ALL Questions Flashcards

(692 cards)

1
Q

In an Adult, what is the total percentage of burned area burned if the patient’s entire arm, from shoulder to hand, was burned?

A

9%

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2
Q

A type of radiation that is very penetrating and easily passes through the body and solid materials?

A

Gamma

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3
Q

A type of radiation that has greater penetration and can travel much further than alpha particles? They can penetrate the skin but be blocked by simple protective clothing.

A

Beta

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4
Q

What are the 5 types of shock?

A

Cardiogenic, Hypovolemic, Anaphalactic, Septic and Neurogenic

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5
Q

How do you remove a Singer from a bee?

A

Scrape with a credit card

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6
Q

S/S Suddenly complains of the worst headache in their lives Think?

A

Hemorrhagic stroke

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7
Q

S/S Facial drooping, headache, confusion, pronator drift think?

A

Stroke

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8
Q

What is the term for unlawful touching?

A

Battery

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9
Q

What is the medical term for Feverish; pertaining to or marked by fever?

A

Febrile

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10
Q

The medical term for excessive constriction of the pupil of the eye?

A

Miosis

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11
Q

S/S a pregnant women with a high blood pressure?

A

Pre-eclampsia

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12
Q

What is Menorrhea?

A

Normal menstrual or vaginal bleeding

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13
Q

S/S Acute abdominal pain, can be referred to the shoulder accompanied by vaginal bleeding in a woman of child bearing age, rapid and weak pulse, low blood pressure, absent menstrual period.

A

Ectopic pregnancy

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14
Q

What is ROSC?

A

Return Of Spontaneous Circulation- person regains a pulse

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15
Q

What are the Shockable rhythms an AED recognizes?

A

Ventricular Fibrillation and Pulseless Ventricular tachycardia

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16
Q

What is the best way to prevent the spread of communicable diseases?

A

Hand Washing

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17
Q

S/S 87 y.o. male with difficulty breathing supine in bed with agonal respirations after PPE and scene safe, What is your first intervention?

A

Ventilate

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18
Q

What are Braxton-Hicks contractions?

A

Irregular contractions not sustained not indicative of impending delivery- false labor

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19
Q

When may delivery be imminent?

A

When contractions last 30 seconds to a minute and are 2-3 minutes apart

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20
Q

In neonate resuscitation when do you initiate Bag valve resuscitation?

A

When the pulse rate is below 100 beats per minute.

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21
Q

In neonate resuscitation when do you initiate Compressions?

A

When the pulse rate is less than 60 BPM

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22
Q

What are the first steps in neonatal resuscitation?

A

Drying, warming. positioning, suctioning. Tactile stimulation

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23
Q

How do you control vaginal bleeding after birth?

A

Place sanitary napkin over the vaginal opening. Do not place anything inside. Massage the Uterus. Have the mother begin nursing.

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24
Q

What is the care for a mother with a prolapsed cord?

A

Elevate the hips, keep the mother warm, keep the baby’s head away from the cord, wrap the cord in a sterile moist towel, do not push the cord back in. transport mom to the hospital continuing to keep pressure on the head off the cord

