is the decomposition of organic matter
Your patient is a 14-year-old girl who is complaining of vaginal pain after falling onto the center post of her bike. She is alone and very scared. She has called the accident in on her cell phone and stated that she is bleeding very badly and feeling faint. Besides treating for shock, what other things should you consider with this patient?
A. Transport without treating patient because she is a minor
B. Inform her she is having her menstrual period
C. Have a female EMT respond for patient modesty
D. Transport in the fowlers position.
C. Have a female EMT respond if possible.
Rationale:
A female EMT may not always be available but a good consideration.
Heavy bleeding after an accident with a patient feeling faint would be a contraindication to sitting a patient up or transporting without direct pressure to the wound and a dressing
If a patient was feeling nauseated this would likely be a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ response. If a person was tachycardic it would likely be a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ response. A. sympathetic, parasympathetic B. parasympathetic, sympathetic C. Fight or flight, nervous response D. gag, parasympathetic
B. parasympathetic, sympathetic
Rationale:
Parasympathetic response is the stimulation of “rest-and-digest” activities that occur when the body is at rest.
Sympathetic response is the fight or flight response increase heart rate and vascular tone
What is considered a life threatening bleed? A. Capillary bleed B. Arterial Bleed C. Venous bleed D. Dark red bleed
B. Arterial Bleed
Rationale:
Arterial bleeds pose more of a threat to life than any of the others as they are under the most pressure and can release more blood in a shorter period of time.
When speaking with a patient, what pneumonic will help to find out past pertinent medical history? A. DCAP-BTLS B. SAMPLE C. CHART D. OPQRST
B. SAMPLE
Rationale:
DCAP-BTLS is used for soft tissue injuries
CHART is used to help with charting your run report
OPQRST is used for discerning the reason for the patients symptoms
Which of the following patients has regular respirations?
A. 6 month old breathing at 22 breaths per minute
B. A 26 y.o. with Cheyne-stokes breathing at 10 breaths per minute
C. 10 y.o. breathing at 28 times per minute with intercostal retractions
D. a 30 y.o. breathing at 20 times per minute slightly irregular.
D. a 30 y.o. breathing at 20 times per minute is breathing slightly irregular, they are within range and considered adequate.
Rationale
Normal infant is 30 to 60 breaths per minute
Cheyne stokes breathing is normally seen in head injury and normally not an adequate breathing pattern
A 10 y.o. is using intercostal muscles to breath this is normally a sign of trouble breathing
One pupil dilated and the other pupil constricted may suggest what type of injury?
Cerebral- head trauma (Trauma) or head bleed (CVA) are most common
You have requested helicopter transportation of a critical burn patient. The remote nature of the accident will force the helicopter to land on an incline. What is the best way to approach the helicopter? A. Wait for the Pilot to give direction B. Approach from the front C. Uphill side D. Walk downhill to the helicopter
Never walk downhill toward a helicopter. Always approach from the downhill side, or on the flat ground, approaching from a 45° angle in front of the aircraft (where the pilot can see you at all times) or as directed by a helicopter crew person.
• Never approach an operating helicopter from the rear, and never go aft of the cabin doors unless directed by a helicopter crew person or the pilot.
Who is the Government authority with jurisdiction over radio communications? A. ETS B. FCC C. RCC D. FTC
B. FCC or Federal Communications Commision
A respiration rate would be considered within normal limits for an adult at\_\_\_\_ per minute, for a 6-12 year old child at \_\_\_\_ per minute, and for an infant at\_\_\_\_ per minute. A. 16 - 25 - 40 B. 22 - 32 - 42 C. 20 - 40 - 60 D. 10 - 20 - 40
A. 16 - 25 - 40
Rationale: According to the NES, normal adult respiratory rates are from 16-20, school age children (6-12) are 20-30, and infants are initially 40-60 and then drop to 30-40 after the first few minutes. Note: Respiratory rates for late adulthood, 61+, is dependent on the patient’s physical and health status.
The umbilical cord is wrapped tightly around the baby’s neck and you have tried unsuccessfully to slip the cord over the head. What should your next course of action be?
A. Push the baby’s head into the vagina until the cord comes loose
B. Clamp the cord in two places and cut it in the middle
C. Support the head and suction the baby’s nose and mouth
D. Massage the uterus to stimulate harder contractions to free the baby
B. Clamp the cord in two places and cut it in the middle
Rationale:
You would not push a baby back into the vagina
Cant deliver the baby if the cords wrapped so don’t try and suction to have baby breath
massage the uterus is to deliver the placenta
You have just arrived at the scene to find a 27-year-old female complaining of anxiety and breathing difficulties. Which of the following questions would be most appropriate to ask first?
A. What day is today?
B. Do you have a history of panic attacks?
C. How long have you been having trouble breathing?
D. What is your name?
D. What is your name?
Rationale: When performing patient assessment, the first thing, after your scene size-up, is to do the primary survey (also called primary assessment). The first step of the primary survey is to form a general impression, followed by level of consciousness, then Airway, Breathing, and Circulatory status, and finally identify life threats during that process. While all of those questions are proper to ask at some point during an assessment, the best choice is to ask the patient her name first. This is critical information because it allows you to know who you are interacting with. It also helps to determine a general impression of the patient according to their proper or improper response, and then determine airway status. This sets the stage for the rest of your assessment. You should always introduce yourself and ask for your patient’s name at the beginning of your assessment. The other questions come during the history taking part of your assessment.
