All PMP Terms

Question 1

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide)

Answer 1

The PMI publication that defines widely accepted project management practices. The CAPM and the PMP exam are based on this book.

Question 2

Application Areas

Answer 2

The areas of expertise, industry, or function where a project is centered. Examples of application areas include architecture, IT, health care, and manufacturing.

Question 3

Business Value

Answer 3

A quantifiable return on investment. The return can be tangible, such as equipment, money, or market share. The return can also be intangible, such as brand recognition, trademarks, and reputation.

Question 4

Certified Associate In Project Management (CAPM)

Answer 4

A person who has slightly less project management experience than a PMP, but who has qualified for and then passed the examination to be an associate.

Question 5

Cultural And Social Environment

Answer 5

Defines how a project affects people and how those people may affect the project. This includes the economic, educational, ethical, religious, demographic, and ethnic composition of the people affected by the project.

Question 6

Deliverable

Answer 6

A product, service, or result created by a project. Projects can have multiple.

Question 7

General Management Skills

Answer 7

These include the application of accounting, procurement, sales and marketing, contracting, manufacturing, logistics, strategic planning, human resource management, standards and regulations, and information technology.

Question 8

International And Political Environment

Answer 8

The consideration of the local and international laws, languages, communication challenges, time zone differences, and other non-collocated issues that affect a project’s ability to progress.

Question 9

Interpersonal Skills

Answer 9

The ability to interact, lead, motivate, and manage people.

Question 10

Iron Triangle Of Project Management

Answer 10

A triangle with the characteristics of time, cost, and scope. Time, cost, and scope each constitute one side of the triangle; if any side is not in balance with the other sides, the project will suffer. This is also known as the Triple Constraints of Project Management, as all projects are constrained by time, cost, and scope.

Question 11

Physical Environment

Answer 11

The physical structure and surroundings that affect a project’s work.

Question 12

Process Groups

Answer 12

A collection of related processes in project management. There are five process groups and 49 project management processes. The five process groups are Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.

Question 13

Program

Answer 13

A collection of related projects working in unison toward a common deliverable.

Question 14

Progressive Elaboration

Answer 14

The process of gathering project details. This process uses deductive reasoning, logic, and a series of information- gathering techniques to identify details about a project, product, or solution.

Question 15

Project

Answer 15

A temporary endeavor to create a unique product, service, or result. The end result of a project is also called a deliverable.

Question 16

Project Benefits Management Plan

Answer 16

A documented created and maintained by the project sponsor and the project manager. The project benefits management plan defines what benefits the project will create, when the benefits will be realized, and how the benefits will be measured.

Question 17

Project Business Case

Answer 17

Created and maintained by the project sponsor and shows the financial validity of why a project is chartered and launched within the organization. Typically, the project business case is created before the launch of the project and may be used as a go/no-go decision point.

Question 18

Project Environment

Answer 18

The location and culture of the environment where the project work will reside. This includes the social, economic, and environmental variables the project must work with or around.

Question 19

Project Management Institute (PMI)

Answer 19

An organization of project management professionals from around the world, supporting and promoting the careers, values, and concerns of project managers.

Question 20

Project Life Cycle

Answer 20

The phases that make up the project. These are unique to the type of work being performed and are not universal to all projects.

Question 21

Project Management Office (PMO)

Answer 21

A central office that oversees all projects within an organization or within a functional department. Supports the project manager through software, training, templates, policies, communication, dispute resolution, and other services.

Question 22

Project Management Professional (PMP)

Answer 22

A person who has proven project management experience and has qualified for and then passed the PMP examination.

Question 23

Project Portfolio Management

Answer 23

The management and selection of projects that support an organization’s vision and mission. It is the balance of project priority, risk, reward, and return on investment. This is a senior management process.

Question 24

Subprojects

Answer 24

A smaller project managed within a larger, parent project. These are often contracted work whose deliverable allows the larger project to progress.

Question 25

Triple Constraints Of Project Management

Answer 25

Also known as the Iron Triangle. This theory posits that time, cost, and scope are three constraints that every project has.

Question 26

Work Performance Data

Answer 26

Raw data, observations, and measurements about project components. This data is gathered and stored in the project management information system.

Question 27

Work Performance Information

Answer 27

The processed and analyzed data that will help the project manager make project decisions.

Question 28

Work Performance Reports

Answer 28

The formatted communication of work performance information. Work performance reports communicate what’s happening in the project through status reports, memos, dashboards, or other modalities.

Question 29

Balanced Matrix Structure

Answer 29

An organization where organizational resources are pooled into one project team, but the functional managers and the project managers share the project power.

Question 30

Cultural Norms

Answer 30

The culture and the styles of an organization. ____ such as work ethics, hours, view of authority, and shared values, can affect how the project is managed.

Question 31

Enterprise Environmental Factors

Answer 31

Conditions that affect how the project manager may manage the project. Enterprise environmental factors come from within the project, such as policy, or they be external to the organization, such as law or regulation.

Question 32

Functional Structure

Answer 32

An organization that is divided into functions, and each employee has one clear functional manager. Each department acts independently of the other departments. A project manager in this structure has little to no power and may be called a project coordinator.

Question 33

Governance Framework

Answer 33

Describes the rules, policies, and procedures that people within an organization abide by. Also addresses the organization, but also address portfolios, programs, and projects. Regarding portfolios, programs, and projects the governance framework addresses alignment with organizational vision, risk management, performance factors, and communication.

Question 34

Hybrid Structure

Answer 34

An organization that creates a blend of the functional, matrix, and project- oriented structures.

Question 35

Multidivisional Structure

Answer 35

Describe organizations that have duplication of efforts within the organization, but not within each department or division of the organization. Project manager has little authority in this structure and the functional manager controls the project budget.

Question 36

Organic Or Simple

Answer 36

Describes a loosely organized business or organization. There likely aren’t big formal departments and people work alongside one another regardless of roles and titles. The project manager likely has little control over the project resources and may not be called a project manager.

Question 37

Organizational Process Assets

Answer 37

Includes organizational processes, policies, procedures, and items from a corporate knowledge base. These are grouped into two categories to consider: processes, policies and procedures, and organizational knowledge bases.

Question 38

Organizational Knowledge Repositories

Answer 38

The databases, files, and historical information that you can use to help better plan and manage your projects. This is an organizational process asset that is created internally to your organization through the ongoing work of operations and other projects.

Question 39

Organizational System

Answer 39

A system can create things by working with multiple components that the individual components could not create if they worked alone. The structure of the organization and the governance framework creates constraints that affect how the project manager makes decisions within the project. The organizational system directly affects how the project manager utilizes their power, influence, leadership, and even political capital, to get things done in the environment.

Question 40

Project Management Office (PMO)

Answer 40

A business unit that centralizes the operations and procedures of all projects within the organization. Can be supportive, controlling, or directive.

Question 41

Project-Oriented Structure

Answer 41

An organization that assigns a project team to one project for the duration of the project life cycle. The project manager has high-to-almost-complete project power.

Question 42

Strong Matrix Structure

Answer 42

An organization where organizational resources are pooled into one project team, but the functional managers have less project power than the project manager.

Question 43

Virtual Organization

Answer 43

Uses a network structure to communicate and interact with other groups and departments. A point of contact exists for each department and these department point of contact receive and send all messages for the department.

Question 44

Weak Matrix Structure

Answer 44

An organization where organizational resources are pooled into one project team, but the functional managers have more project power than the project manager.

Question 45

Active Listening

Answer 45

The message receiver restates what’s been said to fully understand and confirm the message and it provides an opportunity for the sender to clarify the message if needed.

Question 46

Active Problem Solving

Answer 46

Begins with problem definition. Problem definition is the ability to discern between the cause and effect of the problem. Root-cause analysis looks beyond the immediate symptoms to the cause of the symptoms—which then affords opportunities for solutions.

Question 47

Avoiding Power

Answer 47

The project manager refuses to act, get involved, or make decisions.

Question 48

Charismatic Leadership

Answer 48

The leader is motivating, has high- energy, and inspires the team through strong convictions about what’s possible and what the team can achieve. Positive thinking and a can-do mentality are characteristics of a charismatic leader.

Question 49

Expert Power

Answer 49

The project manager has deep skills and experience in a discipline (for example, years of working in IT helps an IT project manager better manage IT projects).

Question 50

Ingratiating Power

Answer 50

The project manager aims to gain favor with the project team and stakeholders through flattery.

Question 51

Informational Power

Answer 51

The individual has power and control of the data gathering and distribution of information.

Question 52

Interactional Leadership

Answer 52

The leader is a hybrid of transactional, transformational, and charismatic leaders. The interactional leader wants the team to act, is excited and inspired about the project work, yet still holds the team accountable for their results.

Question 53

Guilt-Based Power

Answer 53

The project manager can make the team and stakeholders feel guilty to gain compliance in the project.

Question 54

Leadership

Answer 54

This is about aligning, motivating, and inspiring the project team members to do the right thing, build trust, think creatively, and to challenge the status quo.

Question 55

Laissez-Faire Leadership

Answer 55

The leader takes a “hands-off” approach to the project. This means the project team makes decisions, takes initiative in the actions, and creates goals. While this approach can provide autonomy, it can make the leader appear absent when it comes to project decisions.

Question 56

Management

Answer 56

Management utilizes positional power to maintain, administrate, control, and focus on getting things done without challenging the status quo of the project and organization.

Question 57

Media Selection

Answer 57

Based on the audience and the message being sent, the media should be in alignment with the message.

Question 58

Meeting Management

Answer 58

Meetings are forms of communication. How the meeting is led, managed, and controlled all influence the message being delivered. Agendas, minutes, and order are mandatory for effective communications within a meeting.

Question 59

Personal Or Charismatic Power

Answer 59

The project manager has a warm personality that others like.

Question 60

Presentation

Answer 60

In formal presentations, the presenter’s oral and body language, visual aids, and handouts all influence the message being delivered.

Question 61

Pressure-Based Power

Answer 61

The project manager can restrict choices to get the project team to perform and do the project work.

Question 62

Pmi Talent Triangle

Answer 62

Defines three areas of PDUs for PMI certified professionals to maintain their certification. The PMI Talent Triangle includes technical project management, leadership, and strategic and business management.

Question 63

Positional Power

Answer 63

The project manager’s power is because of the position she has as the project manager. This is also known as formal, authoritative, and legitimate power.

Question 64

Professional Development Units (Pdus)

Answer 64

PDUs are earned after the PMP to maintain the PMP certification. PMPs are required to earn 60 PDUs per three-year certification cycle. Of the 60 PDUs, a minimum of 35 hours must come from educational opportunities.

Question 65

Project Manager

Answer 65

The role of leading the project team and managing the project resources to effectively achieve the objectives of the project.

Question 66

Punitive Or Coercive Power

Answer 66

The project manager can punish the project team.

Question 67

Referent Power

Answer 67

The project manager is respected or admired because of the team’s past experiences with the project manager. This is about the project manager’s credibility in the organization.

Question 68

Reward Power

Answer 68

The project manager can reward the project team.

Question 69

Sender-Receiver Models

Answer 69

Communication requires a sender and a receiver. Within this model may be multiple avenues to complete the flow of communication, but barriers to effective communication may be present as well.

Question 70

Servant Leadership

Answer 70

The leader puts others first and focuses on the needs of the people he serves. Servant leaders provide opportunity for growth, education, autonomy within the project, and the well-being of others. The primary focus of servant leadership is service to others.

Question 71

Situational Power

Answer 71

The project manager has power because of certain situations in the organization.

Question 72

Style

Answer 72

The tone, structure, and formality of the message being sent should be in alignment with the audience and the content of the message.

Question 73

Transactional Leadership

Answer 73

The leader emphasizes the goals of the project and rewards and disincentives for the project team. This is sometimes called management by exception as it’s the exception that is reward or punished.

Question 74

Transformational Leadership

Answer 74

The leader inspires and motivates the project team to achieve the project goals. Transformational leaders aim to empower the project team to act, be innovative in the project work, and accomplish through ambition.

Question 75

Assumption Log

Answer 75

An assumption is something that is believed to be true or false, but it has not yet been proven to be true or false. Assumptions that prove wrong can become risks for the project. All identified project assumptions are recorded in the assumption log for testing and analysis, and the outcomes are recorded.

Question 76

Benefit/Cost Ratio (Bcr) Models

Answer 76

This is an example of a benefits comparison model. It examines the benefit-to-cost ratio.

Question 77

Change Control Board (Ccb)

Answer 77

A committee that evaluates the worthiness of a proposed change and either approves or rejects the proposed change.

Question 78

Change Control System (Ccs)

Answer 78

The change control system communicates the process for controlling changes to the project deliverables. This system works with the configuration management system and seeks to control and document proposals to change the project’s product.

Question 79

Change Log

Answer 79

All changes that enter into a project are recorded in the change log. The characteristics of the change, such as the time, cost, risk, and scope details, are also recorded.

Question 80

Change Management Plan

Answer 80

This plan details the project procedures for entertaining change requests: how change requests are managed, documented, approved, or declined.

Question 81

Closure Processes

Answer 81

This final process group of the project management life cycle is responsible for closing the project phase or project. This is where project documentation is archived and project contracts are also closed.

Question 82

Communications Management Plan

Answer 82

This plan defines who will get what information, how they will receive it, and in what modality the communication will take place.

Question 83

Configuration Identification

Answer 83

This includes the labeling of the components, how changes are made to the product, and the accountability of the changes.

Question 84

Configuration Management Plan

Answer 84

This plan is an input to the control scope process. It defines how changes to the features and functions of the project deliverable, the product scope, may enter the project.

Question 85

Configuration Management System

Answer 85

This system defines how stakeholders are allowed to submit change requests, the conditions for approving a change request, and how approved change requests are validated in the project scope. Configuration management also documents the characteristics and functions of the project’s products and any changes to a product’s characteristics.

Question 86

Configuration Status Accounting

Answer 86

The organization of the product materials, details, and prior product documentation.

Question 87

Configuration Verification And Auditing

Answer 87

The scope verification and completeness auditing of project or phase deliverables to ensure that they are in alignment with the project plan.

Question 88

Contract Closure

Answer 88

The formal verification of the contract completeness by the vendor and the performing organization.

Question 89

Cost Baseline

Answer 89

This is the aggregated costs of all of the work packages within the work breakdown structure (WBS).

Question 90

Cost Management Plan

Answer 90

This plan details how the project costs will be planned for, estimated, budgeted, and then monitored and controlled.

Question 91

Explicit Knowledge

Answer 91

Knowledge that can be quickly and easily expressed through conversations, documentation, figures, or numbers, is easily communicated.

Question 92

Future Value

Answer 92

A benefit comparison model to determine a future value of money. The formula to calculate future value is FV = PV(1 + I)n, where PV is present value, I is the given interest rate, and n is the number of periods.