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25
If meconium is seen in the amniotic fluid what do you suction first?
Mouth then nose.
26
Elevated blood pressure, excessive weight gain, excessive swelling to the face, ankles, hands and feet altered mental status, headache, or unusual neurologic findings in a pregnant female>
Pre-eclampsia
27
Seizures in pregnancy Think?
Eclampsia
28
In the Glasgow Coma scale what are the 3 behavioral Reponses measured?
Eye opening response, Verbal response and motor response
29
In the Glasgow Coma scale what are the 4 responses under eye opening and the scores?
Spontaneously 4, to speech 3, to pain 2, no response 1
30
In the Glasgow Coma scale what are the 5 responses to verbal response?
``` Oriented to person, place and time -5 Confused -4 Inappropriate words -3 Incomprehensible sounds -2 No Response -1 ```
31
In the Glasgow Coma scale what are the 6 responses to motor response?
``` Obeys commands -6 Moves to localized pain -5 Flexion withdrawal from pain -4 Abnormal flexion (decorticate) -3 Abnormal flexion (decerabate) -2 No Response -1 ```
32
In the Glasgow Coma scale what is considered a comatose patient?
8 or less
33
In the Glasgow Coma scale what is considered a totally unresponsive patient?
3
34
In the Glasgow Coma scale what is considered the highest score?
15
35
During Adult CPR what is the compression to ventilation rate?
30:2
36
During Child CPR what is the compression to ventilation rate?
15:2
37
During neonatal resuscitation what is the preferred technique for compressions due to higher blood pressure and coronary perfusion with less rescuer fatigue
The 2 thumb encircling technique
38
What is the compression to ventilation rate for neonatal resuscitation?
3:1- Why, the compromise of gas exchange is nearly always the primary cause
39
The signs of bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular breathing in a head injury is called?
Cushing's Reflex
40
What is a late sign of shock?
Decreased blood pressure
41
A policy or protocol issued by the medical director that authorizes EMT's to perform particular skills in certain situations is called?
Standing orders
42
What volume of blood loss is considered serious in an average adult?
1000cc
43
What is the difference between a Thrombus and an Embolus?
A Thrombus is a fibrinous clot formed in and obstructs a blood vessel; an embolus is a fibrinous clot that forms elsewhere in the body and lodges in a vessel.
44
What is a tension pneumothorax?
An accumulation of air in the pleural space under pressure, compressing the lungs and decreasing venous return to the heart. As intrathoracic pressure increases, the patient develops hypotension, tracheal deviation and neck vein distension.
45
An accumulation of blood in the sac around the heart is called?
Pericardial tamponade
46
After you deliver the first shock with an AED, the patient is still pulseless, what should you do next?
Perform 2 minutes or 5 cycles of CPR
47
What are the Shockable rhythms for the AED?
Ventricular Tachycardia and Ventricular Fibrillation
48
The 2 types of rhythms that can be shocked by the AED are Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia and Atrial Fibrillation, True or False?
False- They are Pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular Fibrillation
49
An infant or child who exhibits wheezing, increased breathing effort on exhalation, or rapid breathing without stridor probably has?
A lower airway disease ( bronchitis or asthma )
50
What is the required amount of suctioning that a suction unit must provide?
30 L/min, 300 mmhg
51
What does the pneumonic DCAP-BTLS stand for?
Deformities, Contusions, Abrasions, Punctures, Burns, Tenderness Lacerations, Swelling
52
What does the pneumonic OPQRST stand for?
Onset, Provokes, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Time
53
What does the pneumonic SAMPLE stand for?
Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last Meal, Events that led to the call -used to determine history
54
What stage of labor does full dilation of the cervix occur?
First
55
S/S 64 y.o. c/o trouble breathing, chest pain and congestion. lung sounds crackles bilateral. What is a probable cause?
Left ventricular failure- Rationale these are signs of possible failure of the left ventricle. The pump portion of the heart is unable to pump efficiently and fluid begins to back up into the lungs.
56
What heart rate is considered bradycardic?
Heart rate less than 60 BPM
57
Which is the best answer for a man down in cardiac arrest. * Turn on AED, attach AED, check pulse and initiate analysis * BSI, Check pulse, begin compressions, open airway * BSI, check pulse, open airway, begin compressions
BSI, check pulse, begin compressions, open airway
58
Which of the following is not a category of shock? | Irreversible, decompensated, compensated, reversible
reversible
59
What is a side effect of nitroglycerin? | vessel constriction, pitting edema, vessel dilation, headache
Headache | Patients often get headaches from nitro. vessel dilation occurs but is not a side effect it is the desired effect.
60
What is hypovolemic shock?
Hypovolemic shock, also known as hemorrhagic shock, is a life-threatening condition that results when you lose more than 20 percent (one-fifth) of your body’s blood or fluid supply.
61
What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in children?
Respiratory arrest
62
What does nitroglycerin do to the vasculature of the body?
Dilates them to ease the workload on the heart
63
What is the Glasgow coma scale for a patient with no eye response, incomprehensible sounds, and decorticate posturing?
(6) no eye response-1, Incomprehensible sounds-2, and decorticate posturing-3
64
What is Decorticate posturing?
Decorticate posture is an abnormal posturing in which a person is stiff with bent arms, clenched fists, and legs held out straight. The arms are bent in toward the body and the wrists and fingers are bent and held on the chest. Think of de-cor-ticate as to the core!
65
Your patient is feeling sick to their stomach and is bradycardic. What type of response is this? Sympathetic, Parasympathetic, vagal, emotional
Parasympathetic- it is responsible for slowing the heart rate and intestinal activity
66
During diastole what do the ventricles do?
Fill with blood- This is the relaxing phase of the heart
67
During Systole what are the ventricles doing?
The ventricles contract sending blood to the body and lungs
68
In a multi casualty accident with 2 vehicles how would you triage the following patients for transport, none are trapped? an 86 y.o slumped against the wheel, a 7 y.o with facial lacerations only, a 40 y.o. pregnant woman unconscious, a teenager c/o nausea with an altered level of consciousness, a second teenager who had a seizure earlier and was being transported to the doctor was belted with no sign of injury.
The 86 y.o. and the pregnant female should be transported first due to LOC (level of consciousness), the teenager with an altered level of consciousness should be next then the 7 y.o. and the teenager who had a seizure earlier
69
Shock from a severe infection is called?
Sepsis
70
Blood moves from the left ventricle to the? Lungs, Inferior vena cava, aortic arch, right atrium
Aortic arch-- | Right ventricle to the lungs, Inferior vena cava to right atrium,
71
Resuscitation should not be started if obvious signs of death are present. These signs include all except? A.Rigor Mortis B. Putrefaction of body C.Absence of heart beat D. Dependent lividity
``` C. Absence of heart beat. Rationale: Rigor mortis -limbs of corpse stiffen Putrefaction of body- decomposing Lividity- pooling of blood to lower areas of body also called livor mortis livor- (bluish) mortis- (of death) ```
72
The recommended field treatment for a patient with cardiac tamponade is? Compressions at 100 per minute transcutaneous pacing rapid transport to ER pericardiocentesis
Rapid transport to ER Rationale: removing the fluid surrounding the heart with a needle is the definitive treatment but not recommended in the field and beyond EMT scope of practice. Rapid transport is the most appropriate treatment.
73
You and your partner Greg are called to a hockey arena where a fan was struck in the side of the chest with a hockey puck that was hit over the protective glass and into the crowd. The man is having a painful time breathing at about 16 a minute. He says his ribs really hurt. What should your treatment include? A. A chest compression wrap while having the patient maintain his exhaled state B. Bag valve mask with oxygen attached C. Sweeping the tongue out of the way to look for airway obstructions D. High flow O2 with NRM and rapid transport
D. High flow O2 with NRM and rapid transport Rationale: As long as the patient is able to talk and keep their respirations within range, then high flow O2 and transport would be your best choice.
74
``` Which of the following assessment considerations should not be included for facial and eye injuries? A. Inspection B. Palpation of cranial bones C. Eye examination D. Palpation of facial bones ```
B. Palpation of cranial bones Rationale: Assessment considerations for facial and eye injuries include: Inspection, palpation of facial bones, and eye examination.
75
``` Where on the patient are you going to take the pulse rate via the radial artery? A. Top of the foot B. Thumb side of the wrist C. Behind the ankle D. Side of the neck ```
B. Thumb side of the wrist Rationale: Top of the foot is the Dorsalis pedis Behind the ankle is the posterior tibial side of the neck is the carotid
76
Unique anatomy, physiology, and pathophysiology considerations of geriatric patients include all of the following except: A. Changes in musculoskeletal system makes older patients susceptible to trauma B.Trauma is infrequent in the elderly due to inactivity C. Circulation changes lead to inability to maintain normal vital signs during hemorrhage D. Curvature of upper spine may require padding during spinal immobilization
B. Trauma is infrequent in the elderly due to inactivity Rationale: changes in pulmonary, cardiovascular, neurologic, and musculoskeletal systems make older patients susceptible to trauma; circulation changes lead to inability to maintain normal vital signs during hemorrhage and blood pressure drops sooner; multiple medications are more common and may affect assessment - especially vital signs and blood clotting; brain shrinks leading to higher risk of cerebral bleeding following head trauma; skeletal changes cause curvature of the upper spine that may require padding during spinal immobilization; loss of strength, sensory impairment, and medical illness increase risk of falls.
77
``` When you correct a problem in the field, what is this called? A. Blood pressure B. Atelectasis C. Intervention D. Miosis ```
C. Intervention
78
An unconscious male is found lying in a pool of blood with an arterial bleed on the left leg. What type of shock is this man suffering from?
Hypovolemic Shock
79
What is Conjunctiva?
A thin layer of membrane that covers the eye Aqueous Humor-the clear fluid filling the space in the front of the eyeball between the lens and the cornea. IRIS- is a thin, circular structure in the eye, responsible for controlling the diameter and size of the pupil and thus the amount of light reaching the retina.
80
``` Managing a burn includes all of the following except? A. Airway management B. Apply a Dry, sterile dressing C. Rule of Palm D. Prevent hypothermia ```
C. Rule of Palm Rationale: Rule of palm is a way of measuring the amount of burn not a treatment
81
S/S male 18 y.o. at school with glass in eye from test tube exploding in face with blood coming from the eye. What is the best treatment? A. Bandage the eye with a pressure dressing B. Remove the glass from the eye C. Transport with high flow O2 D. Cover the eye with a paper cup, bandage and cover the other eye.
D. Cover the eye with a paper cup, bandage and cover the other eye. Rationale: pressure dressing would cause more damage, not supposed to remove penetrating objects, just transport would cause more discomfort for patient especially if they try to look around.
82
Which of the following would be a low energy penetrating wound? A. Stab with a knife B. .22 Cal GSW C. Blunt trauma with a bat D. nail in hand from a pneumatic nail gun
A. Stab with a knife Rationale: .22 Caliber bullet is low energy in a gun shot, a baseball bat is a blunt trauma not penetrating, A pneumatic nail gun is higher energy than a knife
83
Your patient struck a bus with his head while on his bicycle. On Physical exam you observe unequal pupils and irregular respirations. The BP is 180/90 and a pulse rate of 60. What do these signs describe?
Cushing's Reflex Rationale: High blood pressure in head trauma with a low pulse rate and irregular respirations. brain calls for more pressure for ^O2, low pulse rate because BP too high (Aortic baroreceptors), irregular breaths -brain herniating through the foramen magnum
84
The patient has pain in the chest from a baseball striking him in the chest. His pressure is 130/60 pulse of 100 and a bruise to the left lateral chest. What is the symptom?
Pain in the chest is a symptom | Rationale: Blood pressure- sign, Pulse- sign Bruise is a sign
85
``` Signs and symptoms of rattlesnake bites include all of the following except: A. Progressive weakness B. Hives C. Pain at site D. Seizures ```
B. Hives Rationale: Hives is a sign of an allergic reaction which is caused by an allergen not a venomous bite.
86
A primary survey is done on a patient to?
To reveal life threatening injuries
87
What are the 2 ways needed to provide adequate C-spine stabilization with a c-collar?
Holding manual stabilization or securing the patient appropriately to the backboard.
88
You are treating a patient who is "not feeling right". Which of the following is considered a sign? A. The patient shows you a contusion on their head B. She says she is dizzy and feels like vomiting C. She tells you she ate a whole bottle of sleeping pills D. The patient states that she has a headache
A. The patient shows you a contusion on their head Rationale: Feeling dizzy and stating she has a headache are symptoms. Telling you she took a bunch of pills is history. The visible contusion on her head is a sign because it is objective and you can verify it's existence visually.
89
Shock caused by a severe infections is known as?
Sepsis
90
When a patient's blood pressure drops to a dangerously low level after administration of nitro this is considered a?
Side Effect
91
What is CAD and which vessels of the body does it affect?
Coronary Artery disease and Arteries
92
You have a patient complaining of severe chest pain. The patient is diaphoretic and has a blood pressure of 96/55. You have the patients prescriptions including nitroglycerin. You contact medical control and are ordered to give the patient 1 nitro tablet sublingual. What would you do? A. Repeat the blood pressure and give the nitro B. Repeat the blood pressure and ask again what you should do C. Give the nitro as instructed D. Attach the AED then give the Nitro.
B. Repeat the blood pressure and ask again what you should do. Rationale: A side effect of nitroglycerine is a drop in blood pressure which could cause the patient to go into cardiac arrest. By repeating the blood pressure this confirms your last pressure and allows medical control to hear your concern.
93
You are called for an 86.y.o. male with a possible stroke he is c/o trouble putting on his coat and pants. What are the three things you would use to verify your suspicion of stroke?
Speech, Facial droop and arm drift. Rationale: Cincinnati stroke scale any one failure has a high likelihood of stroke. Remember always check blood sugar as the symptoms mimic a stroke
94
Your patient is an 18 month old boy who, as reported by his mother, is "acting strange". You arrive to find the child reclined in his mother's arms. "I don't know what's wrong with him," she says. "I came out of the bathroom and he started making odd sounds and had spit running out of his mouth." What is the first thing you should do? A. Roll the child into a recovery position and begin suctioning the oropharynx. B. Get a general impression of the child by visually assessing the quality of his respirations, his skin color, and his appearance. C. Notify the pediatric ward at the hospital of the situation and do a rapid transport with high flow O2 via NRB. D. Insert a properly measured OPA to secure the airway. Pad the child's shoulders to align the airway.
B. Get a general impression of the child by visually assessing the quality of his respirations, his skin color, and his appearance. Rationale: Initially, you want to form a general impression of the patient using the pediatric assessment triangle. (PAT) PAT is Work of Breathing, Skin Circulation, Appearance. The pediatric assessment triangle is used to form a rapid general impression of a child without making physical contact. Look at the child's appearance and muscle tone. Look at the work of breathing for signs of respiratory distress. Tachypnea or retractions of sternum and or intercostal muscles is a sign of respiratory difficulty. Look at the skin as a quick reference for circulation. Pallor can be a sign of poor circulation.
95
``` What would you look for in an assessment of an emergency related to the nervous system? A. Level of activity B. Cardiogenic C. Symmetry of response D. Scene size up ```