You arrive on the scene with your partner to transport a patient with coffee ground vomitus. This sign would lead you to believe this patient has? A. Esophageal Varicies B. Hemorrhoids C. GI bleed D. Flu
C. GI bleed
Rationale: Coffee ground vomit is a classic sign of a GI bleed. Esophageal Varicies would be bright red blood
You arrive on the scene to find a woman who is complaining of difficulty breathing after being struck in the chest with a swing. Upon auscultation of her lungs you have clear lungs on the right and no breath sounds on the left. This woman is likely has a \_\_\_\_\_\_ and would be suffering from \_\_\_\_\_ as the collapsed lung is incapable of oxygenating the blood. A. Flail chest / hyperventilation B. Hemoptysis/ Hypoventilation C. Pneumothorax/ Hypoxia D. Cardiac contusion/ Hyperkalemia
C. Pneumothorax/ Hypoxia
Rationale:
Flail chest is possible but with paradoxical movement normally lungs sounds present bilaterally
Hemoptysis is coughing up of blood not listed
Cardiac contusion would present with chest pain
Your patient is a 41 year old female who was found lying prone in the kitchen. She does not appear to be conscious and there is a pool of saliva next to her head. You and your partner log roll her into a supine position while maintaining c-spine stabilization. Just as you get the woman rolled over her husband tells you that she has a previous history of heart attacks. What would be the most appropriate course of action to take next?
A. Do a jaw thrust to open her airway
B. Have your partner get the AED, Attach it to the patient, and analyze
C. Verify a palpable pulse, attach the AED, and prepare to analyze
D. Suction the airway prior to opening the airway
A. Do a jaw thrust to open her airway
Rationale:
If a patient has no pulse you would start compressions
before attaching the AED for each of the AED answers
Open the airway prior to suctioning and suction prior to Bagging a patient
What is the desired effect of nitroglycerin?
Dilate the coronary arteries to improve blood flow and oxygen to the heart
What does a Radio Repeater do?
Improves the 2 way radio range.
Repeaters are used in high rise buildings to improve reception in the building and to improve distance
How does a SPO2 monitor work and what can contribute to false readings?
The infrared light reads the amount of red blood cells carrying oxygen in the blood.
Carbon monoxide has a stronger bond to hemoglobin (red blood cells) than oxygen and attaches to the red blood cells easier than oxygen leaving the oxygen stranded without a transport giving a false reading
Dispatch has called you to the scene of a U.S. mail truck that slid out of control on a dirt road and rolled over. Bystanders reported the truck has caught on fire and the driver is outside the truck trying to gather the dumped mail. As you arrive on scene the fire department is just getting the fire out and the driver of the truck is standing back watching the smoldering mess. You should:
A. Get a SAMPLE history on the driver
B. Do a focused assessment on the driver
C. Get the driver to sign a transport refusal form
D. Do a standing backboard technique on the driver
D. Do a standing backboard technique on the driver
Rationale: Given the mechanism of injury of a rollover, you should take c-spine precautions for this patient with a standing backboard technique. Adrenalin can mask serious injury and although the driver is walking around/ standing, that does not mean they are free of neck or spinal trauma.
The patient can refuse, but he will need to be informed of the possible consequences.
During an assessment of a 78 year old woman you find her skin to be cool, moist, and pale. What would you suspect? A. Hyperthermia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyperglycemia D. Hypoperfusion
D. Hypoperfusion
Rationale: Pale, Cool, skin suggests a lack of oxygen or hypoperfusion of the tissue
Hyperglycemia usually has flushed skin as well as hyperthermia
Tachypnea, tachycardia and normal blood pressure are signs of what stage of shock? A. Compensated B. Decompensated C. Irreversible D. Both A & B
A. Compensated
Rationale: In decompensated shock the blood pressure begins to drop along with altered level of consciousness
In irreversible shock the patient has a low heart rate, blood pressure and irregular breathing
Which of the following choices is a normal respiratory rate for school age children? A. 30-60 BPM B. 24-40 BPM C. 18-30 BPM D. 12-16 BPM
C. 18-30 BPM
School age is 6-12 years of age
For a trauma patient that is unconscious and you do not know the mechanism of injury, you should always assume the patient?
Has a spinal injury.
Rationale: Always take c-spine precautions on a patient if you do not know the reason for the altered LOC. You should assume the patient has a spinal injury.
An inflammation of the meninges caused by viral or bacterial infection and marked by intense headache and fever, sensitivity to light, and muscular rigidity, leading (in severe cases) to convulsions, delirium, and death.
Meningitis
signs/symptoms normally seen is fever, nuchal rigidity (stiff neck) and altered level of consciousness.
Rationale: Meningitis is a viral or bacterial infection/inflammation of the meningeal lining of the brain and spinal cord.
You have just arrived on scene of a single vehicle accident involving a truck that has slid off the road and rolled. Your patient was driving about 40 MPH when he hit an icy spot and went off the road rolling the vehicle one time. After completing your scene size up, which of the following treatment choices would be the most appropriate?
A. Check baseline vitals, do a focused exam on the patient’s chief complaint
B. Perform a rapid trauma assessment
C.Perform a detailed physical examination to uncover any life threatening injuries
D. Get a SAMPLE history and do a focused physical examination
B. Perform a rapid trauma assessment
Rationale: A rapid trauma assessment should be used first with a significant method of injury suspected. Going off the road and rolling a vehicle at 40 MPH is significant. The rapid assessment will help you determine and deal with any potential life threats.
You are called to the scene of a man down. Dispatch reports the man is pulseless and bystanders are doing CPR. According to the NREMT Cardiac Arrest Management/AED skill sheet, which of the following sequences is appropriate?