Question 93

Integrated Change Control

Answer 93

A process to consider and control the impact of a proposed change on the project’s knowledge areas.

Question 94

Issue Log

Answer 94

Issues are points of contention where some question of the project’s direction needs to be resolved. All identified issues are documented in the issue log, along with an issue owner and a deadline to resolve the issue. The outcome of the issue is also recorded.

Question 95

Mathematical Model

Answer 95

A project selection method to determine the likelihood of success. These models include linear programming, nonlinear programming, dynamic programming, integer programming, and multiobjective programming.

Question 96

Milestone

Answer 96

Milestones are significant points or events in the project’s progress that represent accomplishment in the project. Projects usually create milestones as the result of completing phases within the project.

Question 97

Milestone List

Answer 97

This list details the project milestones and their attributes. It is used for several areas of project planning, but also helps determine how quickly the project may be achieving its objectives.

Question 98

Murder Boards

Answer 98

These are committees that ask every conceivable negative question about the proposed project. Their goals are to expose the project’s strengths and weaknesses, and to kill the project if it’s deemed unworthy for the organization to commit to. Also known as project steering committees or project selection committees.

Question 99

Net Present Value

Answer 99

Evaluates the monies returned on a project for each period the project lasts.

Question 100

Payback Period

Answer 100

An estimate to predict how long it will take a project to pay back an organization for the project’s investment of capital.

Question 101

Present Value

Answer 101

A benefit comparison model to determine the present value of a future amount of money. The formula to calculate present value is PV = FV ÷ (1 + i)n, where FV is future value, I is the given interest rate, and n is the number of periods.

Question 102

Procurement Management Plan

Answer 102

The procurement management plan controls how the project will acquire goods and services.

Question 103

Project Charter

Answer 103

This document authorizes the project. It defines the initial requirements of the project stakeholders. The project charter is endorsed by an entity outside of the project boundaries.

Question 104

Project Management Plan

Answer 104

The documented approach of how a project will be planned, executed, monitored and controlled, and then closed. This document is a collection of subsidiary management plans and related documents.

Question 105

Project Scope Management Plan

Answer 105

Defines how the project scope will be planned, managed, and controlled.

Question 106

Quality Baseline

Answer 106

Documents the quality objectives for the project, including the metrics for stakeholder acceptance of the project deliverable.

Question 107

Quality Management Plan

Answer 107

This plan defines what quality means for the project, how the project will achieve quality, and how the project will map to organizational procedures pertaining to quality.

Question 108

Regression Analysis

Answer 108

A mathematical model to examine the relationship among project variables, like cost, time, labor, and other project metrics.

Question 109

Risk Management Plan

Answer 109

Risk is an uncertain event or condition that may affect the project outcome. The risk management plan defines how the project will manage risk.

Question 110

Risk Register

Answer 110

The risk register is a centralized database consisting of the outcome of all the other risk management processes, such as the outcome of risk identification, qualitative analysis, and quantitative analysis.

Question 111

Risk Response Plan

Answer 111

This subsidiary plan defines the risk responses that are to be used in the project for both positive and negative risks.

Question 112

Schedule Baseline

Answer 112

This is the planned start and finish of the project. The comparison of what was planned and what was experienced is the schedule variance.

Question 113

Schedule Management Plan

Answer 113

Defines how the project schedule will be created and managed.

Question 114

Scope Baseline

Answer 114

The scope baseline is a combination of three project documents: the project scope statement, the work breakdown structure, and the WBS dictionary. The creation of the project deliverable will be measured against the scope baseline to show any variances from what was expected and what the project team has created.

Question 115

Scoring Models

Answer 115

These models use a common set of values for all of the projects up for selection. For example, values can be profitability, complexity, customer demand, and so on.

Question 116

Tacit Knowledge

Answer 116

Knowledge that’s more difficult to express because it’s personal beliefs, values, knowledge gain from experience, and “know-how” when doing a task.

Question 117

8/80 Rule

Answer 117

A planning heuristic for creating the WBS. This rule states that the work package in a WBS must take no more than 80 hours of labor to create and no fewer than 8 hours of labor to create.

Question 118

Active Observation

Answer 118

The observer interacts with the worker to ask questions and understand each step of the work being completed. In some instances, the observer could serve as an assistant in doing the work.

Question 119

Affinity Diagrams

Answer 119

When stakeholders create a large number of ideas, you can use an affinity diagram to cluster similar ideas together for further analysis.

Question 120

Alternatives Generation

Answer 120

A scope definition process of finding alternative solutions for the project customer while considering the customer’s satisfaction, the cost of the solution, and how the customer may use the product in operations.

Question 121

Autocratic

Answer 121

A decision method where only one individual makes the decision for the group.

Question 122

Brainstorming

Answer 122

This approach encourages participants to generate as many ideas as possible about the project requirements. No idea is judged or dismissed during the brainstorming session.

Question 123

Change Control System (Ccs)

Answer 123

Documented in the scope management plan, this system defines how changes to the project scope are managed and controlled.

Question 124

Change Management Plan

Answer 124

This subsidiary plan defines how changes will be allowed and managed within the project.

Question 125

Code Of Accounts

Answer 125

A numbering system for each item in the WBS. The PMBOK is a good example of a code of accounts, as each chapter and its subheadings follow a logical numbering scheme. For example, PMBOK 5.3.3.2 identifies an exact paragraph in the PMBOK.

Question 126

Configuration Management Plan

Answer 126

This subsidiary plan defines how changes to the features and functions of the project deliverables will be monitored and controlled within the project.

Question 127

Context Diagram

Answer 127

These diagrams show the relationship between elements of an environment. For example, a context diagram would illustrate the networks, servers, workstations, and people that interact with the elements of the environment.

Question 128

Focus Groups

Answer 128

A moderator-led requirements collection method to elicit requirements from stakeholders.

Question 129

Functional Analysis

Answer 129

This is the study of the functions within a system, project, or, what’s more likely in the project scope statement, the product the project will be creating. Functional analysis studies the goals of the product, how the product will be used, and the expectations the customer has of the product once it leaves the project and moves into operations. Functional analysis may also consider the cost of the product in operations, which is known as life-cycle costing.

Question 130

Funding Limit

Answer 130

Most projects have a determined budget in relation to the project scope. There may be a qualifier on this budget, such as plus or minus 10 percent based on the type of cost estimate created.

Question 131

Interviews

Answer 131

A requirements collection method used to elicit requirements from stakeholders in a one-on-one conversation.

Question 132

Majority

Answer 132

A group decision method where more than 50 percent of the group must be in agreement.

Question 133

Mind Mapping

Answer 133

This approach maps ideas to show the relationship among requirements and the differences between requirements. The map can be reviewed to identify new solutions or to rank the identified requirements.

Question 134

Nominal Group Technique

Answer 134

As with brainstorming, participants are encouraged to generate as many ideas as possible, but the suggested ideas are ranked by a voting process.

Question 135

Passive Observation

Answer 135

The observer records information about the work being completed without interrupting the process; sometimes called the invisible observer.

Question 136

Plurality

Answer 136

A group-decision method where the largest part of the group makes the decision when it’s less than 50 percent of the total. (Consider three or four factions within the stakeholders.)

Question 137

Product Acceptance Criteria

Answer 137

This project scope statement component works with the project requirements, but focuses specifically on the product and what the conditions and processes are for formal acceptance of the product.

Question 138

Product Breakdown

Answer 138

A scope definition technique that breaks down a product into a hierarchical structure, much like a WBS breaks down a project scope.

Question 139

Product Scope Description

Answer 139

This is a narrative description of what the project is creating as a deliverable for the project customer.

Question 140

Product Scope

Answer 140

Defines the product or service that will come about as a result of completing the project. It defines the features and functions that characterize the product.

Question 141

Project Assumptions

Answer 141

A project assumption is a factor in the planning process that is held to be true but not proven to be true.

Question 142

Project Boundaries

Answer 142

A project boundary clearly states what is included with the project and what’s excluded from the project. This helps to eliminate assumptions between the project management team and the project customer.

Question 143

Project Constraints

Answer 143

A constraint is anything that limits the project manager’s options. Consider a predetermined budget, deadline, resources, or materials the project manager must use within the project— these are all examples of project constraints.

Question 144

Project Objectives

Answer 144

These are the measurable goals that determine a project’s acceptability to the project customer and the overall success of the project. Objectives often include the cost, schedule, technical requirements, and quality demands.

Question 145

Project Requirements

Answer 145

These are the demands set by the customer, regulations, or the performing organization that must exist for the project deliverables to be acceptable. Requirements are often prioritized in a number of ways, from “must have” to “should have” to “would like to have.”

Question 146

Project Scope

Answer 146

This defines all of the work, and only the required work, to complete the project objectives.

Question 147

Project Scope Management Plan

Answer 147

This project management subsidiary plan controls how the scope will be defined, how the project scope statement will be created, how the WBS will be created, how scope validation will proceed, and how the project scope will be controlled throughout the project.

Question 148

Requirements Documentation

Answer 148

This documentation of what the stakeholders expected in the project defines all of the requirements that must be present for the work to be accepted by the stakeholders.

Question 149

Requirements Management Plan

Answer 149

This subsidiary plan defines how changes to the project requirements will be permitted, how requirements will be tracked, and how changes to the requirements will be approved.

Question 150

Requirements Traceability Matrix (Rtm)

Answer 150

This is a table that maps the requirements throughout the project all the way to their completion.

Question 151

Schedule Milestones

Answer 151

The project customer may have specific dates when phases of the project should be completed. These milestones are often treated as project constraints.

Question 152

Scope Creep

Answer 152

Undocumented, unapproved changes to the project scope.

Question 153

Scope Validation

Answer 153

The formal inspection of the project deliverables, which leads to project acceptance.

Question 154

Stakeholder Analysis

Answer 154

A scope definition process where the project management team interviews the stakeholders and categorizes, prioritizes, and documents what the project customer wants and needs. The analysis is to determine, quantify, and prioritize the interests of the stakeholders. Stakeholder analysis demands quantification of stakeholder objectives; goals such as “good,” “satisfaction,” and “speedy” aren’t quantifiable.

Question 155

Systems Analysis

Answer 155

A scope definition approach that studies and analyzes a system, its components, and the relationship of the components within the system.

Question 156

Systems Engineering

Answer 156

This project scope statement creation process studies how a system should work, designs and creates a system model, and then enacts the working system based on the project’s goals and the customer’s expectations. Systems engineering aims to balance the time and cost of the project in relation to the scope of the project.

Question 157

Unanimity

Answer 157

A group decision method where everyone must be in agreement.

Question 158

Value Analysis

Answer 158

As with value engineering, this approach examines the functions of the project’s product in relation to the cost of the features and functions. This is where, to some extent, the grade of the product is in relationship to the cost of the product.

Question 159

Value Engineering

Answer 159

This approach to project scope statement creation attempts to find the correct level of quality in relation to a reasonable budget for the project deliverable while still achieving an acceptable level of performance of the product.

Question 160

Wbs Dictionary

Answer 160

A WBS companion document that defines all of the characteristics of each element within the WBS.

Question 161

Wbs Template

Answer 161

A prepopulated WBS for repetitive projects. Previous projects’ WBSs are often used as templates for current similar projects.

Question 162

Work Breakdown Structure (Wbs)

Answer 162

A deliverables-oriented breakdown of the project scope.

Question 163

Work Package

Answer 163

The smallest item in the WBS.

Question 164

Work Performance Information

Answer 164

Status of the deliverables: the work that’s been started, finished, or has yet to begin.

Question 165

Activity List

Answer 165

The primary output of breaking down the WBS work packages.

Question 166

Alternative Analysis

Answer 166

The identification of more than one solution. Consider roles, materials, tools, and approaches to the project work.

Question 167

Analogous Estimating

Answer 167

A somewhat unreliable estimating approach that relies on historical information to predict what current activity durations should be. Analogous estimating is more reliable, however, than team member recollections. Analogous estimating is also known as top-down estimating and is a form of expert judgment.

Question 168

Bottom-Up Estimating

Answer 168

The most accurate time-and-cost estimating approach a project manager can use. This estimating approach starts at “the bottom” of the project and considers every activity, its predecessor and successor activities, and the exact amount of resources needed to complete each activity.

Question 169

Control Account

Answer 169

A WBS entry that considers the time, cost, and scope measurements for that deliverable within the WBS. The estimated performance is compared against the actual performance to measure overall performance for the deliverables within that control account. The specifics of a control account are documented in a control account plan.

Question 170

Control Threshold

Answer 170

A predetermined range of acceptable variances, such as +/–10 percent off schedule. Should the variance exceed the threshold, then project control processes and corrected actions will be enacted.

Question 171

Crashing

Answer 171

A schedule compression approach that adds more resources to activities on the critical path to complete the project earlier. When crashing a project, costs are added because the associated labor and sometimes resources (such as faster equipment) cause costs to increase.

Question 172

Critical Path

Answer 172

The path in the project network diagram that cannot be delayed, otherwise the project completion date will be late. There can be more than one critical path. Activities in the critical path have no float.

Question 173

Discretionary Dependencies

Answer 173

These dependencies are the preferred order of activities. Project managers should use these relationships at their discretion and should document the logic behind the decision. Discretionary dependencies allow activities to happen in a preferred order because of best practices, conditions unique to the project work, or external events. Also known as preferential or soft logic.

Question 174

Early Finish

Answer 174

The earliest a project activity can finish. Used in the forward pass procedure to discover the critical path and the project float.

Question 175

Early Start

Answer 175

The earliest a project activity can begin. Used in the forward pass procedure to discover the critical path and the project float.

Question 176

External Dependencies

Answer 176

As the name implies, these are dependencies outside of the project’s control. Examples include the delivery of equipment from a vendor, the deliverable of another project, or the decision of a committee, lawsuit, or expected new law.

Question 177

Fast Tracking

Answer 177

A schedule compression method that changes the relationship of activities. With fast tracking, activities that would normally be done in sequence are allowed to be done in parallel or with some overlap. Fast tracking can be accomplished by changing the relation of activities from FS to SS or even FF or by adding lead time to downstream activities. However, fast tracking does add risk to the project.

Question 178

Finish-To-Finish

Answer 178

An activity relationship type that requires the current activity to be finished before its successor can finish.

Question 179

Finish-To-Start

Answer 179

An activity relationship type that requires the current activity to be finished before its successor can start.

Question 180

Fragnet

Answer 180

A representation of a project network diagram that is often used for outsourced portions of a project, repetitive work within a project, or a subproject. Also called a subnet.

Question 181

Free Float

Answer 181

This is the total time a single activity can be delayed without affecting the early start of its immediately following successor activities.

Question 182

Hard Logic

Answer 182

Logic that describes activities that must happen in a particular order. For example, the dirt must be excavated before the foundation can be built. The foundation must be in place before the framing can begin. Also known as a mandatory dependency.