C. Symmetry of response Rationale: Symmetry of the sensory systems, motor systems, as well as mental status, and speech should be kept in mind when evaluating. All part of Cincinnati Stroke scale
96
``` All are obvious signs of death, except? A. Putrefaction B. Livor Mortis C. Cyanosis D. Rigor Mortis ```
C. Cyanosis Rationale: Cyanosis is a lack of oxygen to the tissues Livor mortis, is the discoloration of the skin due to the pooling of blood in the dependent parts of the body following death. Rigor Mortis, is one of the recognizable signs of death, caused by chemical changes in the muscles post mortem, which cause the limbs of the corpse to stiffen. Putrefaction, is the decomposition of organic matter
97
Your patient is a 14-year-old girl who is complaining of vaginal pain after falling onto the center post of her bike. She is alone and very scared. She has called the accident in on her cell phone and stated that she is bleeding very badly and feeling faint. Besides treating for shock, what other things should you consider with this patient? A. Transport without treating patient because she is a minor B. Inform her she is having her menstrual period C. Have a female EMT respond for patient modesty D. Transport in the fowlers position.
C. Have a female EMT respond if possible. Rationale: A female EMT may not always be available but a good consideration. Heavy bleeding after an accident with a patient feeling faint would be a contraindication to sitting a patient up or transporting without direct pressure to the wound and a dressing
98
``` If a patient was feeling nauseated this would likely be a ___________ response. If a person was tachycardic it would likely be a _________ response. A. sympathetic, parasympathetic B. parasympathetic, sympathetic C. Fight or flight, nervous response D. gag, parasympathetic ```
B. parasympathetic, sympathetic Rationale: Parasympathetic response is the stimulation of "rest-and-digest" activities that occur when the body is at rest. Sympathetic response is the fight or flight response increase heart rate and vascular tone
99
``` What is considered a life threatening bleed? A. Capillary bleed B. Arterial Bleed C. Venous bleed D. Dark red bleed ```
B. Arterial Bleed Rationale: Arterial bleeds pose more of a threat to life than any of the others as they are under the most pressure and can release more blood in a shorter period of time.
100
``` When speaking with a patient, what pneumonic will help to find out past pertinent medical history? A. DCAP-BTLS B. SAMPLE C. CHART D. OPQRST ```
B. SAMPLE Rationale: DCAP-BTLS is used for soft tissue injuries CHART is used to help with charting your run report OPQRST is used for discerning the reason for the patients symptoms
101
Which of the following patients has regular respirations? A. 6 month old breathing at 22 breaths per minute B. A 26 y.o. with Cheyne-stokes breathing at 10 breaths per minute C. 10 y.o. breathing at 28 times per minute with intercostal retractions D. a 30 y.o. breathing at 20 times per minute slightly irregular.
D. a 30 y.o. breathing at 20 times per minute is breathing slightly irregular, they are within range and considered adequate. Rationale Normal infant is 30 to 60 breaths per minute Cheyne stokes breathing is normally seen in head injury and normally not an adequate breathing pattern A 10 y.o. is using intercostal muscles to breath this is normally a sign of trouble breathing
102
One pupil dilated and the other pupil constricted may suggest what type of injury?
Cerebral- head trauma (Trauma) or head bleed (CVA) are most common
103
``` You have requested helicopter transportation of a critical burn patient. The remote nature of the accident will force the helicopter to land on an incline. What is the best way to approach the helicopter? A. Wait for the Pilot to give direction B. Approach from the front C. Uphill side D. Walk downhill to the helicopter ```
Never walk downhill toward a helicopter. Always approach from the downhill side, or on the flat ground, approaching from a 45° angle in front of the aircraft (where the pilot can see you at all times) or as directed by a helicopter crew person. • Never approach an operating helicopter from the rear, and never go aft of the cabin doors unless directed by a helicopter crew person or the pilot.
104
``` Who is the Government authority with jurisdiction over radio communications? A. ETS B. FCC C. RCC D. FTC ```
B. FCC or Federal Communications Commision
105
``` A respiration rate would be considered within normal limits for an adult at____ per minute, for a 6-12 year old child at ____ per minute, and for an infant at____ per minute. A. 16 - 25 - 40 B. 22 - 32 - 42 C. 20 - 40 - 60 D. 10 - 20 - 40 ```
A. 16 - 25 - 40 Rationale: According to the NES, normal adult respiratory rates are from 16-20, school age children (6-12) are 20-30, and infants are initially 40-60 and then drop to 30-40 after the first few minutes. Note: Respiratory rates for late adulthood, 61+, is dependent on the patient's physical and health status.
106
The umbilical cord is wrapped tightly around the baby's neck and you have tried unsuccessfully to slip the cord over the head. What should your next course of action be? A. Push the baby's head into the vagina until the cord comes loose B. Clamp the cord in two places and cut it in the middle C. Support the head and suction the baby's nose and mouth D. Massage the uterus to stimulate harder contractions to free the baby
B. Clamp the cord in two places and cut it in the middle Rationale: You would not push a baby back into the vagina Cant deliver the baby if the cords wrapped so don't try and suction to have baby breath massage the uterus is to deliver the placenta
107
You have just arrived at the scene to find a 27-year-old female complaining of anxiety and breathing difficulties. Which of the following questions would be most appropriate to ask first? A. What day is today? B. Do you have a history of panic attacks? C. How long have you been having trouble breathing? D. What is your name?
D. What is your name? Rationale: When performing patient assessment, the first thing, after your scene size-up, is to do the primary survey (also called primary assessment). The first step of the primary survey is to form a general impression, followed by level of consciousness, then Airway, Breathing, and Circulatory status, and finally identify life threats during that process. While all of those questions are proper to ask at some point during an assessment, the best choice is to ask the patient her name first. This is critical information because it allows you to know who you are interacting with. It also helps to determine a general impression of the patient according to their proper or improper response, and then determine airway status. This sets the stage for the rest of your assessment. You should always introduce yourself and ask for your patient's name at the beginning of your assessment. The other questions come during the history taking part of your assessment.
108
``` You arrive on the scene with your partner to transport a patient with coffee ground vomitus. This sign would lead you to believe this patient has? A. Esophageal Varicies B. Hemorrhoids C. GI bleed D. Flu ```
C. GI bleed Rationale: Coffee ground vomit is a classic sign of a GI bleed. Esophageal Varicies would be bright red blood
109
``` You arrive on the scene to find a woman who is complaining of difficulty breathing after being struck in the chest with a swing. Upon auscultation of her lungs you have clear lungs on the right and no breath sounds on the left. This woman is likely has a ______ and would be suffering from _____ as the collapsed lung is incapable of oxygenating the blood. A. Flail chest / hyperventilation B. Hemoptysis/ Hypoventilation C. Pneumothorax/ Hypoxia D. Cardiac contusion/ Hyperkalemia ```
C. Pneumothorax/ Hypoxia Rationale: Flail chest is possible but with paradoxical movement normally lungs sounds present bilaterally Hemoptysis is coughing up of blood not listed Cardiac contusion would present with chest pain
110
Your patient is a 41 year old female who was found lying prone in the kitchen. She does not appear to be conscious and there is a pool of saliva next to her head. You and your partner log roll her into a supine position while maintaining c-spine stabilization. Just as you get the woman rolled over her husband tells you that she has a previous history of heart attacks. What would be the most appropriate course of action to take next? A. Do a jaw thrust to open her airway B. Have your partner get the AED, Attach it to the patient, and analyze C. Verify a palpable pulse, attach the AED, and prepare to analyze D. Suction the airway prior to opening the airway
A. Do a jaw thrust to open her airway Rationale: If a patient has no pulse you would start compressions before attaching the AED for each of the AED answers Open the airway prior to suctioning and suction prior to Bagging a patient
111
What is the desired effect of nitroglycerin?
Dilate the coronary arteries to improve blood flow and oxygen to the heart
112
What does a Radio Repeater do?
Improves the 2 way radio range. | Repeaters are used in high rise buildings to improve reception in the building and to improve distance
113
How does a SPO2 monitor work and what can contribute to false readings?
The infrared light reads the amount of red blood cells carrying oxygen in the blood. Carbon monoxide has a stronger bond to hemoglobin (red blood cells) than oxygen and attaches to the red blood cells easier than oxygen leaving the oxygen stranded without a transport giving a false reading
114
Dispatch has called you to the scene of a U.S. mail truck that slid out of control on a dirt road and rolled over. Bystanders reported the truck has caught on fire and the driver is outside the truck trying to gather the dumped mail. As you arrive on scene the fire department is just getting the fire out and the driver of the truck is standing back watching the smoldering mess. You should: A. Get a SAMPLE history on the driver B. Do a focused assessment on the driver C. Get the driver to sign a transport refusal form D. Do a standing backboard technique on the driver
D. Do a standing backboard technique on the driver Rationale: Given the mechanism of injury of a rollover, you should take c-spine precautions for this patient with a standing backboard technique. Adrenalin can mask serious injury and although the driver is walking around/ standing, that does not mean they are free of neck or spinal trauma. The patient can refuse, but he will need to be informed of the possible consequences.
115
``` During an assessment of a 78 year old woman you find her skin to be cool, moist, and pale. What would you suspect? A. Hyperthermia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyperglycemia D. Hypoperfusion ```
D. Hypoperfusion Rationale: Pale, Cool, skin suggests a lack of oxygen or hypoperfusion of the tissue Hyperglycemia usually has flushed skin as well as hyperthermia
116
``` Tachypnea, tachycardia and normal blood pressure are signs of what stage of shock? A. Compensated B. Decompensated C. Irreversible D. Both A & B ```
A. Compensated Rationale: In decompensated shock the blood pressure begins to drop along with altered level of consciousness In irreversible shock the patient has a low heart rate, blood pressure and irregular breathing
117
``` Which of the following choices is a normal respiratory rate for school age children? A. 30-60 BPM B. 24-40 BPM C. 18-30 BPM D. 12-16 BPM ```
C. 18-30 BPM | School age is 6-12 years of age
118
For a trauma patient that is unconscious and you do not know the mechanism of injury, you should always assume the patient?
Has a spinal injury. Rationale: Always take c-spine precautions on a patient if you do not know the reason for the altered LOC. You should assume the patient has a spinal injury.
119
An inflammation of the meninges caused by viral or bacterial infection and marked by intense headache and fever, sensitivity to light, and muscular rigidity, leading (in severe cases) to convulsions, delirium, and death.
Meningitis signs/symptoms normally seen is fever, nuchal rigidity (stiff neck) and altered level of consciousness. Rationale: Meningitis is a viral or bacterial infection/inflammation of the meningeal lining of the brain and spinal cord.
120
You have just arrived on scene of a single vehicle accident involving a truck that has slid off the road and rolled. Your patient was driving about 40 MPH when he hit an icy spot and went off the road rolling the vehicle one time. After completing your scene size up, which of the following treatment choices would be the most appropriate? A. Check baseline vitals, do a focused exam on the patient's chief complaint B. Perform a rapid trauma assessment C.Perform a detailed physical examination to uncover any life threatening injuries D. Get a SAMPLE history and do a focused physical examination
B. Perform a rapid trauma assessment Rationale: A rapid trauma assessment should be used first with a significant method of injury suspected. Going off the road and rolling a vehicle at 40 MPH is significant. The rapid assessment will help you determine and deal with any potential life threats.
121
You are called to the scene of a man down. Dispatch reports the man is pulseless and bystanders are doing CPR. According to the NREMT Cardiac Arrest Management/AED skill sheet, which of the following sequences is appropriate? A. Check for responsiveness, Assess for breathing, Check carotid pulse , put your gloves on B. Question the bystanders, direct them to stop CPR , check for pulse and then attach the AED, Begin chest compressions C. Turn on power to AED, open the patient's airway, insert an adjunct and then analyze the rhythm while doing chest compressions D. Check breathing and pulse simultaneously, patient is pulseless and apneic, immediately begin chest compressions
D. Check breathing and pulse simultaneously, patient is pulseless and apneic, immediately begin chest compressions Rationale The best answer is D. Scene safe and PPE should be done first but not listed in that order answer A, Chest compressions begin before attaching the AED answer B, An AED cannot analyze the rhythm while performing chest compressions answer C
122
``` A man has both legs burned on the front and back, along with the fronts of both arms. Approximately what percentage of his body was burned? A. 36 percent B. 45 percent C. 50 percent D. 54 percent ```
B. 45 percent Rationale: Each leg is 18% and the front of each arm counts as 4.5 for a total of 45%.
123
It's 7:30 a.m. and you arrive on scene of a two car collision involving at least 6 patients on a foggy corner of a fairly busy country road. The fire department is not there yet and there is smoke and flames showing from both cars. You can hear people crying and cars are already driving around the wreckage to get past the scene. What steps should you take? A. Get the fire department en route, establish a safety zone and assist in keeping traffic a safe distance away B. Begin extrication of the patients while your partner calls for more ambulances C. Triage the most critically injured first and then extricate them in order of severity D. Inform the patients that you are not allowed by law to enter the zone until it is made safe by law enforcement
A. Get the fire department en route, establish a safety zone and assist in keeping traffic a safe distance away Rationale: Scene safety before all else in this case. The best thing you can do for everybody is assist in keeping the accident from getting even larger with traffic and crowd control until the proper authorities get there and you can administer medical attention in a safe environment.
124
What is the difference between Infarction of a cell and ischemia of a cell?
Infarction is tissue death (necrosis) caused by a reduction / stoppage in blood flow due to artery blockages, mechanical compression, rupture, or vasoconstriction Ischemia is a restriction in blood supply to tissues, causing a shortage of oxygen and glucose needed for cellular metabolism (to keep tissue alive). Ischemia is generally caused by problems with blood vessels, with resultant damage to or dysfunction of tissue.
125
``` Signs and symptoms of Cushing's phenomenon include all of the following except: A. Hypertension B. Tachycardia C. Biot's respirations D. irregular respirations ```
B. Tachycardia Rationale: Signs and symptoms of Cushing's phenomenon include: hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations, central neurogenic hyperventilation, and Biot respirations. Cushing's triad signs and symptoms are caused by a significant head trauma, also referred to as herniation syndrome. The intracranial pressure increases forcing the brain stem and the midbrain through the foramen magnum.
126
Which of the following is considered a sign? A. The patient states she is dizzy B. The patient says she took her insulin C. There is blood in the vomit of the patient D. The patient states she has a headache
C. There is blood in the vomit of the patient Rationale: A sign is any medical or trauma assessment finding that can be seen, felt, or heard by the provider. A symptom is any medical or trauma condition that is described to the provider by the patient.
127