A. Check for responsiveness, Assess for breathing, Check carotid pulse , put your gloves on
B. Question the bystanders, direct them to stop CPR , check for pulse and then attach the AED, Begin chest compressions
C. Turn on power to AED, open the patient’s airway, insert an adjunct and then analyze the rhythm while doing chest compressions
D. Check breathing and pulse simultaneously, patient is pulseless and apneic, immediately begin chest compressions
D. Check breathing and pulse simultaneously, patient is pulseless and apneic, immediately begin chest compressions
Rationale The best answer is D. Scene safe and PPE should be done first but not listed in that order answer A, Chest compressions begin before attaching the AED answer B, An AED cannot analyze the rhythm while performing chest compressions answer C
A man has both legs burned on the front and back, along with the fronts of both arms. Approximately what percentage of his body was burned? A. 36 percent B. 45 percent C. 50 percent D. 54 percent
B. 45 percent
Rationale: Each leg is 18% and the front of each arm counts as 4.5 for a total of 45%.
It’s 7:30 a.m. and you arrive on scene of a two car collision involving at least 6 patients on a foggy corner of a fairly busy country road. The fire department is not there yet and there is smoke and flames showing from both cars. You can hear people crying and cars are already driving around the wreckage to get past the scene. What steps should you take?
A. Get the fire department en route, establish a safety zone and assist in keeping traffic a safe distance away
B. Begin extrication of the patients while your partner calls for more ambulances
C. Triage the most critically injured first and then extricate them in order of severity
D. Inform the patients that you are not allowed by law to enter the zone until it is made safe by law enforcement
A. Get the fire department en route, establish a safety zone and assist in keeping traffic a safe distance away
Rationale: Scene safety before all else in this case. The best thing you can do for everybody is assist in keeping the accident from getting even larger with traffic and crowd control until the proper authorities get there and you can administer medical attention in a safe environment.
What is the difference between Infarction of a cell and ischemia of a cell?
Infarction is tissue death (necrosis) caused by a reduction / stoppage in blood flow due to artery blockages, mechanical compression, rupture, or vasoconstriction
Ischemia is a restriction in blood supply to tissues, causing a shortage of oxygen and glucose needed for cellular metabolism (to keep tissue alive). Ischemia is generally caused by problems with blood vessels, with resultant damage to or dysfunction of tissue.
Signs and symptoms of Cushing's phenomenon include all of the following except: A. Hypertension B. Tachycardia C. Biot's respirations D. irregular respirations
B. Tachycardia
Rationale: Signs and symptoms of Cushing’s phenomenon include: hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations, central neurogenic hyperventilation, and Biot respirations. Cushing’s triad signs and symptoms are caused by a significant head trauma, also referred to as herniation syndrome. The intracranial pressure increases forcing the brain stem and the midbrain through the foramen magnum.
Which of the following is considered a sign?
A. The patient states she is dizzy
B. The patient says she took her insulin
C. There is blood in the vomit of the patient
D. The patient states she has a headache
C. There is blood in the vomit of the patient
Rationale: A sign is any medical or trauma assessment finding that can be seen, felt, or heard by the provider. A symptom is any medical or trauma condition that is described to the provider by the patient.
All of the following are contraindications of oral glucose except: A. Hypoglycemia B. Nausea C. Vomiting D. Decreased level of consciousness
Decreased level of consciousness
Rationale: Nausea, vomiting, and decreased levels of consciousness are contraindicated for the use of oral glucose. Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, is an indication for the use of oral glucose.
All of the following are indications for Nitroglycerin except?
A. Systolic BP > 100mmHg
B. Patient has their own nitro
C. Chest pain
D. Patient has taken vardenafil (Levitra, Staxyn) in the last 48 hours.
D. Patient has taken vardenafil (Levitra, Staxyn) in the last 48 hours.
Rationale: Levitra, Cialis, Viagra along with pulmonary hypertension drugs are contraindications to taking nitro.
A BP of < 100 mmHg is a contraindication.
Upon assessment of a 55 year old male, you find his blood pressure to be 124/75 his pulse is 122 and his respirations are 18. It would be stated that this man is? A. Tachycardic B. Tachypneic C. Hypotensive D. Hypertensive
A. Tachycardic
Rationale:
Tachypnea is indicated by a breathing rate greater than 20 breaths per minute.
Hypotension is low blood pressure Hypertension is high blood pressure which is in normal limits
You are assessing an 84 year old man. Upon auscultation of the lungs you discover crackles or rale sounds. He is complaining of chest pain and congestion. These signs and symptoms can indicate? A. An air embolism B. Left ventricular failure C. Right ventricular failure D. Tension pneumothorax
B. Left ventricular failure
Rationale: Inability of the heart to pump blood to the body via the left ventricle so it backs up into the lungs. If it was right side failure the blood would back up into the body i.e. The feet and legs with pedal edema
A 73 year old female was in her backyard gardening when she collapsed to the ground. Her husband told 911 that “she is breathing very fast and will not talk to me.” You arrive to find the woman lying on her side in the grass. She is breathing at 7 breaths per minute and her pulse is irregular and very thready. Her lungs also present with crackles upon auscultation As you are taking a blood pressure (88/66) the husband tells you that the woman has been having jaw pain and some weakness for approximately 3 days. What is the most likely cause of this woman’s condition and how would you treat her?
A. Hypoperfusion, High flow O2, and transport in Fowler’s position
B. Cardiac arrest, Treat for shock, and rapid transport
C. Septic shock, Transport in a position of comfort with high flow O2 via NRB
D. Cardiogenic shock, Assist ventilations, and transport
D. Cardiogenic shock, Assist ventilations, and transport
Rationale: This woman is likely experiencing pump failure and she is Hypoperfusing. Her poor respiration rate necessitates assisted ventilations. Transporting in the Fowler’s would not be appropriate as it would increase the work load on the heart. Gravity increases the difficulty of pumping blood to the brain when the head and chest are elevated.
A Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) will usually stop after? A. 30-60 minutes B. 1-2 days C. 10-15 minutes D. 8 Hours
C. 10-15 minutes
Rationale: Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) is a blockage of vessels in the brain that usually subsides after a period of 10 to 15 minutes. However, if the patient’s symptoms persist longer than 15 minutes, continue to treat the patient as if they are having a CVA (Cerebrovascular Accident). If resolution takes place within the 10-15 minutes, then chances are they have had a TIA. The final diagnosis of TIA is made if the symptoms resolve within 24 hours and is determined by a physician.
A 57 year old woman is complaining of chest pain. Her blood pressure is 109/88 and her respirations are at 22 per minute. What condition does the patient’s blood pressure indicate?
A. Paradoxical pressure
B. Low Pulse pressure
C. Systolic trans cardiac ischemia
D. Biot’s sign
B. Low Pulse pressure
Rationale: A pulse pressure is considered abnormally low if it is less than 25% of the systolic value. In this question it is about 20% of the systolic value. The pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic measurements of the blood pressure. 109 systolic - 88 diastolic = 21 mmHg. In trauma a low pulse pressure suggests significant blood loss. If the pulse pressure is extremely low, i.e. 25 mmHg or less, the cause may be low stroke volume, as in Congestive Heart Failure and/or shock. A low pulse pressure can also be caused by aortic valve stenosis and cardiac tamponade.
You arrive on scene of an unknown medical to find a man and a woman unconscious in their kitchen. You are finishing a rapid trauma assessment on the woman when your partner says she smells something odd and is feeling dizzy. Your best course of action would be to:
A. See if your partner can identify the odor
B. Remove yourself from the scene and advise dispatch of the situation
C. Call dispatch and request hazmat assistance while maintaining the patient’s airway
D. Place both patients on high flow O2 and pull them out of the house
B. Remove yourself from the scene and advise dispatch of the situation
Rationale: This situation would lead you to assume the area may be contaminated with a hazardous substance. At this point you should revert back to scene safety and remove yourself from the environment. While removing the patient with you may be possible, you would not want to put O2 on them first.
What should be done to a French tip catheter after suctioning a patient’s airway?
A. Put it in the sharps container
B. Take it home for your kids to play with
C. Throw it away
D. Flush with sterile water in preparation for additional suctioning
D. Flush with sterile water in preparation for additional suctioning
Rationale: Anticipating the need for additional suctioning should be followed by cleansing of the catheter with sterile water.
After the baby’s head has delivered you should?
A. Suction the nose then mouth and wait for the mother to push the rest of the baby out
B. Support the head and gently pull the baby out
C. Put the mother on high flow O2 and prepare to deliver the rest of the infant.
D. Suction the mouth and nose then check if the cord is wrapped around the infant’s neck
D. Suction the mouth and nose then check if the cord is wrapped around the infant’s neck
Rationale: As soon as the head has exited the vagina you should suction the mouth and nose and check to see that the cord is not wrapped around the baby’s neck.
Of the following, where shouldn't attention be focused during secondary assessment of the arms? A. Accessory muscle use B. Distal circulation C. Motor function D. Medical jewelry
A. Accessory muscle use
Rationale: During secondary assessment of the arms, attention should be focused on: Pain, distal circulation, sensation, motor function, track marks, and medical jewelry
Which list includes only the “Five Rights” of medication administration?
A. Patient, medication, indication, dose, and time.
B. Patient, medication, dose, route, and time.
C. Medication, dose, time, route, and documentation.
D. Medication, dose, generic name, route, and documentation
B. Patient, medication, dose, route, and time.
Rationale: The “Five Rights” of medication administration are: patient, medication, dose, route, and time.
You arrive on scene to find a 34-year-old male lying on the ground in a pool of blood. Bright, red blood is spurting from a large cut in his shirt sleeve and he is clutching a knife between his teeth. What should you do first?
A. Have your partner distract the patient while you take the knife from him
B. Inform the patient you will not hurt him and treat the injury
C. Leave the scene until police arrive to make the scene safe
D. Call for police backup and then treat the wound
C. Leave the scene until police arrive to make the scene safe
Rationale: Scene safety comes before all other choices and until the police arrive AND secure the scene you are to keep a safe distance and advise others to do the same. You are not in a position to render this scene safe.
Signs and symptoms of concussion include all of the following except:
A. Delayed motor and verbal responses
B. Inappropriate emotional responses
C. Inability to recall simple concepts and words
D. Discoloration around eyes and ears
D. Discoloration around eyes and ears
Rationale: Signs and symptoms of concussion include: delayed motor and verbal responses, inability to focus attention, lack of coordination, disorientation, inappropriate emotional responses, memory deficit, inability to recall simple concepts and words, nausea/vomiting, and headache. Discoloration around eyes and ears are not definitive signs of a concussion.
Cellular respiration and cellular metabolism are best described as:
A. The exchange of respiratory gases between the systemic capillaries and the surrounding tissue beds
B. The use of oxygen and carbohydrates to produce energy and the creation of carbon dioxide and water by-products
C. The exchange of respiratory gases between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillary bed
D. The use of oxygen to create hemoglobin in the blood stream
B. The use of oxygen and carbohydrates to produce energy and the creation of carbon dioxide and water by-products
Rationale: The exchange of gases between the capillaries and tissue beds is respiration but does not include metabolism
You are called to a home where a 91 year old man has had a syncopal episode and is vomiting. The caregiver who called 911 stated that the patient’s bowel movements have been bright red since yesterday. The patient has not complained of any pain, but is nauseated. What is most likely wrong with this man and which choice includes appropriate treatment steps?
A. He has a lower GI bleed and should be given O2 via nasal cannula at 4LPM and transported in a position of comfort while treating for shock
B. He has an upper GI bleed and should be transported sitting up with high flow O2 administered via a non rebreather mask at 15 LPM.
C. He has pancreatitis and should be given high flow O2 via NRB at 15 LPM. Rapid transport in a left lateral recumbent position while keeping him warm will help avoid shock.