Question 183

Internal Dependencies

Answer 183

Internal relationships to the project or the organization. For example, the project team must create the software as part of the project’s deliverable before the software can be tested for quality control.

Question 184

Lag Time

Answer 184

Positive time that moves two or more activities further apart.

Question 185

Late Finish

Answer 185

The latest a project activity can finish. Used in the backward pass procedure to discover the critical path and the project float.

Question 186

Late Start

Answer 186

The latest a project activity can begin. Used in the backward pass procedure to discover the critical path and the project float.

Question 187

Lead Time

Answer 187

Negative time that allows two or more activities to overlap where ordinarily these activities would be sequential.

Question 188

Management Reserve

Answer 188

A percentage of the project duration to combat Parkinson’s Law. When project activities become late, their lateness is subtracted from the management reserve.

Question 189

Mandatory Dependencies

Answer 189

These dependencies are the natural order of activities. For example, you can’t begin building your house until your foundation is in place. These relationships are called hard logic.

Question 190

Monte Carlo Analysis

Answer 190

A project simulation approach named after the world-famous gambling district in Monaco. This predicts how scenarios may work out, given any number of variables. The process doesn’t actually churn out a specific answer, but a range of possible answers. When Monte Carlo analysis is applied to a schedule, it can examine, for example, the optimistic completion date, the pessimistic completion date, and the most likely completion date for each activity in the project and then predict a mean for the project schedule.

Question 191

Parametric Estimate

Answer 191

A quantitatively based duration estimate that uses mathematical formulas to predict how long an activity will take based on the quantities of work to be completed.

Question 192

Parkinson’S Law

Answer 192

A theory that states: “Work expands so as to fill the time available for its completion.” It is considered with time estimating, because bloated or padded activity estimates will fill the amount of time allotted to the activity.

Question 193

Planning Package

Answer 193

A WBS entry located below a control account and above the work packages. A planning package signifies that there is more planning that needs to be completed for this specific deliverable.

Question 194

Precedence Diagramming Method

Answer 194

A network diagram that shows activities in nodes and the relationship between each activity. Predecessors come before the current activity, and successors come after the current activity.

Question 195

Project Calendars

Answer 195

Calendars that identify when the project work will occur.

Question 196

Project Float

Answer 196

This is the total time the project can be delayed without passing the customer- expected completion date.

Question 197

Project Network Diagram

Answer 197

A diagram that visualizes the flow of the project activities and their relationships to other project activities.

Question 198

Refinement

Answer 198

An update to the work breakdown structure.

Question 199

Resource Breakdown Structure (Rbs)

Answer 199

This is a hierarchical breakdown of the project resources by category and resource type. For example, you could have a category of equipment, a category of human resources, and a category of materials. Within each category, you could identify the types of equipment your project will use, the types of human resources, and the types of materials.

Question 200

Resource Calendars

Answer 200

Calendars that identify when project resources are available for the project work.

Question 201

Resource-Leveling Heuristic

Answer 201

A method to flatten the schedule when resources are overallocated. Resource leveling can be applied using different methods to accomplish different goals. One of the most common methods is to ensure that workers are not overextended on activities.

Question 202

Rolling Wave Planning

Answer 202

The imminent work is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a high level. This is a form of progressive elaboration.

Question 203

Schedule Management Plan

Answer 203

A subsidiary plan in the project management plan. It defines how the project schedule will be created, estimated, controlled, and managed.

Question 204

Soft Logic

Answer 204

The activities don’t necessarily have to happen in a specific order. For example, you could install the light fixtures first, then the carpet, and then paint the room. The project manager could use soft logic to change the order of the activities if so desired.

Question 205

Start-To-Finish

Answer 205

An activity relationship that requires an activity to start so that its successor can finish. This is the most unusual of all the activity relationship types.

Question 206

Start-To-Start

Answer 206

An activity relationship type that requires the current activity to start before its successor can start.

Question 207

Subnet

Answer 207

A representation of a project network diagram that is often used for outsourced portions of projects, repetitive work within a project, or a subproject. Also called a fragnet.

Question 208

Template

Answer 208

A previous project that can be adapted for the current project and forms that are pre-populated with organizational-specific information.

Question 209

Three-Point Estimate

Answer 209

An estimating technique for each activity that requires optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates to be created. Based on these three estimates, an average can be created to predict how long the activity should take.

Question 210

Total Float

Answer 210

This is the total time an activity can be delayed without delaying project completion.

Question 211

Work Package

Answer 211

The smallest item in the work breakdown structure.

Question 212

Actual Cost (Ac)

Answer 212

The actual amount of monies the project has spent to date.

Question 213

Analogous Estimating

Answer 213

An approach that relies on historical information to predict the cost of the current project. It is also known as top- down estimating and is the least reliable of all the cost-estimating approaches.

Question 214

Bottom-Up Estimating

Answer 214

An estimating approach that starts from zero, accounts for each component of the WBS, and arrives at a sum for the project. It is completed with the project team and can be one of the most time- consuming and most reliable methods to predict project costs.

Question 215

Budget Estimate

Answer 215

This estimate is also somewhat broad and is used early in the planning processes and also in top-down estimates. The range of variance for the estimate can be from –10 percent to +25 percent.

Question 216

Commercial Database

Answer 216

A cost-estimating approach that uses a database, typically software-driven, to create the cost estimate for a project.

Question 217

Contingency Reserve

Answer 217

A contingency allowance to account for overruns in costs. Contingency allowances are used at the project manager’s discretion and with management’s approval to counteract cost overruns for scheduled activities and risk events.

Question 218

Cost Aggregation

Answer 218

Costs are parallel to each WBS work package. The costs of each work package are aggregated to their corresponding control accounts. Each control account then is aggregated to the sum of the project costs.

Question 219

Cost Baseline

Answer 219

A time-lapse exposure of when the project monies are to be spent in relation to cumulative values of the work completed in the project.

Question 220

Cost Budgeting

Answer 220

The cost aggregation achieved by assigning specific dollar amounts for each of the scheduled activities or, more likely, for each of the work packages in the WBS. Cost budgeting applies the cost estimates over time.

Question 221

Cost Change Control System

Answer 221

A system that examines any changes associated with scope changes, the cost of materials, and the cost of any other resources, and the associated impact on the overall project cost.

Question 222

Cost Management Plan

Answer 222

The cost management plan dictates how cost variances will be managed.

Question 223

Cost Of Poor Quality

Answer 223

The monies spent to recover from not adhering to the expected level of quality. Examples may include rework, defect repair, loss of life or limb because safety precautions were not taken, loss of sales, and loss of customers. This is also known as the cost of nonconformance to quality.

Question 224

Cost Of Quality

Answer 224

The monies spent to attain the expected level of quality within a project. Examples include training, testing, and safety precautions.

Question 225

Cost Performance Index (Cpi)

Answer 225

Measures the project based on its financial performance. The formula is CPI = EV/AC.

Question 226

Cost Variance (Cv)

Answer 226

The difference of the earned value amount and the cumulative actual costs of the project. The formula is CV = EV – AC.

Question 227

Definitive Estimate

Answer 227

This estimate type is one of the most accurate. It’s used late in the planning processes and is associated with bottom- up estimating. You need the WBS in order to create the definitive estimate. The range of variance for the estimate can be from –5 percent to +10 percent.

Question 228

Direct Costs

Answer 228

Costs are attributed directly to the project work and cannot be shared among projects (for example, airfare, hotels, long-distance phone charges, and so on).

Question 229

Earned Value (Ev)

Answer 229

Earned value is the physical work completed to date and the authorized budget for that work. It is the percentage of the BAC that represents the actual work completed in the project.

Question 230

Estimate At Completion (Eac)

Answer 230

These forecasting formulas predict the likely completed costs of the project based on current scenarios within the project.

Question 231

Estimate To Complete (Etc)

Answer 231

An earned value management formula that predicts how much funding the project will require to be completed. Three variations of this formula are based on conditions the project may be experiencing.

Question 232

Fixed Costs

Answer 232

Costs that remain constant throughout the life of the project (the cost of a piece of rented equipment for the project, the cost of a consultant brought on to the project, and so on).

Question 233

Funding Limit Reconciliation

Answer 233

An organization’s approach to managing cash flow against the project deliverables based on a schedule, milestone accomplishment, or data constraints.

Question 234

Indirect Costs

Answer 234

Costs that are representative of more than one project (for example, utilities for the performing organization, access to a training room, project management software license, and so on).

Question 235

Known Unknown

Answer 235

An event that will likely happen within the project, but when it will happen and to what degree is unknown. These events, such as delays, are usually risk-related.

Question 236

Learning Curve

Answer 236

An approach that assumes the cost per unit decreases the more units workers complete, because workers learn as they complete the required work.

Question 237

Oligopoly

Answer 237

A market condition where the market is so tight that the actions of one vendor affect the actions of all the others.

Question 238

Opportunity Cost

Answer 238

The total cost of the opportunity that is refused to realize an opposing opportunity.

Question 239

Parametric Estimating

Answer 239

An approach using a parametric model to extrapolate what costs will be needed for a project (for example, cost per hour and cost per unit). It can include variables and points based on conditions.

Question 240

Planned Value (Pv)

Answer 240

Planned value is the work scheduled and the budget authorized to accomplish that work. It is the percentage of the BAC that reflects where the project should be at this point in time.

Question 241

Project Variance

Answer 241

The final variance, which is discovered only at the project’s completion. The formula is VAR = BAC – AC.

Question 242

Regression Analysis

Answer 242

This is a statistical approach to predicting what future values may be, based on historical values. Regression analysis creates quantitative predictions based on variables within one value to predict variables in another. This form of estimating relies solely on pure statistical math to reveal relationships between variables and to predict future values.

Question 243

Reserve Analysis

Answer 243

Cost reserves are for unknown unknowns within a project. The management reserve is not part of the project cost baseline, but is included as part of the project budget.

Question 244

Rough Order Of Magnitude

Answer 244

This rough estimate is used during the initiating processes and in top-down estimates. The range of variance for the estimate can be from –25 percent to +75 percent.

Question 245

Schedule Performance Index (Spi)

Answer 245

Measures the project based on its schedule performance. The formula is SPI = EV/PV.

Question 246

Schedule Variance (Sv)

Answer 246

The difference between the earned value and the planned value. The formulas is SV = EV – PV.

Question 247

Single Source

Answer 247

Many vendors can provide what your project needs to purchase, but you prefer to work with a specific vendor.

Question 248

Sole Source

Answer 248

Only one vendor can provide what your project needs to purchase. Examples include a specific consultant, specialized service, or unique type of material.

Question 249

Sunk Costs

Answer 249

Monies that have already been invested in a project.

Question 250

To-Complete Performance Index

Answer 250

A formula to forecast the likelihood of a project to achieve its goals based on what’s happening in the project right now. There are two different flavors for the TCPI, depending on what you want to accomplish. If you want to see if your project can meet the budget at completion, you’ll use this formula: TCPI = (BAC – EV)/(BAC – AC). If you want to see if your project can meet the newly created estimate at completion, you’ll use this version of the formula: TCPI = (BAC – EV)/(EAC – AC).

Question 251

Variable Costs

Answer 251

Costs that change based on the conditions applied in the project (the number of meeting participants, the supply of and demand for materials, and so on).

Question 252

Variance

Answer 252

The difference between what was expected and what was experienced.

Question 253

Variance At Completion (Vac)

Answer 253

A forecasting formula that predicts how much of a variance the project will likely have based on current conditions within the project. The formula is VAC = BAC – EAC.

Question 254

Activity Network Diagram

Answer 254

These diagrams, such as the project network diagram, show the flow of the project work.

Question 255

Affinity Diagram

Answer 255

This diagram breaks down ideas, solutions, causes, and project components and groups them together with other similar ideas and components.

Question 256

Benchmarking

Answer 256

Comparing any two similar entities to measure their performance.

Question 257

Cause-And-Effect Diagrams

Answer 257

Diagrams that show the relationship between variables within a process and how those relationships may contribute to inadequate quality. The diagrams can help organize both the process and team opinions, as well as generate discussion on finding a solution to ensure quality.

Question 258

Checklist

Answer 258

A simple approach to ensure that work is completed according to the quality policy.

Question 259

Control Chart

Answer 259

A quality control chart that maps the performance of project work over time.

Question 260

Control Quality

Answer 260

An inspection-driven process that measures work results to confirm that the project is meeting the relevant quality standards.

Question 261

Cost Of Conformance

Answer 261

This is the cost associated with the monies spent to attain the expected level of quality. It is also known as the cost of quality.

Question 262

Cost Of Nonconformance To Quality

Answer 262

The cost associated with not satisfying quality expectations. This is also known as the cost of poor quality.

Question 263

Cost-Benefit Analysis

Answer 263

A process to study the trade-offs between costs and the benefits realized from those costs.

Question 264

Design Of Experiments

Answer 264

An approach that relies on statistical scenarios to determine what variables within a project will result in the best outcome.

Question 265

External Qa

Answer 265

Assurance provided to the external customers of the project.

Question 266

Flowchart

Answer 266

A diagram illustrating how components within a system are related. Flowcharts show the relation between components, as well as help the project team determine where quality issues may be present and, once done, plan accordingly.

Question 267

Internal Qa

Answer 267

Assurance provided to management and the project team.

Question 268

Iso

Answer 268

The abbreviation for the International Organization for Standardization. ISO is Greek for “equal,” while “International Organization for Standardization” in a different language would be abbreviated differently. The organization elected to use “ISO” for all languages.

Question 269

Matrix Diagram

Answer 269

A data analysis table that shows the strength between variables and relationships in the matrix.

Question 270

Pareto Diagram

Answer 270

A histogram that illustrates and ranks categories of failure within a project.

Question 271

Quality

Answer 271

According to ASQ, the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.

Question 272

Quality Assurance

Answer 272

A management process that defines the quality system or quality policy that a project must adhere to. QA aims to plan quality into the project rather than to inspect quality into a deliverable.

Question 273

Quality Management Plan

Answer 273

This plan defines how the project team will implement and fulfill the quality policy of the performing organization.

Question 274

Quality Metrics

Answer 274

The operational definitions that specify the measurements within a project and the expected targets for quality and performance.

Question 275

Quality Planning

Answer 275

The process of first determining which quality standards are relevant to your project and then finding out the best methods of adhering to those quality standards.

Question 276

Rule Of Seven

Answer 276

A component of a control chart that illustrates the results of seven measurements on one side of the mean, which is considered “out of control” in the project.

Question 277

Run Chart

Answer 277

A quality control tool that shows the results of inspection in the order in which they’ve occurred. The goal of a run chart is first to demonstrate the results of a process over time and then to use trend analysis to predict when certain trends may reemerge.

Question 278

Scatter Diagram

Answer 278

A quality control tool that tracks the relationship between two variables over time. The two variables are considered related the closer they track against a diagonal line.