``` All of the following are contraindications of oral glucose except: A. Hypoglycemia B. Nausea C. Vomiting D. Decreased level of consciousness ```
Decreased level of consciousness Rationale: Nausea, vomiting, and decreased levels of consciousness are contraindicated for the use of oral glucose. Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, is an indication for the use of oral glucose.
128
All of the following are indications for Nitroglycerin except? A. Systolic BP > 100mmHg B. Patient has their own nitro C. Chest pain D. Patient has taken vardenafil (Levitra, Staxyn) in the last 48 hours.
D. Patient has taken vardenafil (Levitra, Staxyn) in the last 48 hours. Rationale: Levitra, Cialis, Viagra along with pulmonary hypertension drugs are contraindications to taking nitro. A BP of < 100 mmHg is a contraindication.
129
``` Upon assessment of a 55 year old male, you find his blood pressure to be 124/75 his pulse is 122 and his respirations are 18. It would be stated that this man is? A. Tachycardic B. Tachypneic C. Hypotensive D. Hypertensive ```
A. Tachycardic Rationale: Tachypnea is indicated by a breathing rate greater than 20 breaths per minute. Hypotension is low blood pressure Hypertension is high blood pressure which is in normal limits
130
``` You are assessing an 84 year old man. Upon auscultation of the lungs you discover crackles or rale sounds. He is complaining of chest pain and congestion. These signs and symptoms can indicate? A. An air embolism B. Left ventricular failure C. Right ventricular failure D. Tension pneumothorax ```
B. Left ventricular failure Rationale: Inability of the heart to pump blood to the body via the left ventricle so it backs up into the lungs. If it was right side failure the blood would back up into the body i.e. The feet and legs with pedal edema
131
A 73 year old female was in her backyard gardening when she collapsed to the ground. Her husband told 911 that "she is breathing very fast and will not talk to me." You arrive to find the woman lying on her side in the grass. She is breathing at 7 breaths per minute and her pulse is irregular and very thready. Her lungs also present with crackles upon auscultation As you are taking a blood pressure (88/66) the husband tells you that the woman has been having jaw pain and some weakness for approximately 3 days. What is the most likely cause of this woman's condition and how would you treat her? A. Hypoperfusion, High flow O2, and transport in Fowler's position B. Cardiac arrest, Treat for shock, and rapid transport C. Septic shock, Transport in a position of comfort with high flow O2 via NRB D. Cardiogenic shock, Assist ventilations, and transport
D. Cardiogenic shock, Assist ventilations, and transport Rationale: This woman is likely experiencing pump failure and she is Hypoperfusing. Her poor respiration rate necessitates assisted ventilations. Transporting in the Fowler's would not be appropriate as it would increase the work load on the heart. Gravity increases the difficulty of pumping blood to the brain when the head and chest are elevated.
132
``` A Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) will usually stop after? A. 30-60 minutes B. 1-2 days C. 10-15 minutes D. 8 Hours ```
C. 10-15 minutes Rationale: Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) is a blockage of vessels in the brain that usually subsides after a period of 10 to 15 minutes. However, if the patient's symptoms persist longer than 15 minutes, continue to treat the patient as if they are having a CVA (Cerebrovascular Accident). If resolution takes place within the 10-15 minutes, then chances are they have had a TIA. The final diagnosis of TIA is made if the symptoms resolve within 24 hours and is determined by a physician.
133
A 57 year old woman is complaining of chest pain. Her blood pressure is 109/88 and her respirations are at 22 per minute. What condition does the patient's blood pressure indicate? A. Paradoxical pressure B. Low Pulse pressure C. Systolic trans cardiac ischemia D. Biot's sign
B. Low Pulse pressure Rationale: A pulse pressure is considered abnormally low if it is less than 25% of the systolic value. In this question it is about 20% of the systolic value. The pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic measurements of the blood pressure. 109 systolic - 88 diastolic = 21 mmHg. In trauma a low pulse pressure suggests significant blood loss. If the pulse pressure is extremely low, i.e. 25 mmHg or less, the cause may be low stroke volume, as in Congestive Heart Failure and/or shock. A low pulse pressure can also be caused by aortic valve stenosis and cardiac tamponade.
134
You arrive on scene of an unknown medical to find a man and a woman unconscious in their kitchen. You are finishing a rapid trauma assessment on the woman when your partner says she smells something odd and is feeling dizzy. Your best course of action would be to: A. See if your partner can identify the odor B. Remove yourself from the scene and advise dispatch of the situation C. Call dispatch and request hazmat assistance while maintaining the patient's airway D. Place both patients on high flow O2 and pull them out of the house
B. Remove yourself from the scene and advise dispatch of the situation Rationale: This situation would lead you to assume the area may be contaminated with a hazardous substance. At this point you should revert back to scene safety and remove yourself from the environment. While removing the patient with you may be possible, you would not want to put O2 on them first.
135
What should be done to a French tip catheter after suctioning a patient's airway? A. Put it in the sharps container B. Take it home for your kids to play with C. Throw it away D. Flush with sterile water in preparation for additional suctioning
D. Flush with sterile water in preparation for additional suctioning Rationale: Anticipating the need for additional suctioning should be followed by cleansing of the catheter with sterile water.
136
After the baby's head has delivered you should? A. Suction the nose then mouth and wait for the mother to push the rest of the baby out B. Support the head and gently pull the baby out C. Put the mother on high flow O2 and prepare to deliver the rest of the infant. D. Suction the mouth and nose then check if the cord is wrapped around the infant's neck
D. Suction the mouth and nose then check if the cord is wrapped around the infant's neck Rationale: As soon as the head has exited the vagina you should suction the mouth and nose and check to see that the cord is not wrapped around the baby's neck.
137
``` Of the following, where shouldn't attention be focused during secondary assessment of the arms? A. Accessory muscle use B. Distal circulation C. Motor function D. Medical jewelry ```
A. Accessory muscle use Rationale: During secondary assessment of the arms, attention should be focused on: Pain, distal circulation, sensation, motor function, track marks, and medical jewelry
138
Which list includes only the "Five Rights" of medication administration? A. Patient, medication, indication, dose, and time. B. Patient, medication, dose, route, and time. C. Medication, dose, time, route, and documentation. D. Medication, dose, generic name, route, and documentation
B. Patient, medication, dose, route, and time. Rationale: The "Five Rights" of medication administration are: patient, medication, dose, route, and time.
139
You arrive on scene to find a 34-year-old male lying on the ground in a pool of blood. Bright, red blood is spurting from a large cut in his shirt sleeve and he is clutching a knife between his teeth. What should you do first? A. Have your partner distract the patient while you take the knife from him B. Inform the patient you will not hurt him and treat the injury C. Leave the scene until police arrive to make the scene safe D. Call for police backup and then treat the wound
C. Leave the scene until police arrive to make the scene safe Rationale: Scene safety comes before all other choices and until the police arrive AND secure the scene you are to keep a safe distance and advise others to do the same. You are not in a position to render this scene safe.
140
Signs and symptoms of concussion include all of the following except: A. Delayed motor and verbal responses B. Inappropriate emotional responses C. Inability to recall simple concepts and words D. Discoloration around eyes and ears
D. Discoloration around eyes and ears Rationale: Signs and symptoms of concussion include: delayed motor and verbal responses, inability to focus attention, lack of coordination, disorientation, inappropriate emotional responses, memory deficit, inability to recall simple concepts and words, nausea/vomiting, and headache. Discoloration around eyes and ears are not definitive signs of a concussion.
141
Cellular respiration and cellular metabolism are best described as: A. The exchange of respiratory gases between the systemic capillaries and the surrounding tissue beds B. The use of oxygen and carbohydrates to produce energy and the creation of carbon dioxide and water by-products C. The exchange of respiratory gases between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillary bed D. The use of oxygen to create hemoglobin in the blood stream
B. The use of oxygen and carbohydrates to produce energy and the creation of carbon dioxide and water by-products Rationale: The exchange of gases between the capillaries and tissue beds is respiration but does not include metabolism
142
You are called to a home where a 91 year old man has had a syncopal episode and is vomiting. The caregiver who called 911 stated that the patient's bowel movements have been bright red since yesterday. The patient has not complained of any pain, but is nauseated. What is most likely wrong with this man and which choice includes appropriate treatment steps? A. He has a lower GI bleed and should be given O2 via nasal cannula at 4LPM and transported in a position of comfort while treating for shock B. He has an upper GI bleed and should be transported sitting up with high flow O2 administered via a non rebreather mask at 15 LPM. C. He has pancreatitis and should be given high flow O2 via NRB at 15 LPM. Rapid transport in a left lateral recumbent position while keeping him warm will help avoid shock. D. He has had a TIA and should be given high flow oxygen via NRB and transported on his effected side to the nearest hospital
A. He has a lower GI bleed and should be given O2 via nasal cannula at 4LPM and transported in a position of comfort while treating for shock Rationale: The bright red blood in the bowel movements is indicative of a lower GI bleed. Answer 1,2, and 3 all utilize an NRB to deliver high flow O2. Given that the patient is vomiting and nauseated, it would be advisable to use a nasal cannula, rather than an NRB, to help avoid potential airway compromise if the patient continues to vomit.
143
A child between 3-5 years of age would have normal vitals if they were? A. 35 breaths a minute, pulse of 88, and Systolic BP of 100 B. 24 breaths a minute, pulse of 76, and Systolic BP of 98 C. 20 breaths a minute, pulse of 100, and Systolic BP of 110 D. 20 breaths a minute, pulse of 120, and Systolic BP of 120
C. 20 breaths a minute, pulse of 100, and Systolic BP of 110 Rationale: A child between 3 and 5 (preschool-age) should have respirations between 20-30, a pulse of 80-120, and a systolic BP of 80 - 110.
144
``` A train derailment has caused two tanker cars to explode and several others to begin leaking an unknown gas. The size of the affected area is large and crosses several county lines. According to NIMS, this type of MCI would benefit most from a: A. Unified Command System B. Multiple Command System C. Singular Command System D. Coordinated Command System ```
A. Unified Command System Rationale: Unified Command Systems can involve many different agencies such as EMS, Fire Departments, Law Enforcement, City Managers, County Commissioners, etc.
145
``` leaving a patient after care has been initiated and before the patient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training. ```
abandonment
146
What are the quadrants of the abdomen and how many?
``` four divisions of the abdomen used to pinpoint the location of a pain or injury: RUQ the right upper quadrant LUQ the left upper quadrant RLQ the right lower quadrant LLQ the left lower quadrant ```
147
Also known as a scratch or scrape to the skin?
Abrasion
148
What is the term for a spontaneous (miscarriage) or | induced termination of pregnancy?
Abortion
149
a condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall; a cause of pre-birth bleeding. Usually with sudden back or abdominal pain
Abruptio Placentae
150
``` The route a poisons enters the body through unbroken skin is known as? A. Inhaled B. Injected C. absorbed D. ingestion ```
C. absorbed
151
``` The pelvic socket into which the ball at the proximal end of the femur fits to form the hip joint is known as? A. Acetabulum B. Acromioclavicular C. Anterior Cruciate joint D. Iliac ischium joint ```
A. Acetabulum Rationale: Acromioclavicular is the shoulder joint, the Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is the knee ligament.
152
The shoulder joint where the acromion and the | clavicle meet is called?
Acromioclavicular joint
153
A substance that adsorbs many poisons and prevents them from being absorbed by the body is called?
Activated Charcoal
154
``` In which space of the body would you find the pancreas? A. Subriatal space B. Retroperitoneal space C. Pericardial space D. Peritoneal space ```
B. Retroperitoneal space Rationale: The retroperitoneal space resides posterior to the peritoneal space and contains the kidneys as well as vessels.
155
``` You are dispatched to the residence of a 46-year-old patient complaining of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramping. She states that the onset occurred shortly after eating some cheesecake. Her only medical history is lactose intolerance. Her blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg. Her radial pulse is 94 beats per minute and her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute. She vomited 2 times prior to your arrival. From what condition is this patient suffering? A. Gastrointestinal reflux disease B. Diverticulitis C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Acute gastroenteritis ```
D. Acute gastroenteritis Rationale: GERD symptoms: Heartburn, regurgitation, dyspepsia, dysphagia, sore throat Diverticulitis symptoms- Pain lower left side of abdomen, N/V, fever, constipation Peptic ulcer- symptoms Burning pain that lasts weeks usually goes away after you take an antacid, Bloating
156
``` You are called to a nursing home for a patient with swelling to her legs. Upon arrival, you find a 76-year-old patient sitting in a wheelchair. Assessment confirms pitting edema to both lower legs. You are able to palpate a dorsalis pedal pulse bilaterally. Her skin is warm, pink and dry. Her lungs are clear bilaterally. Which of the following would you suspect? A. Deep vein Thrombosis B. Bilateral acute arterial occlusion C. Atherosclerosis D. Chronic CHF ```
D. Chronic CHF Rationale: DVT signs usually include swelling in the affected leg rarely in both legs. Pain in the leg. Bilateral acute arterial occlusion is an embolism normally in the upper leg usually small Atherosclerosis is plaque in the arteries
157
``` You are treating a 49-year-old patient who complains of intense pain between his shoulder blades radiating to his lower back. Pain began 10 minutes prior to your arrival while he was eating and has been constant. he rates the pain as 10 out of 10. Pain is described as a sharp tearing pain. He has no significant past medical history. Blood pressure is 130/76 mm Hg in the right arm and 78/48 in the left arm. Radial pulse in his right arm is 98 beats per minute and regular, and a respiratory rate of 20 and non labored. What condition would you suspect? A. Myocardial infarction B. Angina Pectoris C. Congestive heart failure D. Aortic dissection ```
D. Aortic dissection Rationale: An MI, Angina or CHF normally do not present with pain between the shoulders or interarm blood pressure differences.
158
``` The single largest cause of death for Americans is/are? A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. Cancer C. Coronary heart disease D. Traumatic injuries ```
C. Coronary heart disease
159
``` Your patient is a 52-year-old male complaining of dull, achy chest pains. He is alert & oriented but upon assessment, you notice his skin is pale, cool and clammy. What is your next step? A. Obtain a SAMPLE history B. Apply an AED C. Administer supplemental Oxygen D. Assist with his wife's nitroglycerin ```
C. Administer supplemental Oxygen Rationale: Patient is showing signs of shock need to treat life threatening first.
160
``` What is cardiac compromise? A. Angina B. Heart Attack C. A period when the heart stops D. Any type of heart problem ```
D. Any type of heart problem
161
``` An AED is used to treat patients in: A. Ventricular Fibrillation B. Asystole C. Pulseless Electrical activity D. Bradycardia ```
A. Ventricular Fibrillation Rationale: When the heart is in VFib (ventricular fibrillation) the hearts electrical activity becomes disordered. The shock resets the electrical pathways.
162
``` What is the normal heart rate for a newborn ( 0- 3 months)? A. 140-160 B. 120-140 C. 100-120 D. 80-100 ```