D. He has had a TIA and should be given high flow oxygen via NRB and transported on his effected side to the nearest hospital
A. He has a lower GI bleed and should be given O2 via nasal cannula at 4LPM and transported in a position of comfort while treating for shock
Rationale: The bright red blood in the bowel movements is indicative of a lower GI bleed. Answer 1,2, and 3 all utilize an NRB to deliver high flow O2. Given that the patient is vomiting and nauseated, it would be advisable to use a nasal cannula, rather than an NRB, to help avoid potential airway compromise if the patient continues to vomit.
A child between 3-5 years of age would have normal vitals if they were?
A. 35 breaths a minute, pulse of 88, and Systolic BP of 100
B. 24 breaths a minute, pulse of 76, and Systolic BP of 98
C. 20 breaths a minute, pulse of 100, and Systolic BP of 110
D. 20 breaths a minute, pulse of 120, and Systolic BP of 120
C. 20 breaths a minute, pulse of 100, and Systolic BP of 110
Rationale: A child between 3 and 5 (preschool-age) should have respirations between 20-30, a pulse of 80-120, and a systolic BP of 80 - 110.
A train derailment has caused two tanker cars to explode and several others to begin leaking an unknown gas. The size of the affected area is large and crosses several county lines. According to NIMS, this type of MCI would benefit most from a: A. Unified Command System B. Multiple Command System C. Singular Command System D. Coordinated Command System
A. Unified Command System
Rationale: Unified Command Systems can involve many different agencies such as EMS, Fire Departments, Law Enforcement, City Managers, County Commissioners, etc.
leaving a patient after care has been initiated and before the patient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training.
abandonment
What are the quadrants of the abdomen and how many?
four divisions of the abdomen used to pinpoint the location of a pain or injury: RUQ the right upper quadrant LUQ the left upper quadrant RLQ the right lower quadrant LLQ the left lower quadrant
Also known as a scratch or scrape to the skin?
Abrasion
What is the term for a spontaneous (miscarriage) or
induced termination of pregnancy?
Abortion
a condition in which the placenta
separates from the uterine wall; a
cause of pre-birth bleeding. Usually with sudden back or abdominal pain
Abruptio Placentae
The route a poisons enters the body through unbroken skin is known as? A. Inhaled B. Injected C. absorbed D. ingestion
C. absorbed
The pelvic socket into which the ball at the proximal end of the femur fits to form the hip joint is known as? A. Acetabulum B. Acromioclavicular C. Anterior Cruciate joint D. Iliac ischium joint
A. Acetabulum
Rationale: Acromioclavicular is the shoulder joint, the Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is the knee ligament.
The shoulder joint where the acromion and the
clavicle meet is called?
Acromioclavicular joint
A substance that adsorbs many
poisons and prevents them from
being absorbed by the body is called?
Activated Charcoal
In which space of the body would you find the pancreas? A. Subriatal space B. Retroperitoneal space C. Pericardial space D. Peritoneal space
B. Retroperitoneal space
Rationale: The retroperitoneal space resides posterior to the peritoneal space and contains the kidneys as well as vessels.
You are dispatched to the residence of a 46-year-old patient complaining of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramping. She states that the onset occurred shortly after eating some cheesecake. Her only medical history is lactose intolerance. Her blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg. Her radial pulse is 94 beats per minute and her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute. She vomited 2 times prior to your arrival. From what condition is this patient suffering? A. Gastrointestinal reflux disease B. Diverticulitis C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Acute gastroenteritis
D. Acute gastroenteritis
Rationale:
GERD symptoms: Heartburn, regurgitation, dyspepsia, dysphagia, sore throat
Diverticulitis symptoms- Pain lower left side of abdomen, N/V, fever, constipation
Peptic ulcer- symptoms Burning pain that lasts weeks usually goes away after you take an antacid, Bloating
You are called to a nursing home for a patient with swelling to her legs. Upon arrival, you find a 76-year-old patient sitting in a wheelchair. Assessment confirms pitting edema to both lower legs. You are able to palpate a dorsalis pedal pulse bilaterally. Her skin is warm, pink and dry. Her lungs are clear bilaterally. Which of the following would you suspect? A. Deep vein Thrombosis B. Bilateral acute arterial occlusion C. Atherosclerosis D. Chronic CHF
D. Chronic CHF
Rationale:
DVT signs usually include swelling in the affected leg rarely in both legs. Pain in the leg.
Bilateral acute arterial occlusion is an embolism normally in the upper leg usually small
Atherosclerosis is plaque in the arteries
You are treating a 49-year-old patient who complains of intense pain between his shoulder blades radiating to his lower back. Pain began 10 minutes prior to your arrival while he was eating and has been constant. he rates the pain as 10 out of 10. Pain is described as a sharp tearing pain. He has no significant past medical history. Blood pressure is 130/76 mm Hg in the right arm and 78/48 in the left arm. Radial pulse in his right arm is 98 beats per minute and regular, and a respiratory rate of 20 and non labored. What condition would you suspect? A. Myocardial infarction B. Angina Pectoris C. Congestive heart failure D. Aortic dissection
D. Aortic dissection
Rationale:
An MI, Angina or CHF normally do not present with pain between the shoulders or interarm blood pressure differences.
The single largest cause of death for Americans is/are? A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. Cancer C. Coronary heart disease D. Traumatic injuries
C. Coronary heart disease
Your patient is a 52-year-old male complaining of dull, achy chest pains. He is alert & oriented but upon assessment, you notice his skin is pale, cool and clammy. What is your next step? A. Obtain a SAMPLE history B. Apply an AED C. Administer supplemental Oxygen D. Assist with his wife's nitroglycerin
C. Administer supplemental Oxygen
Rationale:
Patient is showing signs of shock need to treat life threatening first.