Question 279

Seven Basic Quality Tools

Answer 279

These seven tools are used in quality planning and in quality control: cause-and-effect diagrams, flowcharts, check sheets, Pareto diagrams, histograms, control charts, and scatter diagrams.

Question 280

Statistical Sampling

Answer 280

A process of choosing a percentage of results at random. For example, a project creating a medical device may have 20 percent of all units randomly selected to check for quality.

Question 281

System Or Process Flowcharts

Answer 281

Flowcharts that illustrate the flow of a process through a system, such as a project change request through the change control system, or work authorization through a quality control process.

Question 282

Tree Diagram

Answer 282

Tree diagrams show the hierarchies and decomposition of a solution, an organization, or a project team. The WBS and an org chart are examples of tree diagrams.

Question 283

Trend Analysis

Answer 283

The science of using past results to predict future performance.

Question 284

Work Performance Information

Answer 284

The results of the project work as needed. This includes technical performance measures, project status, information on what the project has created to date, corrective actions, and performance reports.

Question 285

Adjourning

Answer 285

Once the project is done, either the team moves onto other assignments as a unit, or the project team is disbanded and individual team members go on to other work.

Question 286

Authority Power

Answer 286

Project management team members may have authority over other project team members, may have the ability to make decisions, and perhaps even sign approvals for project work and purchases.

Question 287

Coercive Power

Answer 287

The project manager has the authority to discipline the project team members. This is also known as penalty power.

Question 288

Collaborate/Problem Solving

Answer 288

This approach confronts the problem head-on and is the preferred method of conflict resolution. Multiple viewpoints and perspectives contribute to the solution.

Question 289

Collective Bargaining Agreement Constraints

Answer 289

Contracts and agreements with unions or other employee groups may serve as constraints on the project.

Question 290

Competency

Answer 290

This attribute defines what talents, skills, and capabilities are needed to complete the project work.

Question 291

Compromising

Answer 291

This approach requires that both parties give up something.

Question 292

Vroom’S Expectancy Theory

Answer 292

This theory states that people will behave based on what they expect as a result of their behavior. In other words, people will work in relation to the expected reward.

Question 293

Expert Power

Answer 293

The project manager’s authority comes both from experience with the technology the project

Question 294

Forcing Power

Answer 294

The person with the power makes the decision.

Question 295

Formal Power

Answer 295

The project manager has been assigned the role of project manager by senior management and is in charge of the project.

Question 296

Forming

Answer 296

The project team meets and learns about their roles and responsibilities on the project. Little interaction among the project team happens in this stage as the team is learning about the project and project manager.

Question 297

Herzberg’S Theory Of Motivation

Answer 297

Frederick Herzberg’s theory of the motivating agents and hygiene agents that affect a person’s willingness to excel in his career.

Question 298

Hierarchical Organizational Chart

Answer 298

A chart showing the relationship between superior and subordinate employees, groups, disciplines, and even departments.

Question 299

Issue Log

Answer 299

A logbook of the issues the project team has identified and dates as to when the issues must be resolved by. The issue log may also include team members or stakeholders who are responsible for finding a solution to the identified issues.

Question 300

Maslow’S Hierarchy Of Needs

Answer 300

Abraham Maslow’s theory of the five needs all humans have and work toward.

Question 301

Mcclelland’S Theory Of Needs

Answer 301

David McClelland developed this theory, which states our needs are acquired and developed by our experiences over time. All people are, according to this theory, driven by one of three needs: achievement, affiliation, or power.

Question 302

Mcgregor’S Theory Of X And Y

Answer 302

Douglas McGregor’s theory that states management views workers in the Y category as competent and self-led and workers in the X category as incompetent and needing to be micromanaged.

Question 303

Multicriteria Decision Analysis

Answer 303

A method to rate potential project team members based on criteria such as education, experience, skills, knowledge, and more.

Question 304

Norming

Answer 304

Project team members go about getting the project work, begin to rely on one another, and generally complete their project assignments.

Question 305

Organization Chart

Answer 305

Traditional chart that depicts how the organization is broken down by department and disciplines. This chart is sometimes called the organizational breakdown structure (OBS) and is arranged by departments, units, or teams.

Question 306

Ouchi’S Theory Z

Answer 306

William Ouchi’s theory is based on the participative management style of the Japanese. This theory states that workers are motivated by a sense of commitment, opportunity, and advancement.

Question 307

Performing

Answer 307

If a project team can reach the performing stage of team development, they trust one another, work well together, and issues and problems get resolved quickly and effectively.

Question 308

Political Interfaces

Answer 308

The hidden goals, personal agendas, and alliances among the project team members and the stakeholders.

Question 309

Raci Chart

Answer 309

A RACI chart is a matrix chart that only uses the activities of responsible, accountable, consult, and inform.

Question 310

Referent Power

Answer 310

The project team personally knows the project manager. Referent can also mean that the project manager refers to the person who assigned him the position.

Question 311

Resource Breakdown Structure (Rbs)

Answer 311

This hierarchical chart can decompose the project by the type of resources used throughout it.

Question 312

Responsibility Assignment Matrix (Ram)

Answer 312

A RAM chart shows the correlation between project team members and the work they’ve been assigned to complete.

Question 313

Responsibility

Answer 313

A responsibility is the work that a role performs.

Question 314

Resource Management Plan

Answer 314

This plan defines staff acquisition, the timetable for staff acquisition, the staff release plan, training needs for the project team, any organizational compliance issues, rewards and

Question 315

Reward

Answer 315

The project manager has the authority to reward the project team.

Question 316

Role

Answer 316

This denotes what a person is specifically responsible for in a project. Roles are usually tied to job titles, such as network engineer, mechanical engineer, and electrician.

Question 317

Smoothing

Answer 317

This approach smooths out the conflict by minimizing the perceived size of the problem. It is a temporary solution, but can calm team relations and boisterous discussions.

Question 318

Storming

Answer 318

The project team struggles for project positions, leadership, and project direction. The project team can become hostile toward the project leader, challenge ideas, and try to establish and claim positions about the project work. The amount of debate and fury can vary depending on if the project team is willing to work together, the nature of the project, and the control of the project manager.

Question 319

Technical Interfaces

Answer 319

The project team identifies the disciplines and specialties that the project will require to complete the project scope statement. The technical interfaces are the resources that will be doing the project work.

Question 320

Withdrawal

Answer 320

This conflict resolution method sees one side of the argument walking away from the problem, usually in disgust.

Question 321

Acknowledgment

Answer 321

The receiver signals that the message has been received. An acknowledgment shows receipt of the message, but not necessarily agreement with the message.

Question 322

Active Listening

Answer 322

The receiver confirms that the message is being received through feedback, questions, prompts for clarity, and other signs of confirmation.

Question 323

Choice Of Media

Answer 323

The best modality to use when communicating that is relevant to the information being communicated.

Question 324

Communication Assumptions

Answer 324

Anything that the project management team believes to be true but hasn’t proven to be true. For example, the project management team may assume that all of the project team can be reached via cell phone, but parts of the world, as of this writing, don’t have a cell signal.

Question 325

Communication Barrier

Answer 325

Anything that prohibits communication from occurring.

Question 326

Communication Channels Formula

Answer 326

N(N – 1)/2, where N represents the number of identified stakeholders. This formula reveals the total number of communication channels within a project.

Question 327

Communication Constraints

Answer 327

Anything that limits the project management team’s options. When it comes to communication constraints, geographical locales, incompatible communications software, and even limited communications technology can constrain the project team.

Question 328

Communications Management Plan

Answer 328

A project management subsidiary plan that defines the stakeholders who need specific information, the person who will supply the information, the schedule for the information to be supplied, and the approved modality to provide the information.

Question 329

Decoder

Answer 329

The device that decodes a message as it is being received.

Question 330

Effective Listening

Answer 330

The receiver is involved in the listening experience by paying attention to visual cues from the speaker and paralingual characteristics, and by asking relevant questions.

Question 331

Encoder

Answer 331

The device that encodes the message being sent.

Question 332

Feedback

Answer 332

The sender confirms that the receiver understands the message by directly asking for a response, questions for clarification, or other confirmation.

Question 333

Influence/Impact Grid

Answer 333

Stakeholders are mapped on a grid based on their influence over the project in relation to their influence over the project execution.

Question 334

Information Presentation Tools

Answer 334

A software package that allows the project management team to present the project’s health through graphics, spreadsheets, and text. (Think of Microsoft Project.)

Question 335

Information Retrieval System

Answer 335

A system to quickly and effectively store, archive, and access project information.

Question 336

Interactive Communication

Answer 336

This is the most common and most effective approach to communication. It’s where two or more people exchange information. Consider status meetings, ad-hoc meetings, phone calls, and videoconferences.

Question 337

Lessons Learned

Answer 337

This is documentation of what did and did not work in the project implementation. Lessons learned documentation is created throughout the project by the entire project team. When lessons learned sessions are completed, they’re available to be used and applied by the entire organization. They are now part of the organizational process assets.

Question 338

Medium

Answer 338

The device or technology that transports a message.

Question 339

Noise

Answer 339

Anything that interferes with or disrupts a message.

Question 340

Nonverbal

Answer 340

Facial expressions, hand gestures, and body language are nonverbal cues that contribute to a message. Approximately 55 percent of communication is nonverbal.

Question 341

Paralingual

Answer 341

The pitch, tone, and inflections in the sender’s voice affecting the message being sent.

Question 342

Performance Report

Answer 342

A report that depicts how well a project is performing. Often, the performance report is based on earned value management and may include cost or schedule variance reports.

Question 343

Project Presentations

Answer 343

Presentations are useful in providing information to customers, management, the project team, and other stakeholders.

Question 344

Project Records

Answer 344

All the business of the project communications is also part of the organizational process assets. This includes e-mails, memos, letters, and faxes.

Question 345

Project Reports

Answer 345

Reports are formal communications on project activities, their status, and conditions.

Question 346

Pull Communication

Answer 346

This approach pulls the information from a central repository, like a database of information. Pull communications are good for large groups of stakeholders who want to access project information at their discretion. Consider a project web site where stakeholders can periodically drop by for a quick update on the project status.

Question 347

Push Communication

Answer 347

This approach pushes the information from the sender to the receiver without any real acknowledgment that the information was really received or understood. Consider letters, faxes, voicemail messages, e-mails, and other communications modalities that the sender packages and sends to receivers through some intermediary network.

Question 348

Receiver

Answer 348

The person who receives the message.

Question 349

Sender

Answer 349

The person who is sending the message.

Question 350

Sender–Receiver Models

Answer 350

Feedback loops and barriers to communications.

Question 351

Stakeholder Notifications

Answer 351

Notices to the stakeholders about resolved issues, approved changes, and the overall health of the project.

Question 352

Status Review Meeting

Answer 352

A regularly scheduled meeting to discuss the status of the project and its progress toward completing the project scope statement.

Question 353

Time Reporting System

Answer 353

A system to record the actual time to complete project activities.

Question 354

Acceptance

Answer 354

A risk response appropriate for both positive and negative risks, but often used for smaller risks within a project.

Question 355

Ambiguity Risks

Answer 355

Risks that have an uncertain, unclear nature, such as new laws or regulations, the marketplace conditions, and other risks that are nearly impossible to predict.

Question 356

Avoidance

Answer 356

A risk response to avoid the risk.

Question 357

Brainstorming

Answer 357

The most common approach to risk identification; usually completed by a project team with subject matter experts to identify the risks within the project.

Question 358

Business Risks

Answer 358

These risks may have negative or positive outcomes. Examples include using a less experienced worker to complete a task, allowing phases or activities to overlap, or forgoing the expense of formal training for on-the-job education.

Question 359

Cardinal Scales

Answer 359

A ranking approach to identify the probability and impact by using a numerical value, from .01 (very low) to 1.0 (certain).

Question 360

Checklists

Answer 360

A quick and cost-effective risk identification approach.

Question 361

Data Precision

Answer 361

The consideration of the risk ranking scores that takes into account any bias, the accuracy of the data submitted, and the reliability of the nature of the data submitted.

Question 362

Decision Tree

Answer 362

A method to determine which of two or more decisions is the best one. The model examines the costs and benefits of each decision’s outcome and weighs the probability of success for each of the decisions.

Question 363

Delphi Technique

Answer 363

An anonymous method of querying experts about foreseeable risks within a project, phase, or component of a project. The results of the survey are analyzed by a third party, organized, and then circulated to the experts. There can be several rounds of anonymous discussion with the Delphi Technique, without fear of backlash or offending other participants in the process. The goal is to gain consensus on project risks within the project.

Question 364

Enhancing

Answer 364

A risk response that attempts to enhance the conditions to ensure that a positive risk event will likely happen.

Question 365

Escalating

Answer 365

A risk response that is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events that may outside of the project manager’s authority to act upon.

Question 366

Expected Monetary Value (Emv)

Answer 366

The monetary value of a risk exposure based on the risk’s probability and impact in the risk matrix. This approach is typically used in quantitative risk analysis because it quantifies the risk exposure.

Question 367

Exploit

Answer 367

A risk response that takes advantage of the positive risks within a project.

Question 368

External Risks

Answer 368

These risks are outside of the project, but directly affect it—for example, legal issues, labor issues, a shift in project priorities, or weather. “Force majeure” risks call for disaster recovery rather than project management. These are risks caused by earthquakes, tornadoes, floods, civil unrest, and other disasters.

Question 369

Flowcharts

Answer 369

System or process flowcharts show the relationship between components and how the overall process works. These are useful for identifying risks between system components.

Question 370

Influence Diagrams

Answer 370

An influence diagram charts out a decision problem. It identifies all of the elements, variables, decisions, and objectives and also how each factor may influence another.

Question 371

Ishikawa Diagrams

Answer 371

These cause-and-effect diagrams are also called fishbone diagrams and are used to find the root cause of factors that are causing risks within the project.

Question 372

Low-Priority Risk Watch List

Answer 372

Low-priority risks are identified and assigned to a watch list for periodic monitoring.

Question 373

Mitigation

Answer 373

A risk response effort to reduce the probability and/or impact of an identified risk in the project.

Question 374

Monte Carlo Technique

Answer 374

A simulation technique that got its name from the casinos of Monte Carlo, Monaco. The simulation is completed using a computer software program that can simulate a project, using values for all possible variables, to predict the most likely model.

Question 375

Ordinal Scales

Answer 375

A ranking approach that identifies and ranks the risks from very high to very unlikely or to some other value.

Question 376

Organizational Risks

Answer 376

The performing organization can contribute to the project’s risks through unreasonable cost, time, and scope expectations; poor project prioritization; inadequate funding or the disruption of funding; and competition with other projects for internal resources.

Question 377

Pestle

Answer 377

A prompt list used for risk identification. PESTLE examines risks in the Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, and Environmental domains.

Question 378

Probability And Impact Matrix

Answer 378

A matrix that ranks the probability of a risk event occurring and its impact on the project if the event does happen; used in qualitative and quantitative risk analyses.