A. 140-160 Rationale: When you deliver a baby if the heart rate is below 100 you begin assisting respirations with a BVM (bag valve mask) if below 60 cardiac compressions begin
163
``` The two flap valve on the left side of the heart is called? A. Bivalve B. Aortic valve C. Bicuspid valve D. Pulmonary valve ```
C. Bicuspid valve Rationale: The two flap valve is called the mitral valve, also known as the bicuspid valve. The three flap valve located in the right atrium is the Tricuspid valve.
164
``` The three flap valve in the right side of the heart is called? A. tri-valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Bicuspid valve ```
C. Tricuspid valve Rationale: The tricuspid valve, or right atrioventricular valve is between the right atrium and the right ventricle. The two flap valve on the left side of the heart is called the bicuspid valve.
165
``` The cardiovascular system is made up of three major components; which of the following is not a component of the cardiovascular system? A. Heart B. Myoglobin C. Blood vessels D. Blood ```
B. Myoglobin Rationale: Myoglobin is a protein found in the muscle tissue not part of the cardiovascular system
166
``` Name the layers of the heart from the outside in? A. pericardium, endocardium, epicardium B. myocardium, epicardium, endocardium C. epicardium, myocardium, endocardium D. endocardium, myocardium, epicardium ```
C. epicardium, myocardium, endocardium Rationale: the prefix "epi" means above on or over. Myocardium is the middle layer "myo" means muscle. the prefix "endo" means inward or within
167
Which of the following complaints is often used to describe chest pain resulting from a cardiac event? A. Sharp stabbing pain which can be located with one finger B. A ton of bricks on my chest C. A tickling feeling D. Sharp tearing pain between my shoulder blades
B. A ton of bricks on my chest Rationale: Sharp stabbing pain usually all over can't pinpoint, sharp tearing pain is most often an aortic dissection
168
``` What artery carries deoxygenated blood and which vein carries oxygenated blood? A. Pulmonary, Aorta B. Pulmonary, inferior vena cava C. Pulmonary, Pulmonary D. Aorta, Superior vena cava ```
C. Pulmonary, Pulmonary Rationale: Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs. The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart
169
``` All of the following are blood components responsible for clot formation except? A. Platelets B. Plaque C. Thrombin D. Fibrin ```
B. Plaque Rationale: Plaque is formed with fat, calcium and other substances combined with cholesterol.
170
Where does blood travel when it leaves the right ventricle of the heart? A. To the pulmonary veins, then to the lungs B. To the Aorta, then out to the body C. To the vena cava then to the left atrium D. To the pulmonary arteries, then to the lungs
D. To the pulmonary arteries, then to the lungs Rationale: Deoxygenated blood from the body enters the right atrium then to the right ventricle then through the pulmonary artery to the lungs.
171
``` Research shows that most cases of inappropriate delivered shocks from the AED have been caused by? A. Mechanical interference B. Improperly charged batteries C. Human Error D. Malfunctioning defibrillator pads ```
C. Human Error Rationale: Almost all documented cases of inappropriate shocks have been attributed to human error, such as using the AED in a moving vehicle or operating it on a patient with a pulse.
172
Which statement about the assessment of a patient with cardiac compromise is correct? A. You cannot determine the degree of cardiac damage in the field B. You should not ask patients about nitroglycerin or medications C. The purpose of the focused history is to determine whether to use the AED D. Patients usually describe cardiac pain as localized and moderately severe
A. You cannot determine the degree of cardiac damage in the field Rationale: It is impossible to determine the actual degree of tissue damage in the field, so the purpose of the focused assessment is to gather information for the receiving facility. You should always ask about medications; it is the M of SAMPLE. The focused history has nothing to do with AED use. Cardiac pain has all sorts of presentations, making it difficult to differentiate from other conditions.
173
The Left Atrium: A. receives blood from the arteries of the body B. receives blood from the vena cava C. receives blood from the pulmonary vein D. pumps blood out to the body through the Aorta
C. receives blood from the pulmonary vein Rationale: The right atrium receives blood from the vena cava, the right ventricle pumps blood into the pulmonary artery and the left ventricle pumps blood to the Aorta to the body
174
``` You should apply the AED pads to your patient when he? A. complains of chest pain B. Is unconscious and breathing C. Is pulseless and apneic D. is having a seizure ```
C. Is pulseless and apneic Rationale: An AED should be attached only if a patient has no pulse and is not breathing
175
``` What are the two lower chambers of the heart called? A. Ventricles B. Atriums C. Arterioles D. Venules ```
A. Ventricles Rationale: the upper chambers of the heart are the atrium, arterioles and venules are the smaller arteries and veins
176
``` You are dispatched to a 65-year old male who is complaining of severe chest pain, and has a history of cardiac problems. What is the primary role of medical direction in this scenario? A. Medical direction serves no purpose B. Give authorization for interventions C. Talk to and calm the patient D. Talk to the family and calm them ```
B. Give authorization for interventions Rationale: If the patient needs assistance with medications medical direction can give authorization
177
``` You are dispatched to a 70-year old male who is complaining of chest pain, and has a history of cardiac problems. If you assist in the administration of nitroglycerin, what is the maximum dosage to be given, without additional medical direction? A. 2 tablets B. 3 tablets C. 4 tablets D. 5 tablets ```
B. 3 tablets Rationale: The maximum dosage amount is three tablets, or sprays, without additional medical direction.
178
``` You are dispatched to a 75-year old female patient who is complaining of extreme chest pain, and trouble breathing. This patient is a high-capacity chain-smoker, and over-weight. Which of the following is most likely to be present? A. Pulmonary edema B. Coronary artery disease C. Pulseless electrical activity D. Ventricular Fibrillation ```
B. Coronary artery disease Rationale: With this patient you could suspect many things, however the best choice is coronary artery disease. PEA and VFib are lethal electrical rhythms its possible to have pulmonary edema but extreme chest pain is not normally a symptom
179
``` You are dispatched to a 21-year old male patient who has an elevated pulse. When asked what he was doing, he replies, "I was just running". From the given information, what do you suspect? A. the patient needs an AED B. Nothing this is normal at this point C. The patient needs to be transported D. The patient needs a nitro tablet ```
B. Nothing this is normal at this point Rationale: Try not to look too deep into the question. Only look at the facts. he is not pulseless (AED)
180
You are dispatched to a 75-year old female patient who is currently in cardiac arrest. After one shock via the AED she begins breathing at 15 breaths per minute, and has a strong carotid pulse; what is your next step? A. Assist ventilations with a bag valve mask B. Provide supplemental oxygen via Non rebreather mask C. Continue to administer shocks D. Request a non transport and leave the scene
B. Provide supplemental oxygen via Non rebreather mask Rationale: The next step after shocking with the AED, and the patient is breathing and has a pulse, is to apply high concentration oxygen via NRB. If the respiratory rate is above or below the minimum and maximum limits, however, you would assist with a bag valve mask.
181
You are dispatched to a 50-year old male patient who is having extreme chest pain. Of the following, which is a contraindication to administer nitro? A. The patient has a prescription B. Medical direction approves C. The patient has a systolic pressure greater than 100 D. The patient has a systolic pressure less than 100
D. The patient has a systolic pressure less than 100 Rationale: Because Nitro is a Vasodilator it should not be administered to a patient with a systolic blood pressure of below 100, because it may cause their blood pressure to drop to a dangerous level.
182
You are dispatched to a 53-year old female patient who has extreme chest pain. Upon gaining medical direction to administer nitroglycerin, you administer one tablet. What action should you now perform? A. If chest pain continues administer a second nitro B. Begin transport C. Check blood pressure D. continue with the SAMPLE history
C. Check blood pressure Rationale: Because nitro is a vasodilator you should always check the patient's blood pressure after giving nitro and before giving another dose.
183
Unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient.
Abandonment
184
The body cavity that contains the major organs of digestion and excretion. It is located below the diaphragm and above the pelvis
Abdomen
185
A rapidly fatal condition in which the walls of the aorta in the abdomen weaken and blood leaks into the layers of the vessel, causing it to bulge
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm also known as (AAA)
186
Airway, Breathing and Circulation
ABC's
187
Four divisions of the abdomen used to pinpoint the location of the pain or injury: RUQ right upper quadrant, LUQ left upper quadrant, RLQ right lower quadrant, LLQ left lower quadrant.
Abdominal quadrants
188
Spontaneous (miscarriage) or induced termination of pregnancy
Abortion
189
A loss or damage of the superficial layer of skin as a result of a body part rubbing or scraping across a rough or hard surface; a scratch or scrape
Abrasion
190
The preferred method to dislodge a severe airway obstruction in adults and children; also called the Heimlich maneuver.
Abdominal-thrust maneuver
191
Motion of a limb away from the midline.
Abduction
192
A condition in which the placenta separates from the Uterine wall; a cause of pre-birth bleeding
Abruptio Placentae
193
The process by which medications or poisons pass through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream.
Absorption
194
Gaining access to an enclosed area and reaching a patient
Access
195
The secondary muscles of respiration. This may include the neck muscles, chest muscles and the abdominal muscles.
Accessory Muscles
196
The pelvic socket into which the ball at the proximal end of the femur fits to form the hip joint
Acetabulum
197
A pathologic condition that results from the accumulation of acids in the blood and body tissues
Acidosis
198
A simple joint where the bony projections of the scapula and the clavicle meet at the top of the shoulder
Acromioclavicular Joint (AC Joint)
199
The therapeutic effect of a medication on the body
Action
200
An oral medication that binds and absorbs ingested toxins in the gastrointestinal tract for treatment of some poisonings and medication overdoses
Activated Charcoal
201
A technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to its neutral position or beyond (decompression)
CPR- Active compression-decompression
202
Application of an external heat source to rewarm the body of a hypothermic patient
Active rewarming
203
A condition of sudden onset of pain within the abdomen, usually indicating peritonitis.
Acute abdomen
204
A blanket term used to represent any symptoms related to the, lack of Oxygen, (ischemia) in the heart muscle also called cardiac compromise
Acute Coronary syndrome
205
A heart attack; death of heart muscle following obstruction to it; in this context the attack is new or happening right now
Acute Myocardial infarction
206
A firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx. It is more prominent in men than women. It is also called the Thyroid cartilage
Adam's apple
207
A state of overwhelming obsession or physical need to continue to use a substance.
Addiction
208
Motion of a limb "toward" the midline
Adduction
209
The nucleotide involved in energy metabolism; used to store energy
Adenosine Triphosphate or ATP
210
Children between the ages of 13 to 18 years
Adolescents
211
Endocrine glands located at the top of the kidneys that release adrenaline when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system
Adrenal glands
212
Pertaining to nerves that release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, or noradrenaline; also pertains to the receptors acted on by norepinephrine
Adrenergic
213
The process of binding or sticking to a surface
Adsorption
214
Root word for Heart?
CARDI
215
Root word for Liver?
Hepat
216
Root word for Kidney?
Nephr
217
Root word for nerves?
Neur
218
Root word for Mind?
Psych
219
Root word for chest?
Thorac
220
What does the prefix "Hyper" stand for?
Over, excessive, high example- Hyperventilation fast respirations
221
What does the prefix "Hypo" stand for?
under, below normal example Hypothermia- low temperature
222
What does the prefix "Tachy" stand for?
rapid, fast example Tachycardia- fast heart rate
223
What does the prefix "Brady" stand for?
slow example Bradypnea- slow breathing
224
What does the prefix "PRE" stand for?
before example prenatal before birth
225
What does the prefix "Post" stand for?
after, behind example postsurgical- after surgery
226
What is the meaning of the suffix "al"?
pertaining to example- syncopal- pertaining to the loss of conciousness
227
What is the meaning of the suffix "algia"?
pertaining to pain- example- Myalgia- muscle pain
228
What is the meaning of the suffix "ectomy"?
surgical removal of- example appendectomy- surgical removal of appendix
229
What is the meaning of the suffix "ic"?
pertaining to - example- Diaphoretic- pertaining to sweat
230
What is the meaning of the suffix "itis"
inflammation- example- epiglottitis- inflammation of the epiglottis
231
What is the meaning of the suffix "logy"?
study of- example- cardiology study of the heart
232
What is the meaning of the suffix "logist"?
specialist- example pulmonologist, specialist in diseases of the lungs
233
What is the meaning of the suffix "megally"?
enlargement- example cardiomegaly, enlargement of the heart
234
What is the meaning of the suffix "Meter"?
measuring instrument- example sphygmomanometer, instrument to measure blood pressure
235
What is the meaning of the suffix "oma"?
tumor (usually referring to cancer)- example Lymphoma, cancer of the lymphatic system
236
What is the meaning of the suffix "pathy"?
disease- example- nephropathy, disease of the kidneys
237
What is the meaning of the prefix "semi"?
Half or partial- example semiconscious, partially concious
238
What is the meaning of the prefix "Hemi"?
Half, one sided- example- Hemiplegia, paralysis of one side of the body
239
What is the meaning of the prefix "Ambi"?
Both- example- Ambidextrous, able to use either hand equally well
240
What is the meaning of the prefix "Pan"?
All, entire- example- Pandemic, an epidemic over a wide area
241
What does the root word "cyan' describe?
Blue- example- Cyanosis, blue discoloration of the skin
242
What does the root word "leuk/o" describe?
White- example- Leukocyte, white blood cells that fight infection
243
What does the root word "erythr/o describe?
Red- example- erythrocyte, red blood cells that carry hemoglobin to carry oxygen.
244
What does the root word "cirrh/o describe?
yellow-orange- example- cirrhosis, inflammation of the liver causing yellow orange pigmentation of the skin/eyes
245
What does the root word "melan/o?
Black- example- Melana, black tarry stool typically caused by upper GI bleeding
246
What does the root word "alb"?
White- example- Albino, a person lacking skin pigmentation
247
What is the meaning of the prefix "ab"?
away, from- example abduction, away from the point of reference
248
What is the meaning of the prefix "ad"?
to, toward- example- adduction, toward the center
249
What is the meaning of the prefix "de"?
down from, away- example- decay, to waste away
250
What is the meaning of the prefix "circum"?
around, about- example- circumferential burn, a burn around the entire area (arm, chest, abdomen)
251
What is the meaning of the prefix "peri"?
around- example- pericardium, the sac around the heart
252
What is the meaning of the prefix "trans"?
across- example- Transverse colon, the middle part of the large intestine, passing across the abdomen from right to left below the stomach.
253
What is the meaning of the prefix "EPI"?
Above, upon, on- example- Epigatsric, above or over the stomach
254
What is the meaning of the prefix "supra"?
above, over- example- supraventricular tachycardia, An abnormally fast heart rhythm arising from improper electrical activity in the upper part of the heart.
255
What is the meaning of the prefix "retro"?
behind- example- retroperitoneal, the area behind the peritoneum
256
What is the meaning of the prefix "sub"?
under, beneath- example, subcutaneous, the lowest level of skin
257
What is the meaning of the prefix "infra"?
below, under- example- infraclavicular, situated or occurring below the clavicle
258
What is the meaning of the prefix "para"?
near, beside, beyond, apart from- example paraplegia, involving impairment in motor or sensory function of the lower limbs