What is cardiac compromise? A. Angina B. Heart Attack C. A period when the heart stops D. Any type of heart problem
D. Any type of heart problem
An AED is used to treat patients in: A. Ventricular Fibrillation B. Asystole C. Pulseless Electrical activity D. Bradycardia
A. Ventricular Fibrillation
Rationale: When the heart is in VFib (ventricular fibrillation) the hearts electrical activity becomes disordered. The shock resets the electrical pathways.
What is the normal heart rate for a newborn ( 0- 3 months)? A. 140-160 B. 120-140 C. 100-120 D. 80-100
A. 140-160
Rationale: When you deliver a baby if the heart rate is below 100 you begin assisting respirations with a BVM (bag valve mask) if below 60 cardiac compressions begin
The two flap valve on the left side of the heart is called? A. Bivalve B. Aortic valve C. Bicuspid valve D. Pulmonary valve
C. Bicuspid valve
Rationale: The two flap valve is called the mitral valve, also known as the bicuspid valve. The three flap valve located in the right atrium is the Tricuspid valve.
The three flap valve in the right side of the heart is called? A. tri-valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Bicuspid valve
C. Tricuspid valve
Rationale: The tricuspid valve, or right atrioventricular valve is between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
The two flap valve on the left side of the heart is called the bicuspid valve.
The cardiovascular system is made up of three major components; which of the following is not a component of the cardiovascular system? A. Heart B. Myoglobin C. Blood vessels D. Blood
B. Myoglobin
Rationale: Myoglobin is a protein found in the muscle tissue not part of the cardiovascular system
Name the layers of the heart from the outside in? A. pericardium, endocardium, epicardium B. myocardium, epicardium, endocardium C. epicardium, myocardium, endocardium D. endocardium, myocardium, epicardium
C. epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
Rationale: the prefix “epi” means above on or over.
Myocardium is the middle layer “myo” means muscle.
the prefix “endo” means inward or within
Which of the following complaints is often used to describe chest pain resulting from a cardiac event?
A. Sharp stabbing pain which can be located with one finger
B. A ton of bricks on my chest
C. A tickling feeling
D. Sharp tearing pain between my shoulder blades
B. A ton of bricks on my chest
Rationale: Sharp stabbing pain usually all over can’t pinpoint, sharp tearing pain is most often an aortic dissection
What artery carries deoxygenated blood and which vein carries oxygenated blood? A. Pulmonary, Aorta B. Pulmonary, inferior vena cava C. Pulmonary, Pulmonary D. Aorta, Superior vena cava
C. Pulmonary, Pulmonary
Rationale: Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs. The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart
All of the following are blood components responsible for clot formation except? A. Platelets B. Plaque C. Thrombin D. Fibrin
B. Plaque
Rationale:
Plaque is formed with fat, calcium and other substances combined with cholesterol.
Where does blood travel when it leaves the right ventricle of the heart?
A. To the pulmonary veins, then to the lungs
B. To the Aorta, then out to the body
C. To the vena cava then to the left atrium
D. To the pulmonary arteries, then to the lungs
D. To the pulmonary arteries, then to the lungs
Rationale:
Deoxygenated blood from the body enters the right atrium then to the right ventricle then through the pulmonary artery to the lungs.
Research shows that most cases of inappropriate delivered shocks from the AED have been caused by? A. Mechanical interference B. Improperly charged batteries C. Human Error D. Malfunctioning defibrillator pads
C. Human Error
Rationale:
Almost all documented cases of inappropriate shocks have been attributed to human error, such as using the AED in a moving vehicle or operating it on a patient with a pulse.
Which statement about the assessment of a patient with cardiac compromise is correct?
A. You cannot determine the degree of cardiac damage in the field
B. You should not ask patients about nitroglycerin or medications
C. The purpose of the focused history is to determine whether to use the AED
D. Patients usually describe cardiac pain as localized and moderately severe
A. You cannot determine the degree of cardiac damage in the field
Rationale: It is impossible to determine the actual degree of tissue damage in the field, so the purpose of the focused assessment is to gather information for the receiving facility. You should always ask about medications; it is the M of SAMPLE. The focused history has nothing to do with AED use. Cardiac pain has all sorts of presentations, making it difficult to differentiate from other conditions.
The Left Atrium:
A. receives blood from the arteries of the body
B. receives blood from the vena cava
C. receives blood from the pulmonary vein
D. pumps blood out to the body through the Aorta
C. receives blood from the pulmonary vein
Rationale: The right atrium receives blood from the vena cava, the right ventricle pumps blood into the pulmonary artery and the left ventricle pumps blood to the Aorta to the body
You should apply the AED pads to your patient when he? A. complains of chest pain B. Is unconscious and breathing C. Is pulseless and apneic D. is having a seizure
C. Is pulseless and apneic
Rationale: An AED should be attached only if a patient has no pulse and is not breathing
What are the two lower chambers of the heart called? A. Ventricles B. Atriums C. Arterioles D. Venules
A. Ventricles
Rationale: the upper chambers of the heart are the atrium, arterioles and venules are the smaller arteries and veins
You are dispatched to a 65-year old male who is complaining of severe chest pain, and has a history of cardiac problems. What is the primary role of medical direction in this scenario? A. Medical direction serves no purpose B. Give authorization for interventions C. Talk to and calm the patient D. Talk to the family and calm them
B. Give authorization for interventions
Rationale: If the patient needs assistance with medications medical direction can give authorization
You are dispatched to a 70-year old male who is complaining of chest pain, and has a history of cardiac problems. If you assist in the administration of nitroglycerin, what is the maximum dosage to be given, without additional medical direction? A. 2 tablets B. 3 tablets C. 4 tablets D. 5 tablets
B. 3 tablets
Rationale: The maximum dosage amount is three tablets, or sprays, without additional medical direction.