Question 379

Project Management Risks

Answer 379

These risks deal with faults in the management of the project: the unsuccessful allocation of time, resources, and scheduling; unacceptable work results; and poor project management.

Question 380

Pure Risks

Answer 380

These risks have only a negative outcome. Examples include loss of life or limb, fire, theft, natural disasters, and the like.

Question 381

Qualitative Risk Analysis

Answer 381

This approach “qualifies” the risks that have been identified in the project. Specifically, qualitative risk analysis examines and prioritizes risks based on their probability of occurring and their impact on the project should they occur.

Question 382

Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer 382

This approach attempts to numerically assess the probability and impact of the identified risks. It also creates an overall risk score for the project. This method is more in-depth than qualitative risk analysis and relies on several different tools to accomplish its goal.

Question 383

Rag Rating

Answer 383

An ordinal scale that uses red, amber, and green (RAG) to capture the probability, impact, and risk score.

Question 384

Residual Risks

Answer 384

Risks that are expected to remain after a risk response.

Question 385

Risk

Answer 385

A project risk is an uncertain event or condition that can have a positive or negative impact on the project.

Question 386

Risk Identification

Answer 386

The systematic process of combing through the project, the project plan, the work breakdown structure, and all supporting documentation to identify as many risks that may affect the project as possible.

Question 387

Risk Management Plan

Answer 387

A project management subsidiary plan that defines how risks will be identified, analyzed, responded to, and monitored within the project. The plan also defines the iterative risk management process that the project is expected to adhere to.

Question 388

Risk Management Planning

Answer 388

The agreed-upon approach to the management of the project risk processes.

Question 389

Risk Owners

Answer 389

The individuals or entities that are responsible for monitoring and responding to an identified risk within the project.

Question 390

Risk Register

Answer 390

The risk register is a project plan component that contains all of the information related to the risk management activities. It’s updated as risk management activities are conducted to reflect the status, progress, and nature of the project risks.

Question 391

Risk Report

Answer 391

The risk report explains the overall project risks and provides summaries about the individual project risks.

Question 392

Risk Response Audit

Answer 392

An audit to test the validity of the established risk responses.

Question 393

Risk Responsibilities

Answer 393

The level of ownership an individual or entity has over a project risk.

Question 394

Risk Score

Answer 394

The calculated score based on each risk’s probability and impact. The approach can be used in both qualitative and quantitative risk analysis.

Question 395

Root Cause Identification

Answer 395

Root cause identification aims to find out why a risk event may be occurring, the causal factors for the risk events, and then, eventually, how the events can be mitigated or eliminated.

Question 396

Secondary Risks

Answer 396

New risks that are created as a result of a risk response.

Question 397

Sensitivity Analysis

Answer 397

A quantitative risk analysis tool that examines each risk to determine which one has the largest impact on the project’s success.

Question 398

Sharing

Answer 398

A risk response that shares the advantages of a positive risk within a project.

Question 399

Swot Analysis

Answer 399

SWOT analysis is the process of examining the project from the perspective of each characteristic: strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

Question 400

Tecop

Answer 400

A prompt list used in risk identification to examine the Technical, Environmental, Commercial, Operational, and Political factors of the project.

Question 401

Technical, Quality, Or Performance Risks

Answer 401

Technical risks are associated with new, unproven, or complex technologies being used on the project. Changes to the technology during the project implementation can also be a risk. Quality risks are the levels set for expectations of impractical quality and performance.

Question 402

Transference

Answer 402

A risk response that transfers the ownership of the risk to another party. Insurance, licensed contractors, or other project teams are good examples of transference. A fee and contractual relationships are typically involved with the transference of a risk.

Question 403

Variability Risks

Answer 403

A type of risk based on the variations that may occur in the project, such as production, number of quality errors, or even the weather.

Question 404

Vuca

Answer 404

A prompt list used in risk identification that examines the Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity, and Ambiguity of risk factors within the project.

Question 405

Alternative Dispute Resolution

Answer 405

When there is an issue or claim that must be settled before the contract can be closed, the parties involved in the issue or claim will try to reach a settlement through mediation or arbitration.

Question 406

Bid

Answer 406

From seller to buyer. Price is the determining factor in the decision-making process.

Question 407

Bidder Conference

Answer 407

A meeting of all the project’s potential vendors to clarify the contract statement of work and the details of the contracted work.

Question 408

Claims

Answer 408

These are disagreements between the buyer and the seller, usually centering on a change, who did the change, and even whether a change has occurred. Claims are also called disputes and appeals, and are monitored and controlled through the project in accordance with the contract terms.

Question 409

Contract

Answer 409

A contract is a formal agreement between the buyer and the seller. Contracts can be oral or written—though written is preferred.

Question 410

Contract Change Control System

Answer 410

This defines the procedures for how the contract may be changed. The process for changing the contract includes the forms; documented communications; tracking; conditions within the project, business, or marketplace that justify the needed change; dispute resolution procedures; and the procedures for getting the changes approved within the performing organization.

Question 411

Contract Statement Of Work (Sow Also Csow)

Answer 411

This document requires that the seller fully describe the work to be completed and/or the product to be supplied. The SOW becomes part of the contract between the buyer and the seller.

Question 412

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract

Answer 412

A contract that pays the vendor all costs for the project, but also includes a buyer- determined award fee for the project work.

Question 413

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract

Answer 413

A contract that requires the buyer to pay for the cost of the goods and services procured plus a fixed fee for the contracted work. The buyer assumes the risk of a cost overrun.

Question 414

Cost Plus Incentive Fee

Answer 414

A contract type that requires the buyer to pay a cost for the procured work, plus an incentive fee, or a bonus, for the work if terms and conditions are met.

Question 415

Cost Plus Percentage Of Costs

Answer 415

A contract that requires the buyer to pay for the costs of the goods and services procured plus a percentage of the costs. The buyer assumes all of the risks for cost overruns.

Question 416

Direct Costs

Answer 416

These are costs incurred by the project in order for the project to exist. Examples include the equipment needed to complete the project work, salaries of the project team, and other expenses tied directly to the project’s existence.

Question 417

Fixed-Price Contracts

Answer 417

Also known as firm fixed-price and lump- sum contracts, these are agreements that define a total price for the product the seller is to provide.

Question 418

Fixed-Price Incentive Fee

Answer 418

A fixed-price contract with opportunities for bonuses for meeting goals on costs, schedule, and other objectives. These contracts usually have a price ceiling for costs and associated bonuses.

Question 419

Fixed-Price With Economic Price Adjustments

Answer 419

A fixed-price contract with a special allowance for price increases based on economic reasons such as inflation or the cost of raw materials.

Question 420

Force Majeure

Answer 420

An “act of God” that may have a negative impact on the project. Examples include fire, hurricanes, tornadoes, and earthquakes.

Question 421

Independent Estimates

Answer 421

These estimates are often referred to as “should cost” estimates. They are created by the performing organization or outside experts to predict what the cost of the procured product should be.

Question 422

Indirect Costs

Answer 422

These are costs attributed to the cost of doing business. Examples include utilities, office space, and other overhead costs.

Question 423

Invitation For Bid (Ifb)

Answer 423

From buyer to seller. Requests the seller to provide a price for the procured product or service.

Question 424

Letter Contract

Answer 424

A letter contract allows the vendor to begin working on the project immediately. It is often used as a stopgap solution.

Question 425

Letter Of Intent

Answer 425

A letter of intent is not a contract, but a letter stating that the buyer is intending to create a contractual relationship with the seller.

Question 426

Make-Or-Buy Decision

Answer 426

A process in which the project management team determines the cost- effectiveness, benefits, and feasibility of making a product or buying it from a vendor.

Question 427

Privity

Answer 427

The contractual relationship between the buyer and the seller is often considered confidential and secret.

Question 428

Procurement Management Plan

Answer 428

A project management subsidiary plan that documents the decisions made in the procurement planning processes.

Question 429

Procurement Planning

Answer 429

A process to identify which parts of the project warrant procurement from a vendor by the buyer.

Question 430

Proposal

Answer 430

A document the seller provides to the buyer. The proposal includes more than just a fee for the proposed work. It also includes information on the vendor’s skills, the vendor’s reputation, and ideas on how the vendor can complete the contracted work for the buyer.

Question 431

Purchase Order (Po)

Answer 431

A purchase order is a form of unilateral contract that the buyer provides to the vendor showing that the purchase has been approved by the buyer’s organization.

Question 432

Quotation

Answer 432

From seller to buyer. Price is the determining factor in the decision-making process.

Question 433

Request For Proposal (Rfp)

Answer 433

From buyer to seller. Requests the seller to provide a proposal to complete the procured work or to provide the procured product.

Question 434

Request For Quote (Rfq)

Answer 434

From buyer to seller. Requests the seller to provide a price for the procured product or service.

Question 435

Risk-Related Contractual Agreements

Answer 435

When the project management team decides to use transference to respond to a risk, a risk-related contractual agreement is created between the buyer and the seller.

Question 436

Screening System

Answer 436

A tool that filters or screens out vendors that don’t qualify for the contract.

Question 437

Seller Rating Systems

Answer 437

These are used by organizations to rate prior experience with each vendor that they have worked with in the past. The seller rating system can track performance, quality ratings, delivery, and even contract compliance.

Question 438

Terms Of Reference

Answer 438

Defines the obligations for the seller, what the seller will provide, and all of the particulars of the contracted work. Terms of reference is similar to the statement of work.

Question 439

Time And Materials Contract

Answer 439

A contract type in which the buyer pays for the time and materials for the procured work. This is a simple contract, usually for smaller procurement conditions. These contract types require a not-to-exceed clause, or the buyer assumes the risk for cost overruns.

Question 440

Weighting System

Answer 440

This takes out the personal preferences of the decision maker in the organization to ensure that the best seller is awarded the contract. Weights are assigned to the values of the proposals, and each proposal is scored.

Question 441

Interactive Communications

Answer 441

This type of communication means that information is happening among stakeholders, like in a forum. Examples of interactive communications are meetings, videoconferences, phone calls, and ad-hoc conversations. Interactive communications means that the participants are actively communicating with one another.

Question 442

Brain Writing

Answer 442

A data gathering technique that’s similar to brainstorming, but provides brainstorming meeting participants with the questions and topics for brainstorming before the stakeholder identification meeting.

Question 443

Key Stakeholder

Answer 443

Stakeholders—such as management, the project manager, program manager, or customers—that have the authority to make decisions in the project.

Question 444

Leading Stakeholder Status

Answer 444

Part of stakeholder analysis classification. A leading stakeholder is aware of your project, they want your project to be successful, and the stakeholder is working to make certain the project is a success.

Question 445

Negative Stakeholder

Answer 445

A stakeholder who does not want the project to exist and is opposed to the project.

Question 446

Neutral Stakeholder

Answer 446

A stakeholder who has neither a positive nor negative attitude about the project’s existence.

Question 447

Neutral Stakeholder Status

Answer 447

Part of stakeholder analysis classification. A neutral stakeholder is aware of your project and is not concerned if the project succeeds or fails.

Question 448

Positive Stakeholder

Answer 448

A stakeholder who sees the benefits of the project and is in favor of the change the project is to bring about.

Question 449

Profile Analysis Meeting

Answer 449

This is an analysis meeting to examine and document the roles in the project. The role’s interests, concerns, influence, project knowledge, and attitude are documented.

Question 450

Pull Communications

Answer 450

This type of communication pulls information from a central repository. Pull communications allow stakeholders to retrieve information from a central source as needed.

Question 451

Push Communications

Answer 451

This type of communication happens when the sender pushes the same message to multiple people. Good examples of push communications are broadcast text messages, faxes, press releases, and group e-mails.

Question 452

Reporting System

Answer 452

A reporting system is a software program to store and analyze project data for reporting. A common reporting system will take project data, allow the project manager to pass the data through earned value management, for example, and then create forecasting reports about the project costs and schedule.

Question 453

Resistant Stakeholder Status

Answer 453

Part of stakeholder analysis classification. A resistant stakeholder is aware of your project, but they do not support the changes your project will create.

Question 454

Stakeholder

Answer 454

Anyone who is affected by the existence of the project or who can affect the project’s existence. Stakeholders can enter and exit the project as conditions change within the project.

Question 455

Stakeholder Analysis

Answer 455

An activity that ranks stakeholders based on their influence, interests, and expectations of the project. Stakeholders are identified and ranked, and then their needs and expectations are documented and addressed.

Question 456

Stakeholder Classification Models

Answer 456

These are charts and diagrams that help the project manager determine the influence of stakeholders in relation to their interest in the project. Common classification models include the power/interest grid, the power/influence grid, the influence/impact grid, and the salience model.

Question 457

Stakeholder Engagement

Answer 457

The project manager works to keep the project stakeholders interested, involved, and supportive of the project. Through communication, management skills, and interpersonal skills, the project manager can work to keep the project stakeholders engaged and interested in the project.

Question 458

Stakeholder Identification

Answer 458

A project initiation activity to identify, document, and classify the project stakeholders as early as possible in the project.

Question 459

Stakeholder Management

Answer 459

The project management knowledge area that focuses on the management and engagement of the project stakeholders. There are four processes in this knowledge area: identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder management, manage stakeholder engagement, and Monitor Stakeholder Engagement.

Question 460

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

Answer 460

The stakeholder engagement plan documents a strategy for managing the engagement of project stakeholders. The stakeholder engagement plan establishes stakeholder engagement and defines how the project manager can increase and improve stakeholder engagement.

Question 461

Stakeholder Engagement Planning

Answer 461

The project manager works with the project team and subject matter experts to create a strategy to manage the project stakeholders.

Question 462

Stakeholder Register

Answer 462

A documentation of each stakeholder’s contact information, position, concerns, interests, and attitude toward the project. The project manager updates the register as new stakeholders are identified and when stakeholders leave the project.

Question 463

Supportive Stakeholder Status

Answer 463

This is part of stakeholder analysis classification. A supportive stakeholder is aware of your project and is supportive and hopeful that the project will be successful.

Question 464

Unaware Stakeholder Status

Answer 464

Part of stakeholder analysis classification. An unaware status means the stakeholder doesn’t know about the project and the effect the project may create on the stakeholder.

Question 465

The PMI publication that defines widely accepted project management practices. The CAPM and the PMP exam are based on this book.

Answer 465

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide)

Question 466

The areas of expertise, industry, or function where a project is centered. Examples of application areas include architecture, IT, health care, and manufacturing.

Answer 466

Application Areas

Question 467

A quantifiable return on investment. The return can be tangible, such as equipment, money, or market share. The return can also be intangible, such as brand recognition, trademarks, and reputation.

Answer 467

Business Value

Question 468

A person who has slightly less project management experience than a PMP, but who has qualified for and then passed the examination to be an associate.