259
What is the meaning of the prefix "contra"?
against, opposite- example- contraindicated, something that is not indicated
260
What is the meaning of the prefix "ecto"?
out, outside- example- ectopic pregnancy, pregnancy that occurs outside the uterus
261
What is the meaning of the prefix "endo"?
within- example- endoscopy, examining inside someone's body
262
What is the meaning of the prefix "extra"?
outside, in addition- example- extraneous, outside the organism and not belonging to it
263
What is the meaning of the prefix "intra"?
Inside, within- example- intraosseous infusion, injecting directly into the bone marrow
264
What is the meaning of the prefix "ipsi"?
same- example ipsilateral, on or affecting the same side
265
The Nucleotide involved in energy metabolism; used to store energy?
Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)
266
Children between the ages of 12 and 18 years of age
Adolescents
267
Endocrine glands located at the top of the kidneys that release adrenaline when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system.
Adrenal glands
268
Pertaining to nerves that release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, or noradrenaline; also pertains to the receptors acted on by norepinephrine.
Adrenergic
269
To bind or stick to a surface
AdsorptionReasoning example: many medications bind with activated charcoal
270
Written documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient become unable to make decisions; also called a living will or health care directive
Advance Directive
271
An individual who has trained in specific aspects of advanced life support, such as IV therapy, and the administration of certain emergency medications
Advanced EMT (AEMT)
272
Advanced life saving procedures, including cardiac monitoring, administration of IV fluids and medications and the use of advanced airway adjuncts
Advanced Life Support (ALS)
273
Abnormal breath sounds such as wheezing, stridor, rhonchi, and crackles
Adventitious breath sounds
274
Metabolism that can proceed only in the presence of oxygen.
Aerobic metabolism
275
The force or resistance against which the heart pumps
Afterload
276
Occasional, gasping breaths that occur after the heart has stopped; seen in dying patients
Agonal respirations (GASPS)
277
A medication that causes stimulation of receptors
Agonist
278
The presence of air bubbles in the veins, which can lead to cardiac arrest if they enter the heart
Air Embolism
279
The spread of an organism via droplets or dust
Airborne transmission
280
The buildup of excess base (lack of acids) in the body fluids
Alkalosis
281
A type of energy that is emitted from a strong radiological source; it is the least harmful penetrating type of radiation and cannot travel more than a few inches or penetrate most objects
Alpha
282
Portions of the nervous system that, when stimulated, can cause constriction of the blood vessels
Alpha-adrenergic receptors
283
Any deviation from alert and oriented to person, place, time and event, or any deviation from the patients normal baseline mental status, may signal disease in the central nervous system or elsewhere in the body.
Altered Mental status
284
The air sacs of the lungs in which the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place
Alveoli
285
The temperature of the surrounding environment
Ambient temperature
286
The fluid filled baglike membrane in which the fetus develops
Amniotic sac
287
An injury in which part of the body is completely severed
Amputation
288
The metabolism that takes place in the absence of oxygen; the main product of lactic acid
Anaerobic metabolism
289
Severe shock caused by an allergic reaction
Anaphylactic shock
290
An extreme life, threatening system, allergic reaction that may include shock and respiratory failure
Anaphylaxis
291
The position of reference in which the patient stands facing forward, arms at the side, with the palms of the hands forward
Anatomic position
292
Describes a condition in which the patient has too few red blood cells, resulting in a decreased ability to transport oxygen throughout the body via the bloodstream
Anemic
293
An abnormal enlargement of the wall of a blood vessel that results from the weakening of the vessel wall
Aneurysm
294
Transient (short lived) chest discomfort caused by partial or temporary blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle
Angina pectoris
295
Localized areas of swelling beneath the skin, often around the eyes and lips, but can also involve other areas as well
Angioedema
296
Naturally occurring uneven pupil size
Anisocoria
297
A medication that binds to a receptor and blocks other medications
Antagonist
298
The front surface of the body; the side facing you in the standard anatomic position
Anterior
299
A serum that counteracts the effect of venom from an animal or insect
Antivenin
300
The main artery leaving the left side of the heart, which receives blood from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries that carry blood to the tissues of the body
Aorta
301
A weakness in the wall of the aorta that makes it susceptible to rupture
Aortic aneurysm
302
The one way valve that lies between the left ventricle and the aorta and keeps blood from flowing back into the left ventricle after the left ventricle ejects its blood into the aorta; one of four heart valves
Aortic valve
303
A scoring system for assessing the status of a newborn that assigns a number value to each of 5 areas
Apgar score
304
the inability to understand or produce speech
Aphasia
305
Absence of spontaneous breathing- (Respiratory arrest)
Apnea
306
Inflammation or infection of the appendix
Appendicitis
307
a small tubular structure that is attached to the lower border of the cecum in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen
Appendix
308
The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct
Applied ethics
309
The smallest branches of the arteries leading to a vast network of capillaries
Arterioles
310
A disease that causes the arteries to thicken, harden and calcify
Arteriosclerosis
311
A blood vessel, consisting of 3 layers of tissue and smooth muscle, that carries blood away from the heart
Artery
312
Fluid in the abdomen
Ascites
313
A tracing on the ECG that is a result of interference such as patient movement
Artifact
314
A technique that help ensure pathogens are not introduced anywhere in the procedure, achieved by sterilization of equipment, or use of antiseptics or disinfectants; often used for fast, invasive procedures such as starting an IV line
Aseptic technique
315
In the context of airway, the introduction of vomitus or other foreign material in the lungs
Aspiration
316
A medication that is an antipyretic (reduces fever), analgesic (reduces pain), anti-inflammatory ( reduces inflammation), and a potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation (clumping)
Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid or ASA)
317
Unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm
Assault
318
An acute spasm of the smaller air passages, called bronchioles, associated with excessive mucus production and with swelling of the mucus lining of the respiratory passages
Asthma
319
The complete absence of heart electrical activity
Asystole
320
Irregular, ineffective respirations that may or may not have an identifiable pattern
Ataxic respirations
321
Collapse of the alveolar air spaces in the lungs
Atelectasis
322
A disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque, eventually leading to a partial or complete blockage of blood flow
Atherosclerosis
323
One of two (right and left) upper chambers of the heart. The right ___ receives blood from the vena cava and delivers it to the right ventricle. The left ___ receives blood from pulmonary veins and delivers it to the left ventricle
Atrium
324
A sensation experienced before a seizure; serves as a warning sign that a seizure is about to occur
Aura
325
To listen to sounds within an organ with a stethoscope
Auscultate
326
A device that detects life threatening cardiac arrhythmias (ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia) and delivers the appropriate electrical shock to the patient
Automated external defibrillator (AED)
327
The ability of cardiac muscle cells to contract without stimulation from the nervous system
Automaticity
328
The part of the nervous system that regulates involuntary activities of the body, such as heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion of food
Autonomic nervous system
329
A method of assessing the level of consciousness by determining whether the patient is awake and alert, responsive to verbal stimuli or pain, or unresponsive
AVPU
330
An injury in which soft tissue is torn completely loose or is hanging as a flap
Avulsion
331
Injuries in which load is applied along the vertical or longitudinal axis of the spine, which results in load being transmitted along the entire length of the vertebral column; for example, falling from a height and landing on the feet in an upright position
Axial loading injuries
332
The part of the skeleton comprising the skull, spinal column and rib cage
Axial skeleton
333
B-NICE
A memory device to recall the types of weapons of mass destruction: Biological, nuclear, incendiary, chemical and explosive
334
A device with a one way valve and a face mask attached to a ventilation bag; when attached to a reservoir and connected to oxygen, it delivers more than 90% supplemental oxygen
Bag-valve-mask (BVM)
335
A joint that allows internal and external rotation as well as bending
Ball-and-socket joint
336
A branch of medicine concerned with the management of obesity and allied diseases
Bariatrics
337
Injury caused by pressure to enclosed body surfaces, for example. from too much pressure in the lungs
Barotrauma
338
A protective item, such as a pocket mask with a valve that limits exposure to a patients body fluids
Barrier device
339
Noninvasive emergency lifesaving care that is used to treat medical conditions; including airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest
Basic Life support (BLS)
340
usually occur following diffuse impact to the head (such as falls, MVC); generally result from the linear fracture to the base of the skull. a fracture of the base of the skull, typically involving the temporal bone, occipital bone, sphenoid bone, and/or ethmoid bone.
Basilar Skull FractureSigns/Symptoms: Battle's sign, Raccoon eyes, CSF cerebrospinal fluid from nose and ears
341
Unlawfully touching a patient or providing emergency care without consent
Battery
342
Bruising behind an ear over the mastoid process that may indicate a skull fracture
Battle sign
343
How a person functions or acts in response to his/her environment
Behavior
344
The point at which a person's reactions to events interfere with activities of daily living; this becomes a psychiatric emergency when it causes a major life interruption, such as attempted suicide
Behavioral crisis
345
A painful condition seen in divers who ascend too quickly, in which gas, especially nitrogen, forms bubbles in the blood vessels and other tissues; also called decompression sickness
Bends
346
A type of energy that is emitted from a strong radiological source; is slightly more penetrating than alpha and requires a layer of clothing to stop it.
Beta
347
Portions of the nervous system that, when stimulated, can cause an increase in the force of the contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation
Beta-adrenergic receptors
348
The large muscle that covers the front of the humorous
Bicep
349
A body part or condition that appears on both sides of the midline
Bilateral
350
The ducts that convey bile between the liver and the intestine
Bile ducts
351
Shipping papers used for transport of chemicals over roads and highways; also referred to as freight bolls
Bills of Lading
352
The study of ethics related to issues that arise in health care
Bioethics
353
What do the vagina and cervix form
Birth canal
354
To turn white
Blanche
355
The pressure that the blood exerts against the walls of the arteries as it passes through them
Blood Pressure
356
Pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to, Hepatitis B virus and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Blood borne pathogens
357
A small amount of blood in the vagina that appears at the beginning of labor and may include a plug of pink tinged mucus that is discharged when the cervix begins to dilate
Bloody Show
358
A fracture of the orbit or of the bones that support the floor of the orbit
Blow-out fracture
359
An impact on the body by objects that cause injury without penetrating soft tissues or internal organs and cavities
Blunt trauma
360
The major vessel in the upper extremities that supplies blood to the arm
Brachial Artery
361
A slow heart rate less than 60 beats/per minute
Bradycardia
362
Slow respiratory rate; in a child is an ominous sign that indicates impending respiratory arrest
Bradypnea
363
The area of the brain between the spinal cord and cerebrum, surrounded by the cerebellum; controls functions that are necessary for life such as respiration
Brain Stem
364
Disclosure of information without proper authorization
Breach of confidentiality
365
An indication of air movement in the lungs, usually assessed with a stethoscope
Breath sounds
366
A delivery in which the buttocks or limb come out first
Breech presentation
367
Subdivision of the smaller bronchi in the lungs; made of smooth muscle and dilate or constrict in response to various stimuli
Bronchioles
368
Inflammation of the bronchioles that usually occur in children younger than 2 years and is often caused by the respiratory syncytial virus
Bronchiolitis
369
An acute or chronic inflammation of the lung that may damage lung tissue; usually associated with cough and production of sputum and, depending on its cause, sometimes fever
Bronchitis
370
Injuries in which soft tissue damage occurs as a result of thermal heat, friction heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation.
Burns
371
The heel bone
Calcaneus
372
The small blood vessels that connect arterioles and venules; various substances pass through the capillary walls, into and out of interstitial fluid, and then on to the cells
Capillaries
373
A test that evaluates distal circulatory system function by squeezing (blanching) blood from an area such as a nail bed and watching the speed of its return after releasing the pressure.
Capillary refill
374
A noninvasive method to quickly and efficiently provide information on a patients ventilatory status, circulation and metabolism; efficiently measures the concentration of carbon dioxide in expired air over time
Capnography
375
A waste product exhaled during respiration by the respiratory system
Carbon Dioxide
376
When the heart fails to generate effective and detectable blood flow; pulses are not palpable
Cardiac arrest
377
A measure of the volume of blood circulated by the heart in 1 minute; calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate
Cardiac output
378
Compression of the heart as the result of buildup of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac, leading to decreased cardiac output
Cardiac Tamponade
379
A state to which not enough oxygen is delivered to the tissues of the body, caused by low output of blood from the heart. Sometimes caused by damage to the heart by an acute MI
Cardiogenic shock
380
Point of which the trachea bifurcates (divides) into the left and right mainstem bronchi
Carina
381
The major vessel in the neck that supplies blood to the head and brain
Carotid Artery
382
The smooth connective tissue that forms the support structure of the skeletal system and provides cushioning between bones
Cartilage
383
Clouding of the lens of the eye or its surrounding transparent membranes
Cataracts
384
A phenomenon in which speed causes a bullet to generate pressure waves, which cause damage distant from the bullets path
Cavitation
385
The first part of the large intestine, into which the ileum opens
Cecum
386
Composed of the brain and spinal cord
Central nervous system
387
Pulses that are closest to the core part of the body where the vital organs are located; includes the carotid and femoral
Central pulses
388
One of the three main subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the little brain; coordinates the various activities of the brain particularly fine body movements
Cerebellum
389
Swelling of the brain
Cerebral Edema
390
Fluid produced in the ventricles of the brain that flows in the subarachnoid space and bathes the meninges
Cerebral Spinal Fluid
391
A interruption of the blood flow to the brain that results in the loss of brain function; also called a stroke
Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA)
392
The largest part of the three subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the gray matter, made up of several lobes that control movement, hearing, balance, speech, visual perception, emotions and personality
Cerebrum
393
The portion of the spinal column containing the first seven vertebrae that lie in the neck
Cervical spine
394
The lower third or neck of the uterus it is the narrowest portion of the uterus and opens into the vagina
Cervix
395
They monitor the levels of O2, CO2 and the PH of the Cerebrospinal fluid and then provide feedback to the respiratory centers to modify the rate and depth of breathing based on the body's needs at a given time
Chemoreceptors
396