You are dispatched to a 75-year old female patient who is complaining of extreme chest pain, and trouble breathing. This patient is a high-capacity chain-smoker, and over-weight. Which of the following is most likely to be present? A. Pulmonary edema B. Coronary artery disease C. Pulseless electrical activity D. Ventricular Fibrillation
B. Coronary artery disease
Rationale: With this patient you could suspect many things, however the best choice is coronary artery disease. PEA and VFib are lethal electrical rhythms its possible to have pulmonary edema but extreme chest pain is not normally a symptom
You are dispatched to a 21-year old male patient who has an elevated pulse. When asked what he was doing, he replies, "I was just running". From the given information, what do you suspect? A. the patient needs an AED B. Nothing this is normal at this point C. The patient needs to be transported D. The patient needs a nitro tablet
B. Nothing this is normal at this point
Rationale: Try not to look too deep into the question. Only look at the facts. he is not pulseless (AED)
You are dispatched to a 75-year old female patient who is currently in cardiac arrest. After one shock via the AED she begins breathing at 15 breaths per minute, and has a strong carotid pulse; what is your next step?
A. Assist ventilations with a bag valve mask
B. Provide supplemental oxygen via Non rebreather mask
C. Continue to administer shocks
D. Request a non transport and leave the scene
B. Provide supplemental oxygen via Non rebreather mask
Rationale:
The next step after shocking with the AED, and the patient is breathing and has a pulse, is to apply high concentration oxygen via NRB. If the respiratory rate is above or below the minimum and maximum limits, however, you would assist with a bag valve mask.
You are dispatched to a 50-year old male patient who is having extreme chest pain. Of the following, which is a contraindication to administer nitro?
A. The patient has a prescription
B. Medical direction approves
C. The patient has a systolic pressure greater than 100
D. The patient has a systolic pressure less than 100
D. The patient has a systolic pressure less than 100
Rationale: Because Nitro is a Vasodilator it should not be administered to a patient with a systolic blood pressure of below 100, because it may cause their blood pressure to drop to a dangerous level.
You are dispatched to a 53-year old female patient who has extreme chest pain. Upon gaining medical direction to administer nitroglycerin, you administer one tablet. What action should you now perform?
A. If chest pain continues administer a second nitro
B. Begin transport
C. Check blood pressure
D. continue with the SAMPLE history
C. Check blood pressure
Rationale: Because nitro is a vasodilator you should always check the patient’s blood pressure after giving nitro and before giving another dose.
Unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient’s consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient.
Abandonment
The body cavity that contains the major organs of digestion and excretion. It is located below the diaphragm and above the pelvis
Abdomen
A rapidly fatal condition in which the walls of the aorta in the abdomen weaken and blood leaks into the layers of the vessel, causing it to bulge
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm also known as (AAA)
Airway, Breathing and Circulation
ABC’s
Four divisions of the abdomen used to pinpoint the location of the pain or injury: RUQ right upper quadrant, LUQ left upper quadrant, RLQ right lower quadrant, LLQ left lower quadrant.
Abdominal quadrants
Spontaneous (miscarriage) or induced termination of pregnancy
Abortion
A loss or damage of the superficial layer of skin as a result of a body part rubbing or scraping across a rough or hard surface; a scratch or scrape
Abrasion
The preferred method to dislodge a severe airway obstruction in adults and children; also called the Heimlich maneuver.
Abdominal-thrust maneuver
Motion of a limb away from the midline.
Abduction
A condition in which the placenta separates from the Uterine wall; a cause of pre-birth bleeding
Abruptio Placentae
The process by which medications or poisons pass through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream.
Absorption
Gaining access to an enclosed area and reaching a patient
Access
The secondary muscles of respiration. This may include the neck muscles, chest muscles and the abdominal muscles.
Accessory Muscles
The pelvic socket into which the ball at the proximal end of the femur fits to form the hip joint
Acetabulum
A pathologic condition that results from the accumulation of acids in the blood and body tissues
Acidosis
A simple joint where the bony projections of the scapula and the clavicle meet at the top of the shoulder
Acromioclavicular Joint (AC Joint)
The therapeutic effect of a medication on the body
Action
An oral medication that binds and absorbs ingested toxins in the gastrointestinal tract for treatment of some poisonings and medication overdoses
Activated Charcoal
A technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to its neutral position or beyond (decompression)
CPR- Active compression-decompression
Application of an external heat source to rewarm the body of a hypothermic patient
Active rewarming
A condition of sudden onset of pain within the abdomen, usually indicating peritonitis.
Acute abdomen
A blanket term used to represent any symptoms related to the, lack of Oxygen, (ischemia) in the heart muscle also called cardiac compromise
Acute Coronary syndrome
A heart attack; death of heart muscle following obstruction to it; in this context the attack is new or happening right now
Acute Myocardial infarction
A firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx. It is more prominent in men than women. It is also called the Thyroid cartilage
Adam’s apple
A state of overwhelming obsession or physical need to continue to use a substance.
Addiction
Motion of a limb “toward” the midline
Adduction
The nucleotide involved in energy metabolism; used to store energy
Adenosine Triphosphate or ATP
Children between the ages of 13 to 18 years
Adolescents
Endocrine glands located at the top of the kidneys that release adrenaline when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system
Adrenal glands
Pertaining to nerves that release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, or noradrenaline; also pertains to the receptors acted on by norepinephrine
Adrenergic
The process of binding or sticking to a surface
Adsorption
Root word for Heart?
CARDI
Root word for Liver?
Hepat
Root word for Kidney?
Nephr
Root word for nerves?
Neur
Root word for Mind?
Psych
Root word for chest?
Thorac
What does the prefix “Hyper” stand for?