Answer 468

Certified Associate In Project Management (CAPM)

Question 469

Defines how a project affects people and how those people may affect the project. This includes the economic, educational, ethical, religious, demographic, and ethnic composition of the people affected by the project.

Answer 469

Cultural And Social Environment

Question 470

A product, service, or result created by a project. Projects can have multiple.

Answer 470

Deliverable

Question 471

These include the application of accounting, procurement, sales and marketing, contracting, manufacturing, logistics, strategic planning, human resource management, standards and regulations, and information technology.

Answer 471

General Management Skills

Question 472

The consideration of the local and international laws, languages, communication challenges, time zone differences, and other non-collocated issues that affect a project’s ability to progress.

Answer 472

International And Political Environment

Question 473

The ability to interact, lead, motivate, and manage people.

Answer 473

Interpersonal Skills

Question 474

A triangle with the characteristics of time, cost, and scope. Time, cost, and scope each constitute one side of the triangle; if any side is not in balance with the other sides, the project will suffer. This is also known as the Triple Constraints of Project Management, as all projects are constrained by time, cost, and scope.

Answer 474

Iron Triangle Of Project Management

Question 475

The physical structure and surroundings that affect a project’s work.

Answer 475

Physical Environment

Question 476

A collection of related processes in project management. There are five process groups and 49 project management processes. The five process groups are Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.

Answer 476

Process Groups

Question 477

A collection of related projects working in unison toward a common deliverable.

Answer 477

Program

Question 478

The process of gathering project details. This process uses deductive reasoning, logic, and a series of information- gathering techniques to identify details about a project, product, or solution.

Answer 478

Progressive Elaboration

Question 479

A temporary endeavor to create a unique product, service, or result. The end result of a project is also called a deliverable.

Answer 479

Project

Question 480

A documented created and maintained by the project sponsor and the project manager. The project benefits management plan defines what benefits the project will create, when the benefits will be realized, and how the benefits will be measured.

Answer 480

Project Benefits Management Plan

Question 481

Created and maintained by the project sponsor and shows the financial validity of why a project is chartered and launched within the organization. Typically, the project business case is created before the launch of the project and may be used as a go/no-go decision point.

Answer 481

Project Business Case

Question 482

The location and culture of the environment where the project work will reside. This includes the social, economic, and environmental variables the project must work with or around.

Answer 482

Project Environment

Question 483

An organization of project management professionals from around the world, supporting and promoting the careers, values, and concerns of project managers.

Answer 483

Project Management Institute (PMI)

Question 484

The phases that make up the project. These are unique to the type of work being performed and are not universal to all projects.

Answer 484

Project Life Cycle

Question 485

A central office that oversees all projects within an organization or within a functional department. Supports the project manager through software, training, templates, policies, communication, dispute resolution, and other services.

Answer 485

Project Management Office (PMO)

Question 486

A person who has proven project management experience and has qualified for and then passed the PMP examination.

Answer 486

Project Management Professional (PMP)

Question 487

The management and selection of projects that support an organization’s vision and mission. It is the balance of project priority, risk, reward, and return on investment. This is a senior management process.

Answer 487

Project Portfolio Management

Question 488

A smaller project managed within a larger, parent project. These are often contracted work whose deliverable allows the larger project to progress.

Answer 488

Subprojects

Question 489

Also known as the Iron Triangle. This theory posits that time, cost, and scope are three constraints that every project has.

Answer 489

Triple Constraints Of Project Management

Question 490

Raw data, observations, and measurements about project components. This data is gathered and stored in the project management information system.

Answer 490

Work Performance Data

Question 491

The processed and analyzed data that will help the project manager make project decisions.

Answer 491

Work Performance Information

Question 492

The formatted communication of work performance information. Work performance reports communicate what’s happening in the project through status reports, memos, dashboards, or other modalities.

Answer 492

Work Performance Reports

Question 493

An organization where organizational resources are pooled into one project team, but the functional managers and the project managers share the project power.

Answer 493

Balanced Matrix Structure

Question 494

The culture and the styles of an organization. ____ such as work ethics, hours, view of authority, and shared values, can affect how the project is managed.

Answer 494

Cultural Norms

Question 495

Conditions that affect how the project manager may manage the project. Enterprise environmental factors come from within the project, such as policy, or they be external to the organization, such as law or regulation.

Answer 495

Enterprise Environmental Factors

Question 496

An organization that is divided into functions, and each employee has one clear functional manager. Each department acts independently of the other departments. A project manager in this structure has little to no power and may be called a project coordinator.

Answer 496

Functional Structure

Question 497

Describes the rules, policies, and procedures that people within an organization abide by. Also addresses the organization, but also address portfolios, programs, and projects. Regarding portfolios, programs, and projects the governance framework addresses alignment with organizational vision, risk management, performance factors, and communication.

Answer 497

Governance Framework

Question 498

An organization that creates a blend of the functional, matrix, and project- oriented structures.

Answer 498

Hybrid Structure

Question 499

Describe organizations that have duplication of efforts within the organization, but not within each department or division of the organization. Project manager has little authority in this structure and the functional manager controls the project budget.

Answer 499

Multidivisional Structure

Question 500

Describes a loosely organized business or organization. There likely aren’t big formal departments and people work alongside one another regardless of roles and titles. The project manager likely has little control over the project resources and may not be called a project manager.

Answer 500

Organic Or Simple

Question 501

Includes organizational processes, policies, procedures, and items from a corporate knowledge base. These are grouped into two categories to consider: processes, policies and procedures, and organizational knowledge bases.

Answer 501

Organizational Process Assets

Question 502

The databases, files, and historical information that you can use to help better plan and manage your projects. This is an organizational process asset that is created internally to your organization through the ongoing work of operations and other projects.

Answer 502

Organizational Knowledge Repositories

Question 503

A system can create things by working with multiple components that the individual components could not create if they worked alone. The structure of the organization and the governance framework creates constraints that affect how the project manager makes decisions within the project. The organizational system directly affects how the project manager utilizes their power, influence, leadership, and even political capital, to get things done in the environment.

Answer 503

Organizational System

Question 504

A business unit that centralizes the operations and procedures of all projects within the organization. Can be supportive, controlling, or directive.

Answer 504

Project Management Office (PMO)

Question 505

An organization that assigns a project team to one project for the duration of the project life cycle. The project manager has high-to-almost-complete project power.

Answer 505

Project-Oriented Structure

Question 506

An organization where organizational resources are pooled into one project team, but the functional managers have less project power than the project manager.

Answer 506

Strong Matrix Structure

Question 507

Uses a network structure to communicate and interact with other groups and departments. A point of contact exists for each department and these department point of contact receive and send all messages for the department.

Answer 507

Virtual Organization

Question 508

An organization where organizational resources are pooled into one project team, but the functional managers have more project power than the project manager.

Answer 508

Weak Matrix Structure

Question 509

The message receiver restates what’s been said to fully understand and confirm the message and it provides an opportunity for the sender to clarify the message if needed.

Answer 509

Active Listening

Question 510

Begins with problem definition. Problem definition is the ability to discern between the cause and effect of the problem. Root-cause analysis looks beyond the immediate symptoms to the cause of the symptoms—which then affords opportunities for solutions.

Answer 510

Active Problem Solving

Question 511

The project manager refuses to act, get involved, or make decisions.

Answer 511

Avoiding Power

Question 512

The leader is motivating, has high- energy, and inspires the team through strong convictions about what’s possible and what the team can achieve. Positive thinking and a can-do mentality are characteristics of a charismatic leader.

Answer 512

Charismatic Leadership

Question 513

The project manager has deep skills and experience in a discipline (for example, years of working in IT helps an IT project manager better manage IT projects).

Answer 513

Expert Power

Question 514

The project manager aims to gain favor with the project team and stakeholders through flattery.

Answer 514

Ingratiating Power

Question 515

The individual has power and control of the data gathering and distribution of information.

Answer 515

Informational Power

Question 516

The leader is a hybrid of transactional, transformational, and charismatic leaders. The interactional leader wants the team to act, is excited and inspired about the project work, yet still holds the team accountable for their results.

Answer 516

Interactional Leadership

Question 517

The project manager can make the team and stakeholders feel guilty to gain compliance in the project.

Answer 517

Guilt-Based Power

Question 518

This is about aligning, motivating, and inspiring the project team members to do the right thing, build trust, think creatively, and to challenge the status quo.

Answer 518

Leadership

Question 519

The leader takes a “hands-off” approach to the project. This means the project team makes decisions, takes initiative in the actions, and creates goals. While this approach can provide autonomy, it can make the leader appear absent when it comes to project decisions.

Answer 519

Laissez-Faire Leadership

Question 520

Management utilizes positional power to maintain, administrate, control, and focus on getting things done without challenging the status quo of the project and organization.

Answer 520

Management

Question 521

Based on the audience and the message being sent, the media should be in alignment with the message.

Answer 521

Media Selection

Question 522

Meetings are forms of communication. How the meeting is led, managed, and controlled all influence the message being delivered. Agendas, minutes, and order are mandatory for effective communications within a meeting.

Answer 522

Meeting Management

Question 523

The project manager has a warm personality that others like.

Answer 523

Personal Or Charismatic Power

Question 524

In formal presentations, the presenter’s oral and body language, visual aids, and handouts all influence the message being delivered.

Answer 524

Presentation

Question 525

The project manager can restrict choices to get the project team to perform and do the project work.

Answer 525

Pressure-Based Power

Question 526

Defines three areas of PDUs for PMI certified professionals to maintain their certification. The PMI Talent Triangle includes technical project management, leadership, and strategic and business management.

Answer 526

Pmi Talent Triangle

Question 527

The project manager’s power is because of the position she has as the project manager. This is also known as formal, authoritative, and legitimate power.

Answer 527

Positional Power

Question 528

PDUs are earned after the PMP to maintain the PMP certification. PMPs are required to earn 60 PDUs per three-year certification cycle. Of the 60 PDUs, a minimum of 35 hours must come from educational opportunities.

Answer 528

Professional Development Units (Pdus)

Question 529

The role of leading the project team and managing the project resources to effectively achieve the objectives of the project.

Answer 529

Project Manager

Question 530

The project manager can punish the project team.

Answer 530

Punitive Or Coercive Power

Question 531

The project manager is respected or admired because of the team’s past experiences with the project manager. This is about the project manager’s credibility in the organization.

Answer 531

Referent Power

Question 532

The project manager can reward the project team.

Answer 532

Reward Power

Question 533

Communication requires a sender and a receiver. Within this model may be multiple avenues to complete the flow of communication, but barriers to effective communication may be present as well.

Answer 533

Sender-Receiver Models

Question 534

The leader puts others first and focuses on the needs of the people he serves. Servant leaders provide opportunity for growth, education, autonomy within the project, and the well-being of others. The primary focus of servant leadership is service to others.

Answer 534

Servant Leadership

Question 535

The project manager has power because of certain situations in the organization.

Answer 535

Situational Power

Question 536

The tone, structure, and formality of the message being sent should be in alignment with the audience and the content of the message.

Answer 536

Style

Question 537

The leader emphasizes the goals of the project and rewards and disincentives for the project team. This is sometimes called management by exception as it’s the exception that is reward or punished.

Answer 537

Transactional Leadership

Question 538

The leader inspires and motivates the project team to achieve the project goals. Transformational leaders aim to empower the project team to act, be innovative in the project work, and accomplish through ambition.

Answer 538

Transformational Leadership

Question 539

An assumption is something that is believed to be true or false, but it has not yet been proven to be true or false. Assumptions that prove wrong can become risks for the project. All identified project assumptions are recorded in the assumption log for testing and analysis, and the outcomes are recorded.

Answer 539

Assumption Log

Question 540

This is an example of a benefits comparison model. It examines the benefit-to-cost ratio.

Answer 540

Benefit/Cost Ratio (Bcr) Models

Question 541

A committee that evaluates the worthiness of a proposed change and either approves or rejects the proposed change.

Answer 541

Change Control Board (Ccb)

Question 542

The change control system communicates the process for controlling changes to the project deliverables. This system works with the configuration management system and seeks to control and document proposals to change the project’s product.

Answer 542

Change Control System (Ccs)

Question 543

All changes that enter into a project are recorded in the change log. The characteristics of the change, such as the time, cost, risk, and scope details, are also recorded.

Answer 543

Change Log

Question 544

This plan details the project procedures for entertaining change requests: how change requests are managed, documented, approved, or declined.

Answer 544

Change Management Plan

Question 545

This final process group of the project management life cycle is responsible for closing the project phase or project. This is where project documentation is archived and project contracts are also closed.

Answer 545

Closure Processes

Question 546

This plan defines who will get what information, how they will receive it, and in what modality the communication will take place.

Answer 546

Communications Management Plan

Question 547

This includes the labeling of the components, how changes are made to the product, and the accountability of the changes.

Answer 547

Configuration Identification

Question 548

This plan is an input to the control scope process. It defines how changes to the features and functions of the project deliverable, the product scope, may enter the project.

Answer 548

Configuration Management Plan

Question 549

This system defines how stakeholders are allowed to submit change requests, the conditions for approving a change request, and how approved change requests are validated in the project scope. Configuration management also documents the characteristics and functions of the project’s products and any changes to a product’s characteristics.

Answer 549

Configuration Management System

Question 550

The organization of the product materials, details, and prior product documentation.

Answer 550

Configuration Status Accounting

Question 551

The scope verification and completeness auditing of project or phase deliverables to ensure that they are in alignment with the project plan.

Answer 551

Configuration Verification And Auditing

Question 552

The formal verification of the contract completeness by the vendor and the performing organization.

Answer 552

Contract Closure

Question 553

This is the aggregated costs of all of the work packages within the work breakdown structure (WBS).

Answer 553

Cost Baseline

Question 554

This plan details how the project costs will be planned for, estimated, budgeted, and then monitored and controlled.

Answer 554

Cost Management Plan

Question 555

Knowledge that can be quickly and easily expressed through conversations, documentation, figures, or numbers, is easily communicated.

Answer 555

Explicit Knowledge

Question 556

A benefit comparison model to determine a future value of money. The formula to calculate future value is FV = PV(1 + I)n, where PV is present value, I is the given interest rate, and n is the number of periods.

Answer 556

Future Value

Question 557

A process to consider and control the impact of a proposed change on the project’s knowledge areas.

Answer 557

Integrated Change Control

Question 558

Issues are points of contention where some question of the project’s direction needs to be resolved. All identified issues are documented in the issue log, along with an issue owner and a deadline to resolve the issue. The outcome of the issue is also recorded.

Answer 558

Issue Log

Question 559

A project selection method to determine the likelihood of success. These models include linear programming, nonlinear programming, dynamic programming, integer programming, and multiobjective programming.

Answer 559

Mathematical Model

Question 560

Milestones are significant points or events in the project’s progress that represent accomplishment in the project. Projects usually create milestones as the result of completing phases within the project.