The reason a patient called for help, also the patient's response to the question "What's wrong?
Chief complaint
397
Inflammation of the gall bladder
Cholecystitis
398
A slow process of dilation and disruption of the airways and alveoli caused by chronic bronchial obstruction
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
399
The substance that leaves the stomach. It is a combination of all of the eaten foods with added stomach acids
Chyme
400
The complex arrangement of connected tubes, including the arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins that moves blood, oxygen, nutrients, carbon dioxide, and cellular waste throughout the body
Circulatory system
401
Also known as the collar bone; it is lateral to the sternum and anterior to the scapula
Clavicle
402
An injury to the chest in which the skin is not broken, usually caused by blunt trauma
Closed chest injury
403
Questions that can be answered with yes or no answers
Close-ended questions
404
The formation of a clot to plug an opening in an injured blood vessel and stop bleeding
Coagulation
405
The last 3 or 4 vertebrae of the spine; the tail bone
Coccyx
406
A safe area in a haz-mat incident for the agencies involved in the incident; The incident commander, command post EMS providers and other support functions are located in this zone.
Cold Zone (green zone) (clean zone)
407
A surgical procedure to create an opening between the colon and the surface of the bod
Colostomy
408
A blunt chest injury caused by a sudden direct blow to the chest that occurs only during the critical portion of the persons heartbeat
Commotio Cordis
409
The early stage of shock when the body continues to stabilize during blood loss
Compensated Shock
410
A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brains abilities to function without actual physical damage to the brain
Concussion
411
A disorder in which the heart loses part of its ability to effectively pump blood, usually as a result of damage to the heart muscle and usually resulting in a backup of fluid into the lungs
Congestive heart failure (CHF)
412
The delicate membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the exposed surface of the eye
Conjunctiva
413
In the context of EMS, permission to render care
Consent
414
An infectious disease that spreads from one human to another; communicable
Contagious
415
A method of ventilation used primarily in the treatment of critically ill patients with respiratory distress
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP)
416
Conditions that make a particular medication or treatment inappropriate because it would not help, or may actually harm the patient
Contraindication
417
A bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin
Contusion
418
The transparent tissue layer in front of the pupil and iris of the eye
Cornea
419
A brain injury that occurs when force is applied to the head and energy transmission through brain tissue causes injury on the opposite side of the original impact
Coup- contrecoup brain injuryCoup injury is on the impact sideContrecoup injury occurs on the opposite side of the impact
420
Rattling breath sounds signaling fluid in the air spaces of the lungs; formerly called rales
Crackles
421
A grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling
Crepitus
422
An inflammatory disease of the upper respiratory system that may cause a partial airway obstruction and is characterized by a barking cough; usually seen in children
Croup
423
The appearance of the fetus's head at the vaginal opening during labor
Crowning
424
When one person imposes his/her beliefs, values, and practices on another
Cultural imposition
425
A blue-gray skin color that is caused by a reduced level of oxygen in the blood
Cyanosis
426
The mnemonic for assessment in which each area of the body is evaluated for an injury
DCAP-BTLS Deformities, Contusions, Abrasions, Punctures/penetrations, Burns, Tenderness, Lacerations and Swelling
427
The late stage of shock when the blood pressure is dropping
Decompensated shock
428
Sores caused by the pressure of skin against a surface for long periods; can range from a pink discoloration of the skin to a deep wound that may invade into bone or organs
Decubitus UlcersAKA: Bed Sores
429
The formation of a blood clot within the larger vessels of an extremity, typically following a period of prolonged immobilization
Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)
430
The communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that persons reputation or standing in the community
Defamation
431
A sudden change in mental status that is generally acute and reversible, characterized by disorientation, inability to focus, inattention, inability to think logically, striking changes in personality and affect, hallucinations or decreased level of consciousness
Delirium
432
A severe withdrawal syndrome seen in alcoholics who are deprived of ethyl alcohol
Delirium Tremens (DT's)Characterized by restlessness, fever, sweating, disorientation, agitation and seizures can be fatal if untreated
433
The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function
DementiaThis condition is generally chronic and irreversible
434
Swelling in the part of the body closest to the ground, caused by collection of fluid in the tissues; a possible sign of congestive heart failure
Dependent edema
435
Blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloration of the skin; a definitive sign of death
Dependent Lividity
436
The inner layer of skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings, and blood vessels
Dermis
437
A metabolic disorder in which the ability to metabolize carbohydrates (sugar) is impaired
Diabetes Mellitus
438
A form of hyperglycemia in uncontrolled diabetes in which certain acids accumulate when insulin is not available
Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
439
Characterized by light or profuse sweating
Diaphoretic
440
A muscular dome that forms the undersurface of the thorax, separating the chest from the abdomen
DiaphragmContraction of this (and the chest wall muscles) brings air into the lungs. Relaxation allows air to be expelled from the lungs
441
The relaxation, or period of relaxation, of the heart, especially in the ventricles
Diastole
442
The pressure that remains in the arteries during the relaxation phase of the hearts cycle
Diastolic pressureThis occurs when the ventricles are at rest
443
A process in which molecules move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration
Diffusion
444
Widening of a tubular or circular structure
DilationFor example the pupil or artery
445
Disruption of a joint in which ligaments are damaged and the bone ends are no longer in contact
Dislocation
446
A condition in which the layers of an artery such as the aorta, become separated, allowing blood (at high pressure) to flow between the layers
Dissecting aneurism
447
Further from the trunk of the body or nearer to the free end of an extremity
Distal
448
An injury that prevents the patient from noticing other injuries he or she may have, even severe injuries
Distracting injury
449
Shock in which there is a marked decrease in peripheral vascular resistance and consequent hypotension.
Distributive ShockExamples are septic shock, neurogenic shock, and anaphylactic shock.
450
The posterior surface of the body including the back of the hand
Dorsal
451
The artery on the anterior surface of the foot between the first and second metatarsals
Dorsalis pedis artery
452
A type of advanced directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his/her behalf, in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capability
Durable power of attorney healthcare
453
Slurred speech
Dysarthria
454
Shortness of breath or difficulty breathing
Dyspnea
455
An irregular or abnormal heart rhythm
Dysrhythmia
456
A buildup of blood beneath the skin that produces a characteristic blue or black discoloration as the result of an injury
EcchymosisAlso known as a contusion or bruise
457
Severe Hypertension in a pregnant woman, resulting in seizures (convulsions)
Eclampsia
458
A pregnancy that develops outside the uterus, typically in the fallopian tube
Ectopic pregnancy
459
The presence of abnormally large amounts of fluids between cells in body tissues, causing swelling of the affected area
Edema
460
A person who is under the legal age in a given state but, because of other circumstances, is legally considered an adult
Emancipated minor
461
A blood clot or other substance in the circulatory system that travels to a blood vessel where it causes a blockage
Embolus
462
The early stage of development after the fertilization of the egg
Embryo
463
Vomit
Emesis
464
A disease of the lungs in which there is extreme dilation and eventual destruction of the pulmonary alveoli with poor exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
EmphysemaIt is one form of COPD
465
Glands that secrete or release chemicals that are used inside the body
Endocrine glands
466
The complex message and control system that integrates many body functions, including the release of hormones; also regulates metabolism and maintains homeostasis
Endocrine system
467
The lining of the inside of the uterus
Endometrium
468
The amount of carbon dioxide present at the end of an exhaled breath
End-tidal CO2
469
Medications that enter the body through the digestive system
Enteral
470
The outer layer of the skin, which is made up of cells that are sealed together to form a protective watertight covering of the body
Epidermis
471
An accumulation of blood between the skull and the dura mater
Epidural hematoma
472
A thin leaf shaped valve that allows air to pass into the trachea but prevents food and liquid from entering
Epiglottis
473
A disease of the upper airway which causes airway obstruction. S/S include fever, neck pain, stridor and drooling
Epiglottitis
474
A disorder in which abnormal electrical discharges occur in the brain, causing seizure and possible loss of consciousness
Epilepsy
475
a hormone produced by the body that has a vital role in the function of the sympathetic nervous systemIt stimulates alpha, beta 1 and beta 2 and used in cardiac arrest
Epinephrine (adrenaline)Alpha- constrict blood vesselsBeta 1- increase heart rateBeta 2- Increase the diameter of the bronchioles of the lungs
476
A nosebleed
Epistaxis
477
A collapsible tube that extends from the pharynx to the stomach
Esophagus
478
The philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of a professional behavior
Ethics
479
The displacement of organs outside the body
Evisceration
480
A type of consent in which the patient gives authorization for provision of care or transport
Expressed Consent
481
The tubes that extend from the uterus to the region of the ovary and through which the ovum passes from the ovary to the uterus
fallopian tubes
482
The confinement of a person without legal authority or the persons consent
False imprisonment
483
Seizures that result from sudden high fevers
Febrile seizures-Occurs in children aged 6 months to 5 years
484
The federal agency that has jurisdiction over interstate and international telephone and telegraph and satellite communications
Federal Communication commission (FCC)
485
The major artery of the thigh, a continuation of the external iliac artery
Femoral Artery
486
The longest and strongest bone of the body proximal to the knee
Femur
487
The smaller bone distal and lateral to the knee
Fibula
488
A condition in which 3 or more ribs are fractured in two or more places or in association with a fracture of the sternum so that a segment of the chest wall is effectively detached from the rest of the thoracic cage
Flail Chest
489
The region below the rib cage and above the hip
Flank
490
A one way valve that allows air to leave the chest cavity but not return; formed by taping three sides of the occlusive dressing to the chest wall leaving the fourth side open as a valve
Flutter valve
491
Area where the neonate's or infants skull has not fused together; usually disappear at approximately 18 months of age
Fontanells
492
A large opening at the base of the skull through which the brain connects to the spinal cord
Foramen magnum
493
An inclined position in which the head of the bed is raised
Fowler position
494
A break in the continuity of the bone
Fracture
495
Burns that affect all skin layers and may affect the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, and internal organs, leaving the area dry, leathery, white, dark brown or charred
Full thickness burns (3rd degree)
496
The dome shaped top of the uterus
Fundus
497
A sac that collects bile from the liver and discharges it into the duodenum through the common bile duct
Gallbladder
498
A type of energy that is emitted from a strong radiological source. These rays penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration
Gamma (X-Ray)
499
The overall initial impression that determines the priority for patient care.
General Impression
500
A seizure that features rhythmic back and forth motion of an extremity and body stiffness, or extreme twitching of all the body muscles formerly known as a grand mal seizure
generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure
501
The assessment and treatment of disease in someone who is 65 years or older
Geriatrics
502
The deepest layer of the epidermis where new skin cells are formed
Germinal layer
503
Diabetes that develops during pregnancy in women who do not have diabetes before pregnancy
Gestational diabetes
504
An evaluation tool used to determine level of consciousness, which evaluates and assigns point scores for eye opening, verbal response, and motor response, which are then totaled; effective in helping predict patient outcomes
Glasgow Coma scale (GCS)
505
Another name for the eyeball
Globe
506
The space between the vocal cords that is the narrowest portion of the adults airway.
Glottis
507
Statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross or willful negligence
Good Samaritan Laws
508
A bony prominence on the proximal lateral side of the thigh, just below the hip joint
Greater Trochanter
509
Conduct that constitutes a willful or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care
Gross Negligence
510
An "UH" sound heard during exhalation; reflects the child's attempt to keep the alveoli open; a sign of increased work of breathing
Grunting
511
Involuntary muscle contractions (spasm) of the abdominal wall to minimize the pain of movement and protect the inflamed abdomen.
Guarding
512
A combination of two movements to open the airway by tilting the forehead back and lifting the chin; not used for trauma patients
Head tilt-chin lift maneuver
513
A written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should he/she become unable to make decisions.
Health care directiveAlso known as an advance directive or living will
514
Federal legislation passed in 1996. Its main effect in EMS is in limiting availability of the patient's health care information and penalizing violations of patients privacy
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability ACT (HIPAA)
515
Painful muscle spasms usually associated with vigorous activity in a hot environment
Heat Cramps
516
A heat emergency in which a significant amount of fluid and electrolyte loss occurs because of heavy sweating
Heat Exhaustion
517
A life threatening condition of severe hyperthermia caused by exposure to excessive natural or artificial heat; marked by warm, dry skin; severely altered mental status
Heat Stroke
518
Vomited blood
Hematemesis
519
A mass of blood that has collected within damaged tissue beneath the skin or in a body cavity
Hematoma
520
Blood in the urine
Hematuria
521
Weakness on one side of the body
Hemiparesis
522
A hereditary condition in which the patient lacks one or more of the blood's normal clotting factors, which results in uncontrollable bleeding
Hemophilia
523
The accumulation of blood and air in the pleural space of the chest
Hemopneumothorax
524
The coughing up of blood
Hemoptysis
525
Bleeding
Hemorrhage
526
A type of stroke that occurs as a result of bleeding inside the brain
Hemorrhagic stroke
527
A collection of blood in the pleural cavity
Hemothorax
528
inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, jaundice, fatigue, and altered liver function
Hepatitis
529
The protrusion of an organ or tissue through an abnormal body opening
Hernia
530
Chemical substances released by the immune system in allergic reactions that are responsible for many of the symptoms of anaphylaxis, such as vasodilation
Histamines
531
Structures through which materials pass, such as stomach, small intestine, large intestine, ureters, and urinary bladder
Hollow Organs
532
A balance of all the systems of the body
Homeostasis
533
A chemical substance produced by a gland that regulates the activity of organs and tissues; regulates many body functions, including metabolism, growth, and body temperature
Hormone
534
The area immediately surrounding a hazardous material spill or incident site that endangers life and health. All responders working in this zone must wear appropriate protective clothing and equipment.
Hot Zone
535
The supporting bone of the upper arm
Humerous
536
A family of insects that include bees, ants, and yellow jackets.
Hymenoptera
537
Increased carbon dioxide level in the bloodstream
Hypercarbia
538
An abnormally high blood glucose
Hyperglycemia
539