Over, excessive, high example- Hyperventilation fast respirations
What does the prefix “Hypo” stand for?
under, below normal example Hypothermia- low temperature
What does the prefix “Tachy” stand for?
rapid, fast example Tachycardia- fast heart rate
What does the prefix “Brady” stand for?
slow example Bradypnea- slow breathing
What does the prefix “PRE” stand for?
before example prenatal before birth
What does the prefix “Post” stand for?
after, behind example postsurgical- after surgery
What is the meaning of the suffix “al”?
pertaining to example- syncopal- pertaining to the loss of conciousness
What is the meaning of the suffix “algia”?
pertaining to pain- example- Myalgia- muscle pain
What is the meaning of the suffix “ectomy”?
surgical removal of- example appendectomy- surgical removal of appendix
What is the meaning of the suffix “ic”?
pertaining to - example- Diaphoretic- pertaining to sweat
What is the meaning of the suffix “itis”
inflammation- example- epiglottitis- inflammation of the epiglottis
What is the meaning of the suffix “logy”?
study of- example- cardiology study of the heart
What is the meaning of the suffix “logist”?
specialist- example pulmonologist, specialist in diseases of the lungs
What is the meaning of the suffix “megally”?
enlargement- example cardiomegaly, enlargement of the heart
What is the meaning of the suffix “Meter”?
measuring instrument- example sphygmomanometer, instrument to measure blood pressure
What is the meaning of the suffix “oma”?
tumor (usually referring to cancer)- example Lymphoma, cancer of the lymphatic system
What is the meaning of the suffix “pathy”?
disease- example- nephropathy, disease of the kidneys
What is the meaning of the prefix “semi”?
Half or partial- example semiconscious, partially concious
What is the meaning of the prefix “Hemi”?
Half, one sided- example- Hemiplegia, paralysis of one side of the body
What is the meaning of the prefix “Ambi”?
Both- example- Ambidextrous, able to use either hand equally well
What is the meaning of the prefix “Pan”?
All, entire- example- Pandemic, an epidemic over a wide area
What does the root word “cyan’ describe?
Blue- example- Cyanosis, blue discoloration of the skin
What does the root word “leuk/o” describe?
White- example- Leukocyte, white blood cells that fight infection
What does the root word “erythr/o describe?
Red- example- erythrocyte, red blood cells that carry hemoglobin to carry oxygen.
What does the root word “cirrh/o describe?
yellow-orange- example- cirrhosis, inflammation of the liver causing yellow orange pigmentation of the skin/eyes
What does the root word “melan/o?
Black- example- Melana, black tarry stool typically caused by upper GI bleeding
What does the root word “alb”?
White- example- Albino, a person lacking skin pigmentation
What is the meaning of the prefix “ab”?
away, from- example abduction, away from the point of reference
What is the meaning of the prefix “ad”?
to, toward- example- adduction, toward the center
What is the meaning of the prefix “de”?
down from, away- example- decay, to waste away
What is the meaning of the prefix “circum”?
around, about- example- circumferential burn, a burn around the entire area (arm, chest, abdomen)
What is the meaning of the prefix “peri”?
around- example- pericardium, the sac around the heart
What is the meaning of the prefix “trans”?
across- example- Transverse colon, the middle part of the large intestine, passing across the abdomen from right to left below the stomach.
What is the meaning of the prefix “EPI”?
Above, upon, on- example- Epigatsric, above or over the stomach
What is the meaning of the prefix “supra”?
above, over- example- supraventricular tachycardia, An abnormally fast heart rhythm arising from improper electrical activity in the upper part of the heart.
What is the meaning of the prefix “retro”?
behind- example- retroperitoneal, the area behind the peritoneum
What is the meaning of the prefix “sub”?
under, beneath- example, subcutaneous, the lowest level of skin
What is the meaning of the prefix “infra”?
below, under- example- infraclavicular, situated or occurring below the clavicle
What is the meaning of the prefix “para”?
near, beside, beyond, apart from- example paraplegia, involving impairment in motor or sensory function of the lower limbs
What is the meaning of the prefix “contra”?
against, opposite- example- contraindicated, something that is not indicated
What is the meaning of the prefix “ecto”?
out, outside- example- ectopic pregnancy, pregnancy that occurs outside the uterus
What is the meaning of the prefix “endo”?
within- example- endoscopy, examining inside someone’s body
What is the meaning of the prefix “extra”?
outside, in addition- example- extraneous, outside the organism and not belonging to it
What is the meaning of the prefix “intra”?
Inside, within- example- intraosseous infusion, injecting directly into the bone marrow
What is the meaning of the prefix “ipsi”?
same- example ipsilateral, on or affecting the same side
The Nucleotide involved in energy metabolism; used to store energy?
Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)
Children between the ages of 12 and 18 years of age
Adolescents
Endocrine glands located at the top of the kidneys that release adrenaline when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system.
Adrenal glands
Pertaining to nerves that release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, or noradrenaline; also pertains to the receptors acted on by norepinephrine.
Adrenergic
To bind or stick to a surface
AdsorptionReasoning example: many medications bind with activated charcoal
Written documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient become unable to make decisions; also called a living will or health care directive
Advance Directive
An individual who has trained in specific aspects of advanced life support, such as IV therapy, and the administration of certain emergency medications
Advanced EMT (AEMT)
Advanced life saving procedures, including cardiac monitoring, administration of IV fluids and medications and the use of advanced airway adjuncts
Advanced Life Support (ALS)
Abnormal breath sounds such as wheezing, stridor, rhonchi, and crackles
Adventitious breath sounds
Metabolism that can proceed only in the presence of oxygen.
Aerobic metabolism
The force or resistance against which the heart pumps
Afterload
Occasional, gasping breaths that occur after the heart has stopped; seen in dying patients
Agonal respirations (GASPS)