Answer 560

Milestone

Question 561

This list details the project milestones and their attributes. It is used for several areas of project planning, but also helps determine how quickly the project may be achieving its objectives.

Answer 561

Milestone List

Question 562

These are committees that ask every conceivable negative question about the proposed project. Their goals are to expose the project’s strengths and weaknesses, and to kill the project if it’s deemed unworthy for the organization to commit to. Also known as project steering committees or project selection committees.

Answer 562

Murder Boards

Question 563

Evaluates the monies returned on a project for each period the project lasts.

Answer 563

Net Present Value

Question 564

An estimate to predict how long it will take a project to pay back an organization for the project’s investment of capital.

Answer 564

Payback Period

Question 565

A benefit comparison model to determine the present value of a future amount of money. The formula to calculate present value is PV = FV ÷ (1 + i)n, where FV is future value, I is the given interest rate, and n is the number of periods.

Answer 565

Present Value

Question 566

The procurement management plan controls how the project will acquire goods and services.

Answer 566

Procurement Management Plan

Question 567

This document authorizes the project. It defines the initial requirements of the project stakeholders. The project charter is endorsed by an entity outside of the project boundaries.

Answer 567

Project Charter

Question 568

The documented approach of how a project will be planned, executed, monitored and controlled, and then closed. This document is a collection of subsidiary management plans and related documents.

Answer 568

Project Management Plan

Question 569

Defines how the project scope will be planned, managed, and controlled.

Answer 569

Project Scope Management Plan

Question 570

Documents the quality objectives for the project, including the metrics for stakeholder acceptance of the project deliverable.

Answer 570

Quality Baseline

Question 571

This plan defines what quality means for the project, how the project will achieve quality, and how the project will map to organizational procedures pertaining to quality.

Answer 571

Quality Management Plan

Question 572

A mathematical model to examine the relationship among project variables, like cost, time, labor, and other project metrics.

Answer 572

Regression Analysis

Question 573

Risk is an uncertain event or condition that may affect the project outcome. The risk management plan defines how the project will manage risk.

Answer 573

Risk Management Plan

Question 574

The risk register is a centralized database consisting of the outcome of all the other risk management processes, such as the outcome of risk identification, qualitative analysis, and quantitative analysis.

Answer 574

Risk Register

Question 575

This subsidiary plan defines the risk responses that are to be used in the project for both positive and negative risks.

Answer 575

Risk Response Plan

Question 576

This is the planned start and finish of the project. The comparison of what was planned and what was experienced is the schedule variance.

Answer 576

Schedule Baseline

Question 577

Defines how the project schedule will be created and managed.

Answer 577

Schedule Management Plan

Question 578

The scope baseline is a combination of three project documents: the project scope statement, the work breakdown structure, and the WBS dictionary. The creation of the project deliverable will be measured against the scope baseline to show any variances from what was expected and what the project team has created.

Answer 578

Scope Baseline

Question 579

These models use a common set of values for all of the projects up for selection. For example, values can be profitability, complexity, customer demand, and so on.

Answer 579

Scoring Models

Question 580

Knowledge that’s more difficult to express because it’s personal beliefs, values, knowledge gain from experience, and “know-how” when doing a task.

Answer 580

Tacit Knowledge

Question 581

A planning heuristic for creating the WBS. This rule states that the work package in a WBS must take no more than 80 hours of labor to create and no fewer than 8 hours of labor to create.

Answer 581

8/80 Rule

Question 582

The observer interacts with the worker to ask questions and understand each step of the work being completed. In some instances, the observer could serve as an assistant in doing the work.

Answer 582

Active Observation

Question 583

When stakeholders create a large number of ideas, you can use an affinity diagram to cluster similar ideas together for further analysis.

Answer 583

Affinity Diagrams

Question 584

A scope definition process of finding alternative solutions for the project customer while considering the customer’s satisfaction, the cost of the solution, and how the customer may use the product in operations.

Answer 584

Alternatives Generation

Question 585

A decision method where only one individual makes the decision for the group.

Answer 585

Autocratic

Question 586

This approach encourages participants to generate as many ideas as possible about the project requirements. No idea is judged or dismissed during the brainstorming session.

Answer 586

Brainstorming

Question 587

Documented in the scope management plan, this system defines how changes to the project scope are managed and controlled.

Answer 587

Change Control System (Ccs)

Question 588

This subsidiary plan defines how changes will be allowed and managed within the project.

Answer 588

Change Management Plan

Question 589

A numbering system for each item in the WBS. The PMBOK is a good example of a code of accounts, as each chapter and its subheadings follow a logical numbering scheme. For example, PMBOK 5.3.3.2 identifies an exact paragraph in the PMBOK.

Answer 589

Code Of Accounts

Question 590

This subsidiary plan defines how changes to the features and functions of the project deliverables will be monitored and controlled within the project.

Answer 590

Configuration Management Plan

Question 591

These diagrams show the relationship between elements of an environment. For example, a context diagram would illustrate the networks, servers, workstations, and people that interact with the elements of the environment.

Answer 591

Context Diagram

Question 592

A moderator-led requirements collection method to elicit requirements from stakeholders.

Answer 592

Focus Groups

Question 593

This is the study of the functions within a system, project, or, what’s more likely in the project scope statement, the product the project will be creating. Functional analysis studies the goals of the product, how the product will be used, and the expectations the customer has of the product once it leaves the project and moves into operations. Functional analysis may also consider the cost of the product in operations, which is known as life-cycle costing.

Answer 593

Functional Analysis

Question 594

Most projects have a determined budget in relation to the project scope. There may be a qualifier on this budget, such as plus or minus 10 percent based on the type of cost estimate created.

Answer 594

Funding Limit

Question 595

A requirements collection method used to elicit requirements from stakeholders in a one-on-one conversation.

Answer 595

Interviews

Question 596

A group decision method where more than 50 percent of the group must be in agreement.

Answer 596

Majority

Question 597

This approach maps ideas to show the relationship among requirements and the differences between requirements. The map can be reviewed to identify new solutions or to rank the identified requirements.

Answer 597

Mind Mapping

Question 598

As with brainstorming, participants are encouraged to generate as many ideas as possible, but the suggested ideas are ranked by a voting process.

Answer 598

Nominal Group Technique

Question 599

The observer records information about the work being completed without interrupting the process; sometimes called the invisible observer.

Answer 599

Passive Observation

Question 600

A group-decision method where the largest part of the group makes the decision when it’s less than 50 percent of the total. (Consider three or four factions within the stakeholders.)

Answer 600

Plurality

Question 601

This project scope statement component works with the project requirements, but focuses specifically on the product and what the conditions and processes are for formal acceptance of the product.

Answer 601

Product Acceptance Criteria

Question 602

A scope definition technique that breaks down a product into a hierarchical structure, much like a WBS breaks down a project scope.

Answer 602

Product Breakdown

Question 603

This is a narrative description of what the project is creating as a deliverable for the project customer.

Answer 603

Product Scope Description

Question 604

Defines the product or service that will come about as a result of completing the project. It defines the features and functions that characterize the product.

Answer 604

Product Scope

Question 605

A project assumption is a factor in the planning process that is held to be true but not proven to be true.

Answer 605

Project Assumptions

Question 606

A project boundary clearly states what is included with the project and what’s excluded from the project. This helps to eliminate assumptions between the project management team and the project customer.

Answer 606

Project Boundaries

Question 607

A constraint is anything that limits the project manager’s options. Consider a predetermined budget, deadline, resources, or materials the project manager must use within the project— these are all examples of project constraints.

Answer 607

Project Constraints

Question 608

These are the measurable goals that determine a project’s acceptability to the project customer and the overall success of the project. Objectives often include the cost, schedule, technical requirements, and quality demands.

Answer 608

Project Objectives

Question 609

These are the demands set by the customer, regulations, or the performing organization that must exist for the project deliverables to be acceptable. Requirements are often prioritized in a number of ways, from “must have” to “should have” to “would like to have.”

Answer 609

Project Requirements

Question 610

This defines all of the work, and only the required work, to complete the project objectives.

Answer 610

Project Scope

Question 611

This project management subsidiary plan controls how the scope will be defined, how the project scope statement will be created, how the WBS will be created, how scope validation will proceed, and how the project scope will be controlled throughout the project.

Answer 611

Project Scope Management Plan

Question 612

This documentation of what the stakeholders expected in the project defines all of the requirements that must be present for the work to be accepted by the stakeholders.

Answer 612

Requirements Documentation

Question 613

This subsidiary plan defines how changes to the project requirements will be permitted, how requirements will be tracked, and how changes to the requirements will be approved.

Answer 613

Requirements Management Plan

Question 614

This is a table that maps the requirements throughout the project all the way to their completion.

Answer 614

Requirements Traceability Matrix (Rtm)

Question 615

The project customer may have specific dates when phases of the project should be completed. These milestones are often treated as project constraints.

Answer 615

Schedule Milestones

Question 616

Undocumented, unapproved changes to the project scope.

Answer 616

Scope Creep

Question 617

The formal inspection of the project deliverables, which leads to project acceptance.

Answer 617

Scope Validation

Question 618

A scope definition process where the project management team interviews the stakeholders and categorizes, prioritizes, and documents what the project customer wants and needs. The analysis is to determine, quantify, and prioritize the interests of the stakeholders. Stakeholder analysis demands quantification of stakeholder objectives; goals such as “good,” “satisfaction,” and “speedy” aren’t quantifiable.

Answer 618

Stakeholder Analysis

Question 619

A scope definition approach that studies and analyzes a system, its components, and the relationship of the components within the system.

Answer 619

Systems Analysis

Question 620

This project scope statement creation process studies how a system should work, designs and creates a system model, and then enacts the working system based on the project’s goals and the customer’s expectations. Systems engineering aims to balance the time and cost of the project in relation to the scope of the project.

Answer 620

Systems Engineering

Question 621

A group decision method where everyone must be in agreement.

Answer 621

Unanimity

Question 622

As with value engineering, this approach examines the functions of the project’s product in relation to the cost of the features and functions. This is where, to some extent, the grade of the product is in relationship to the cost of the product.

Answer 622

Value Analysis

Question 623

This approach to project scope statement creation attempts to find the correct level of quality in relation to a reasonable budget for the project deliverable while still achieving an acceptable level of performance of the product.

Answer 623

Value Engineering

Question 624

A WBS companion document that defines all of the characteristics of each element within the WBS.

Answer 624

Wbs Dictionary

Question 625

A prepopulated WBS for repetitive projects. Previous projects’ WBSs are often used as templates for current similar projects.

Answer 625

Wbs Template

Question 626

A deliverables-oriented breakdown of the project scope.

Answer 626

Work Breakdown Structure (Wbs)

Question 627

The smallest item in the WBS.

Answer 627

Work Package

Question 628

Status of the deliverables: the work that’s been started, finished, or has yet to begin.

Answer 628

Work Performance Information

Question 629

The primary output of breaking down the WBS work packages.

Answer 629

Activity List

Question 630

The identification of more than one solution. Consider roles, materials, tools, and approaches to the project work.

Answer 630

Alternative Analysis

Question 631

A somewhat unreliable estimating approach that relies on historical information to predict what current activity durations should be. Analogous estimating is more reliable, however, than team member recollections. Analogous estimating is also known as top-down estimating and is a form of expert judgment.

Answer 631

Analogous Estimating

Question 632

The most accurate time-and-cost estimating approach a project manager can use. This estimating approach starts at “the bottom” of the project and considers every activity, its predecessor and successor activities, and the exact amount of resources needed to complete each activity.

Answer 632

Bottom-Up Estimating

Question 633

A WBS entry that considers the time, cost, and scope measurements for that deliverable within the WBS. The estimated performance is compared against the actual performance to measure overall performance for the deliverables within that control account. The specifics of a control account are documented in a control account plan.

Answer 633

Control Account

Question 634

A predetermined range of acceptable variances, such as +/–10 percent off schedule. Should the variance exceed the threshold, then project control processes and corrected actions will be enacted.

Answer 634

Control Threshold

Question 635

A schedule compression approach that adds more resources to activities on the critical path to complete the project earlier. When crashing a project, costs are added because the associated labor and sometimes resources (such as faster equipment) cause costs to increase.

Answer 635

Crashing

Question 636

The path in the project network diagram that cannot be delayed, otherwise the project completion date will be late. There can be more than one critical path. Activities in the critical path have no float.

Answer 636

Critical Path

Question 637

These dependencies are the preferred order of activities. Project managers should use these relationships at their discretion and should document the logic behind the decision. Discretionary dependencies allow activities to happen in a preferred order because of best practices, conditions unique to the project work, or external events. Also known as preferential or soft logic.

Answer 637

Discretionary Dependencies

Question 638

The earliest a project activity can finish. Used in the forward pass procedure to discover the critical path and the project float.

Answer 638

Early Finish

Question 639

The earliest a project activity can begin. Used in the forward pass procedure to discover the critical path and the project float.

Answer 639

Early Start

Question 640

As the name implies, these are dependencies outside of the project’s control. Examples include the delivery of equipment from a vendor, the deliverable of another project, or the decision of a committee, lawsuit, or expected new law.

Answer 640

External Dependencies

Question 641

A schedule compression method that changes the relationship of activities. With fast tracking, activities that would normally be done in sequence are allowed to be done in parallel or with some overlap. Fast tracking can be accomplished by changing the relation of activities from FS to SS or even FF or by adding lead time to downstream activities. However, fast tracking does add risk to the project.

Answer 641

Fast Tracking

Question 642

An activity relationship type that requires the current activity to be finished before its successor can finish.

Answer 642

Finish-To-Finish

Question 643

An activity relationship type that requires the current activity to be finished before its successor can start.

Answer 643

Finish-To-Start

Question 644

A representation of a project network diagram that is often used for outsourced portions of a project, repetitive work within a project, or a subproject. Also called a subnet.

Answer 644

Fragnet

Question 645

This is the total time a single activity can be delayed without affecting the early start of its immediately following successor activities.

Answer 645

Free Float

Question 646

Logic that describes activities that must happen in a particular order. For example, the dirt must be excavated before the foundation can be built. The foundation must be in place before the framing can begin. Also known as a mandatory dependency.

Answer 646

Hard Logic

Question 647

Internal relationships to the project or the organization. For example, the project team must create the software as part of the project’s deliverable before the software can be tested for quality control.

Answer 647

Internal Dependencies

Question 648

Positive time that moves two or more activities further apart.

Answer 648

Lag Time

Question 649

The latest a project activity can finish. Used in the backward pass procedure to discover the critical path and the project float.

Answer 649

Late Finish

Question 650

The latest a project activity can begin. Used in the backward pass procedure to discover the critical path and the project float.

Answer 650

Late Start

Question 651

Negative time that allows two or more activities to overlap where ordinarily these activities would be sequential.