A life threatening condition resulting from high blood glucose that typically occurs in older adults, and which causes altered mental status, dehydration, and organ damage
Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)
540
Blood pressure that is higher than the normal range
Hypertension
541
A condition in which the body core temperature rises to 101 degrees Fahrenheit or more
Hyperthermia
542
Rapid or deep breathing that lowers the carbon dioxide level below normal; may lead to increased intrathoracic pressure, decreased venous return.
Hyperventilation
543
An abnormally low blood glucose level
Hypoglycemia
544
A condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to maintain normal cellular functions; also called shock
Hypoperfusion
545
Blood pressure that is lower than the normal range
Hypotension
546
A condition in which the internal or core temperature falls below 95 degrees Fahrenheit
Hypothermia
547
A condition in which low blood volume, due to massive internal or external bleeding or extensive loss of body water, results in inadequate perfusion
Hypovolemic shock
548
A dangerous condition in which the body's tissues and cells do not have enough oxygen
Hypoxia
549
Type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he/she would want treatment
Implied Consent
550
Refers to the legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of a parent
In loco parentis
551
Loss of bowel and/or bladder control; may be a result of a generalized seizure
Incontinence
552
Awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries may exist when determining the mechanism of injury
Index of suspicion
553
The therapeutic uses for a specific medication
Indications
554
Exposure or transmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object
Indirect contact
555
A young child age 1 month to 1 year
Infant
556
Death of a body tissue, usually caused by the interruption of its blood supply
Infarction
557
Below a body part or nearer to the feet
Inferior
558
One of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the lower extremities and the pelvic and the abdominal organs to the heart
Inferior vena cava
559
Permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment have been explained
Informed consent
560
A hormone produced by the islets of Langerhans that enables glucose in the blood to enter cells
Insulin
561
The space in between the cells
Interstitial space
562
The pressure within the cranial vault
Intracranial pressure
563
An injection into a muscle; a medication delivery route
Intramuscular (IM) injection
564
A delivery route in which a medication is pushed through a specialized atomizer device called a mucosal atomizer device (MAD) into the naris
Intranasal (IN)
565
An injection into the bone; a medication delivery route
Intraosseous (IO) injection
566
An injection directly into a vein; a medication delivery route
Intravenous (IV) injection
567
The muscle over which a person has no conscious control. It is found in many automatic systems of the body
Involuntary muscle
568
The muscle and surrounding tissue behind the cornea that dilate and constrict the pupil, regulating the amount of light that enters the eye; pigment in this tissue gives the eye its color
Iris
569
A lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow; potentially reversible because permanent injury has not occurred
Ischemia
570
Yellow skin or sclera that is caused by liver disease or dysfunction
Jaundice
571
Technique to open the airway by placing the fingers behind the angle of the jaw and bringing the jaw forward
Jaw-thrust maneuverUsed for patients who may have a cervical spine injury
572
A visual bulging of the jugular veins in the neck caused by fluid overload, pressure in the chest, cardiac tamponade, or tension pneumothorax
Jugular vein distention
573
A sorting system for pediatric patients younger than 8 years or weighing less than 100 pounds
Jumpstart triageThere is a minor adaptation for infants because they cannot ambulate on their own
574
To walk or move about freely
Ambulate
575
Two retroperitoneal organs that excrete the end products of metabolism as urine and regulate the body's salt and water content
Kidneys
576
The energy of a moving object
kinetic energy
577
Deep rapid breathing; usually the result of an accumulation of certain acids when insulin is not available in the body
Kussmaul respirations
578
A forward curling of the back caused by an abnormal increase in the curvature of the spine
Kyphosis
579
Breathing that requires greater than normal effort; may be slower or faster than normal and characterized by grunting, stridor, and the use of accessory muscles
Labored breathing
580
A deep jagged cut in the skin
Laceration
581
The glands that produce fluids to keep the eye moist; also called tear glands
Lacrimal glands
582
A metabolic byproduct of the breakdown of glucose that accumulates when metabolism proceeds in the absence of oxygen (anaerobic metabolism)
Lactic acid
583
The portion of the digestive tube that encircles the abdomen consisting of the cecum, the colon, and the rectum.
Large intestineIt also regulates water balance and eliminates solid waste
584
A complex structure where the upper airway ends and the lower airway begins; also called the voice box
Larynx
585
Parts of the body that lie farther from the midline
Lateral
586
The standard measure of the dose amount of an agent or substance that will kill 50% of the population who are exposed to this level
LD50
587
A length based tape to estimate an infant or child's weight on the basis of length; appropriate drug doses and equipment sizes are listed on the tape
Length based resuscitation tapeAlso called Broslow tape
588
The transparent part of the eye through which images are focused on the retina
Lens
589
In the incident command, the person who relays information, concerns, and requests among responding agencies
Liaison officer
590
False or damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing
Libel
591
A band of fibrous tissue that connects bones to bones. It supports and strengthens a joint
Ligament
592
A delivery in which the presenting part is a single arm or leg
Limb presentation
593
A large, solid organ that lies in the right upper quadrant immediately below the diaphragm; it produces bile, stores glucose for immediate use by the body
Liver
594
In incident command, the position that helps procure and stockpile equipment and supplies during the incident
Logistics
595
The lower part of the back, formed by the lowest five nonfused vertebrae
Lumbar spine
596
A thin, straw colored fluid that carries oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to the cells and carries waste products of metabolism away from the cells and back into the capillaries so that they may be excreted
Lymph
597
A passive circulatory system in the body that transports a plasma like liquid called lymph
Lymphatic system
598
The bone of the lower jaw
Mandible
599
The upper quarter of the sternum
Manubrium
600
An emergency situation involving three or more patients or that can place great demand on the equipment or personnel of the EMS system or has the potential to produce multiple casualties
Mass casualty incident
601
The prominent bony mass at the base of the skull about 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear
Mastoid process
602
The upper jawbones that assist in the formation of the orbit, the nasal cavity, and the palate and hold the upper teeth
Maxillae
603
The forces, or energy transmission, applied to the body that cause injury
Mechanism of injury (MOI)
604
Fetal stool. When appearing as a dark green material in the amniotic fluid, it can indicate distress or disease in the newborn
Meconium
605
Parts of the body closer to the midline
Medial
606
Space within the chest that contains the heart, major blood vessels, vagus nerve, trachea, major bronchi, and esophagus; located between the two lungs
Mediastinum
607
the most caudal subdivision of the brainstem, immediately continuous with the spinal cord,
Medulla OblongataCoordinates heart rate, blood vessel diameter, breathing, swallowing, vomiting, coughing, and sneezing
608
Black, foul smelling, tarry stool containing digested blood
Melena
609
Three distinctive layers of tissue that surround and protect the brain and spinal cord within the skull and spinal canal
Meninges
610
An inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord; it is usually cause by a virus or bacterium
Meningitis
611
The biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within cells
Metabolism
612
Excessively constricted pupil; often bilateral
Miosis
613
The spontaneous passage of the fetus and placenta before 20 weeks; also called spontaneous abortion
Miscarriage
614
An infant reflex in which, when an infant is caught off guard, the infant opens his or her arms wide, spread the fingers, and seems to grab at things
Moro reflex
615
A device that is used to change a liquid into a spray and push it into a nostril
Mucosal atomizer device (MAD)
616
The linings of body cavities and passages that are in direct or indirect contact with the outside environment
Mucous Membranes
617
A woman who has had previous pregnancies
Multigravida
618
A substance that mutates, damages, and changes the structures of the DNA in the body's cells
Mutagen
619
Bruising of the heart muscle
Myocardial contusion
620
The heart muscle
Myocardium
621
A drug that produces sleep or altered level of consciousness
Narcotic
622
The external openings of the nostrils
NaresA single nostril opening is called a naris
623
An oxygen delivery device in which oxygen flows through two small tube-like prongs that fit into a patients nostrils
Nasal CannulaDelivers 24% to 44% supplemental oxygen
624
Widening of the nostrils, indicating that there is an airway obstruction
Nasal Flaring
625
An airway adjunct inserted into the nostril of an unresponsive patient or a patient with an altered level of consciousness who is unable to maintain airway patency independently
Nasopharyngeal (nasal) airway
626
The nasal cavity, or part of the pharynx that lies above the level of the roof of the mouth
Nasopharynx
627
Refusal or failure on the part of the parent or caregiver to provide life necessities
Neglect
628
Failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide
Negligence
629
A newborn age birth to 1 month
Neonate
630
The basic filtering units in the kidneys
Nephrons
631
Circulatory failure caused by paralysis of the nerves that control the size of the blood vessels, leading to widespread dilation
Neurogenic shock
632
A group of conditions in which the nerves leaving the spinal cord are damaged, resulting in distortion of signal to or from the brain
Neuropathy
633
A medication that increases cardiac perfusion by causing blood vessels to dilate
Nitroglycerin
634
A combination mask and reservoir bag system that is the preferred way to give oxygen in the prehospital setting
Nonrebreathing maskDelivers up to 90% inspired oxygen and prevents inhaling the exhaled gases
635
A neurotransmitter and drug sometimes used in the treatment of shock
NorepinephrineProduces vasoconstriction through its alpha simulator properties
636
An umbilical cord that is wrapped around a fetus's neck
Nuchal cord
637
A complex condition in which a person has an excessive amount of body fat
Obesity
638
The most posterior portion of the cranium
Occiput
639
A blockage, usually of a tubular structure such as a blood vessel
Occlusion
640
An airtight dressing that protects a wound from air and bacteria; a commercial vented version allows air to escape from the chest, while an unvented dressing made of petroleum dressing gauze, aluminum foil or plastic
Occlusive dressing
641
The federal regulatory compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
642
The pressure of water to move, typically into the capillary, as the result of the presence of plasma proteins
Oncotic pressure
643
Any break in the bone in which the underlying skin has been broken
Open Fracture
644
A mnemonic used in evaluating a patient's pain: Onset, Provocation, Quality, Region/radiation, Severity and Timing
OPQRST
645
The eye socket, made up of the maxilla and zygoma
Orbit
646
Airway adjunct inserted into the mouth of an unresponsive patient to keep the tongue from blocking the upper airway and to facilitate suctioning the airway, if necessary
Oropharygeal Airway (OPA) also known as an oral airway
647
A tubular structure that extends vertically from the back of the mouth to the esophagus and trachea
Oropharynx
648
Severe dyspnea experienced by lying down and relieved by sitting up
Orthopnea
649
A generalized bone disease, commonly associated with post menopausal women, in which there is a reduction in the amount of bone mass leading to fractures after minimal trauma in either sex
Osteoporosis
650
The primary female productive organs that produce sex hormones and an ovum, or egg, that if fertilized, will develop into a fetus
Ovaries
651
A gas that all cells need for metabolism; the heart and brain especially, cannot function without it
Oxygen
652
The forward facing part of the hand in the anatomic position
Palmar
653
To examine or touch
Palpate
654
A flat solid organ that lies below the liver and the stomach; its a major source of the digestive enzymes and produces the hormone insulin
Pancreas
655
An outbreak that occurs on a global scale
Outbreak
656
The motion of the portion of the chest wall that is detached in a flail chest; the motion-in during inhalation, out during exhalation- is exactly opposite of normal chest wall motion during breathing
Paradoxical motion
657
An individual who has extensive training in advanced life support, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology, cardiac monitoring, and other advanced assessment and treatment skills
Paramedic
658
A subdivision of the autonomic nervous system, involved in control of involuntary functions such as digestion of food and relaxation, mediated largely by the vagus nerve through the chemical acetylcholine
Parasympathetic nervous system
659
Severe shortness of breath, especially at night after several hours of reclining; the person is forced to sit up to breath
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
660
A seizure affecting a limited portion of the brain
Partial (focal) seizure
661
Burns that affect the epidermis and some portion of the dermis but not the subcutaneous tissue, characterized by blisters and skin that is white to red, moist and mottled
Partial-thickness (second degree) burns
662
The knee cap; a specialized bone that lies within the tendon of the quadriceps muscle
Patella
663
Open, and clear of obstruction
Patent
664
A microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host
Pathogen
665
When an EMT assists the patient with the administration of his or her medications
Patient-assisted medication
666
A structured assessment tool used to form a general impression of the infant or child without touching him or her; consists of assessing appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to the skin
Pediatric assessment triangle (PAT)
667
A device to splint the bony pelvis to reduce hemorrhage from bone ends, venous disruption, and pain
Pelvic binder
668
An infection of the fallopian tubes and the surrounding tissues of the pelvis
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
669
Through the mouth; a medication delivery route; same as oral
Per os (PO)
670
Through the rectum; a medication delivery route
Per rectum (PR)
671
The circulation of oxygenated blood through body tissues and vessels; the circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet current needs of the cells
Perfusion
672
The fibrous sac that surrounds the heart
Pericardium
673
In a female the area between the vagina and the anus
Perineum
674
The wavelike contraction of smooth muscle by which the ureters or other tubular organs propel their contents
Peristalsis
675
The abdominal cavity
Peritoneal cavity
676
The membrane lining the abdominal cavity and covering the abdominal; organs
Peritoneum
677
Negative findings that warrant no care or intervention
Pertinent negatives
678
An airborne bacterial infection that affects mostly children younger that 6 years, in which the patient is feverish and exhibits a "whoop" sound on inspiration after a coughing attack; highly contagious through droplet infection
Pertussis (whooping cough)
679
Nerve that innervates the diaphragm; necessary for adequate breathing to occur
Phrenic nerve
680
The tissue attached to the uterine wall that nourishes the fetus through the umbilical cord.
Placenta
681
A condition in which the placenta develops over and covers the cervix
Placenta Previa
682
The bottom surface of the foot
Plantar
683
The Midline of the body is created by drawing an imaginary line, where?
draw an imaginary line down the center of the body slicing the imaginary body at the midline dividing the body into right and left halves
684
What is the anatomical position?
A person standing, facing forward, with palms forward 
685
This is towards the midline of the body
Medial
686
To the side, away from the body
Lateral
687
pertaining to both sides
Bilateral
688
A line drawn vertically from the middle of the armpit to the ankle
Mid-axillary
689
To the front of the body or body part
Anterior
690
The back of the body or body part
Posterior
691
referring to the front of the body a synonym for anterior
Ventral
692
referring to the back of the body or the back of the hand or foot, a synonym for posterior
Dorsal