Answer 651

Lead Time

Question 652

A percentage of the project duration to combat Parkinson’s Law. When project activities become late, their lateness is subtracted from the management reserve.

Answer 652

Management Reserve

Question 653

These dependencies are the natural order of activities. For example, you can’t begin building your house until your foundation is in place. These relationships are called hard logic.

Answer 653

Mandatory Dependencies

Question 654

A project simulation approach named after the world-famous gambling district in Monaco. This predicts how scenarios may work out, given any number of variables. The process doesn’t actually churn out a specific answer, but a range of possible answers. When Monte Carlo analysis is applied to a schedule, it can examine, for example, the optimistic completion date, the pessimistic completion date, and the most likely completion date for each activity in the project and then predict a mean for the project schedule.

Answer 654

Monte Carlo Analysis

Question 655

A quantitatively based duration estimate that uses mathematical formulas to predict how long an activity will take based on the quantities of work to be completed.

Answer 655

Parametric Estimate

Question 656

A theory that states: “Work expands so as to fill the time available for its completion.” It is considered with time estimating, because bloated or padded activity estimates will fill the amount of time allotted to the activity.

Answer 656

Parkinson’S Law

Question 657

A WBS entry located below a control account and above the work packages. A planning package signifies that there is more planning that needs to be completed for this specific deliverable.

Answer 657

Planning Package

Question 658

A network diagram that shows activities in nodes and the relationship between each activity. Predecessors come before the current activity, and successors come after the current activity.

Answer 658

Precedence Diagramming Method

Question 659

Calendars that identify when the project work will occur.

Answer 659

Project Calendars

Question 660

This is the total time the project can be delayed without passing the customer- expected completion date.

Answer 660

Project Float

Question 661

A diagram that visualizes the flow of the project activities and their relationships to other project activities.

Answer 661

Project Network Diagram

Question 662

An update to the work breakdown structure.

Answer 662

Refinement

Question 663

This is a hierarchical breakdown of the project resources by category and resource type. For example, you could have a category of equipment, a category of human resources, and a category of materials. Within each category, you could identify the types of equipment your project will use, the types of human resources, and the types of materials.

Answer 663

Resource Breakdown Structure (Rbs)

Question 664

Calendars that identify when project resources are available for the project work.

Answer 664

Resource Calendars

Question 665

A method to flatten the schedule when resources are overallocated. Resource leveling can be applied using different methods to accomplish different goals. One of the most common methods is to ensure that workers are not overextended on activities.

Answer 665

Resource-Leveling Heuristic

Question 666

The imminent work is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a high level. This is a form of progressive elaboration.

Answer 666

Rolling Wave Planning

Question 667

A subsidiary plan in the project management plan. It defines how the project schedule will be created, estimated, controlled, and managed.

Answer 667

Schedule Management Plan

Question 668

The activities don’t necessarily have to happen in a specific order. For example, you could install the light fixtures first, then the carpet, and then paint the room. The project manager could use soft logic to change the order of the activities if so desired.

Answer 668

Soft Logic

Question 669

An activity relationship that requires an activity to start so that its successor can finish. This is the most unusual of all the activity relationship types.

Answer 669

Start-To-Finish

Question 670

An activity relationship type that requires the current activity to start before its successor can start.

Answer 670

Start-To-Start

Question 671

A representation of a project network diagram that is often used for outsourced portions of projects, repetitive work within a project, or a subproject. Also called a fragnet.

Answer 671

Subnet

Question 672

A previous project that can be adapted for the current project and forms that are pre-populated with organizational-specific information.

Answer 672

Template

Question 673

An estimating technique for each activity that requires optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates to be created. Based on these three estimates, an average can be created to predict how long the activity should take.

Answer 673

Three-Point Estimate

Question 674

This is the total time an activity can be delayed without delaying project completion.

Answer 674

Total Float

Question 675

The smallest item in the work breakdown structure.

Answer 675

Work Package

Question 676

The actual amount of monies the project has spent to date.

Answer 676

Actual Cost (Ac)

Question 677

An approach that relies on historical information to predict the cost of the current project. It is also known as top- down estimating and is the least reliable of all the cost-estimating approaches.

Answer 677

Analogous Estimating

Question 678

An estimating approach that starts from zero, accounts for each component of the WBS, and arrives at a sum for the project. It is completed with the project team and can be one of the most time- consuming and most reliable methods to predict project costs.

Answer 678

Bottom-Up Estimating

Question 679

This estimate is also somewhat broad and is used early in the planning processes and also in top-down estimates. The range of variance for the estimate can be from –10 percent to +25 percent.

Answer 679

Budget Estimate

Question 680

A cost-estimating approach that uses a database, typically software-driven, to create the cost estimate for a project.

Answer 680

Commercial Database

Question 681

A contingency allowance to account for overruns in costs. Contingency allowances are used at the project manager’s discretion and with management’s approval to counteract cost overruns for scheduled activities and risk events.

Answer 681

Contingency Reserve

Question 682

Costs are parallel to each WBS work package. The costs of each work package are aggregated to their corresponding control accounts. Each control account then is aggregated to the sum of the project costs.

Answer 682

Cost Aggregation

Question 683

A time-lapse exposure of when the project monies are to be spent in relation to cumulative values of the work completed in the project.

Answer 683

Cost Baseline

Question 684

The cost aggregation achieved by assigning specific dollar amounts for each of the scheduled activities or, more likely, for each of the work packages in the WBS. Cost budgeting applies the cost estimates over time.

Answer 684

Cost Budgeting

Question 685

A system that examines any changes associated with scope changes, the cost of materials, and the cost of any other resources, and the associated impact on the overall project cost.

Answer 685

Cost Change Control System

Question 686

The cost management plan dictates how cost variances will be managed.

Answer 686

Cost Management Plan

Question 687

The monies spent to recover from not adhering to the expected level of quality. Examples may include rework, defect repair, loss of life or limb because safety precautions were not taken, loss of sales, and loss of customers. This is also known as the cost of nonconformance to quality.

Answer 687

Cost Of Poor Quality

Question 688

The monies spent to attain the expected level of quality within a project. Examples include training, testing, and safety precautions.

Answer 688

Cost Of Quality

Question 689

Measures the project based on its financial performance. The formula is CPI = EV/AC.

Answer 689

Cost Performance Index (Cpi)

Question 690

The difference of the earned value amount and the cumulative actual costs of the project. The formula is CV = EV – AC.

Answer 690

Cost Variance (Cv)

Question 691

This estimate type is one of the most accurate. It’s used late in the planning processes and is associated with bottom- up estimating. You need the WBS in order to create the definitive estimate. The range of variance for the estimate can be from –5 percent to +10 percent.

Answer 691

Definitive Estimate

Question 692

Costs are attributed directly to the project work and cannot be shared among projects (for example, airfare, hotels, long-distance phone charges, and so on).

Answer 692

Direct Costs

Question 693

Earned value is the physical work completed to date and the authorized budget for that work. It is the percentage of the BAC that represents the actual work completed in the project.

Answer 693

Earned Value (Ev)

Question 694

These forecasting formulas predict the likely completed costs of the project based on current scenarios within the project.

Answer 694

Estimate At Completion (Eac)

Question 695

An earned value management formula that predicts how much funding the project will require to be completed. Three variations of this formula are based on conditions the project may be experiencing.

Answer 695

Estimate To Complete (Etc)

Question 696

Costs that remain constant throughout the life of the project (the cost of a piece of rented equipment for the project, the cost of a consultant brought on to the project, and so on).

Answer 696

Fixed Costs

Question 697

An organization’s approach to managing cash flow against the project deliverables based on a schedule, milestone accomplishment, or data constraints.

Answer 697

Funding Limit Reconciliation

Question 698

Costs that are representative of more than one project (for example, utilities for the performing organization, access to a training room, project management software license, and so on).

Answer 698

Indirect Costs

Question 699

An event that will likely happen within the project, but when it will happen and to what degree is unknown. These events, such as delays, are usually risk-related.

Answer 699

Known Unknown

Question 700

An approach that assumes the cost per unit decreases the more units workers complete, because workers learn as they complete the required work.

Answer 700

Learning Curve

Question 701

A market condition where the market is so tight that the actions of one vendor affect the actions of all the others.

Answer 701

Oligopoly

Question 702

The total cost of the opportunity that is refused to realize an opposing opportunity.

Answer 702

Opportunity Cost

Question 703

An approach using a parametric model to extrapolate what costs will be needed for a project (for example, cost per hour and cost per unit). It can include variables and points based on conditions.

Answer 703

Parametric Estimating

Question 704

Planned value is the work scheduled and the budget authorized to accomplish that work. It is the percentage of the BAC that reflects where the project should be at this point in time.

Answer 704

Planned Value (Pv)

Question 705

The final variance, which is discovered only at the project’s completion. The formula is VAR = BAC – AC.

Answer 705

Project Variance

Question 706

This is a statistical approach to predicting what future values may be, based on historical values. Regression analysis creates quantitative predictions based on variables within one value to predict variables in another. This form of estimating relies solely on pure statistical math to reveal relationships between variables and to predict future values.

Answer 706

Regression Analysis

Question 707

Cost reserves are for unknown unknowns within a project. The management reserve is not part of the project cost baseline, but is included as part of the project budget.

Answer 707

Reserve Analysis

Question 708

This rough estimate is used during the initiating processes and in top-down estimates. The range of variance for the estimate can be from –25 percent to +75 percent.

Answer 708

Rough Order Of Magnitude

Question 709

Measures the project based on its schedule performance. The formula is SPI = EV/PV.

Answer 709

Schedule Performance Index (Spi)

Question 710

The difference between the earned value and the planned value. The formulas is SV = EV – PV.

Answer 710

Schedule Variance (Sv)

Question 711

Many vendors can provide what your project needs to purchase, but you prefer to work with a specific vendor.

Answer 711

Single Source

Question 712

Only one vendor can provide what your project needs to purchase. Examples include a specific consultant, specialized service, or unique type of material.

Answer 712

Sole Source

Question 713

Monies that have already been invested in a project.

Answer 713

Sunk Costs

Question 714

A formula to forecast the likelihood of a project to achieve its goals based on what’s happening in the project right now. There are two different flavors for the TCPI, depending on what you want to accomplish. If you want to see if your project can meet the budget at completion, you’ll use this formula: TCPI = (BAC – EV)/(BAC – AC). If you want to see if your project can meet the newly created estimate at completion, you’ll use this version of the formula: TCPI = (BAC – EV)/(EAC – AC).

Answer 714

To-Complete Performance Index

Question 715

Costs that change based on the conditions applied in the project (the number of meeting participants, the supply of and demand for materials, and so on).

Answer 715

Variable Costs

Question 716

The difference between what was expected and what was experienced.

Answer 716

Variance

Question 717

A forecasting formula that predicts how much of a variance the project will likely have based on current conditions within the project. The formula is VAC = BAC – EAC.

Answer 717

Variance At Completion (Vac)

Question 718

These diagrams, such as the project network diagram, show the flow of the project work.

Answer 718

Activity Network Diagram

Question 719

This diagram breaks down ideas, solutions, causes, and project components and groups them together with other similar ideas and components.

Answer 719

Affinity Diagram

Question 720

Comparing any two similar entities to measure their performance.

Answer 720

Benchmarking

Question 721

Diagrams that show the relationship between variables within a process and how those relationships may contribute to inadequate quality. The diagrams can help organize both the process and team opinions, as well as generate discussion on finding a solution to ensure quality.

Answer 721

Cause-And-Effect Diagrams

Question 722

A simple approach to ensure that work is completed according to the quality policy.

Answer 722

Checklist

Question 723

A quality control chart that maps the performance of project work over time.

Answer 723

Control Chart

Question 724

An inspection-driven process that measures work results to confirm that the project is meeting the relevant quality standards.

Answer 724

Control Quality

Question 725

This is the cost associated with the monies spent to attain the expected level of quality. It is also known as the cost of quality.

Answer 725

Cost Of Conformance

Question 726

The cost associated with not satisfying quality expectations. This is also known as the cost of poor quality.

Answer 726

Cost Of Nonconformance To Quality

Question 727

A process to study the trade-offs between costs and the benefits realized from those costs.

Answer 727

Cost-Benefit Analysis

Question 728

An approach that relies on statistical scenarios to determine what variables within a project will result in the best outcome.

Answer 728

Design Of Experiments

Question 729

Assurance provided to the external customers of the project.

Answer 729

External Qa

Question 730

A diagram illustrating how components within a system are related. Flowcharts show the relation between components, as well as help the project team determine where quality issues may be present and, once done, plan accordingly.

Answer 730

Flowchart

Question 731

Assurance provided to management and the project team.

Answer 731

Internal Qa

Question 732

The abbreviation for the International Organization for Standardization. ISO is Greek for “equal,” while “International Organization for Standardization” in a different language would be abbreviated differently. The organization elected to use “ISO” for all languages.

Answer 732

Iso

Question 733

A data analysis table that shows the strength between variables and relationships in the matrix.

Answer 733

Matrix Diagram

Question 734

A histogram that illustrates and ranks categories of failure within a project.

Answer 734

Pareto Diagram

Question 735

According to ASQ, the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.

Answer 735

Quality

Question 736

A management process that defines the quality system or quality policy that a project must adhere to. QA aims to plan quality into the project rather than to inspect quality into a deliverable.

Answer 736

Quality Assurance

Question 737

This plan defines how the project team will implement and fulfill the quality policy of the performing organization.

Answer 737

Quality Management Plan

Question 738

The operational definitions that specify the measurements within a project and the expected targets for quality and performance.

Answer 738

Quality Metrics

Question 739

The process of first determining which quality standards are relevant to your project and then finding out the best methods of adhering to those quality standards.

Answer 739

Quality Planning

Question 740

A component of a control chart that illustrates the results of seven measurements on one side of the mean, which is considered “out of control” in the project.

Answer 740

Rule Of Seven

Question 740

A component of a control chart that illustrates the results of seven measurements on one side of the mean, which is considered “out of control” in the project.

Answer 740

Rule Of Seven

Question 741

A quality control tool that shows the results of inspection in the order in which they’ve occurred. The goal of a run chart is first to demonstrate the results of a process over time and then to use trend analysis to predict when certain trends may reemerge.

Answer 741

Run Chart

Question 741

A quality control tool that shows the results of inspection in the order in which they’ve occurred. The goal of a run chart is first to demonstrate the results of a process over time and then to use trend analysis to predict when certain trends may reemerge.

Answer 741

Run Chart

Question 742

A quality control tool that tracks the relationship between two variables over time. The two variables are considered related the closer they track against a diagonal line.

Answer 742

Scatter Diagram

Question 742

A quality control tool that tracks the relationship between two variables over time. The two variables are considered related the closer they track against a diagonal line.

Answer 742

Scatter Diagram

Question 743

These seven tools are used in quality planning and in quality control: cause-and-effect diagrams, flowcharts, check sheets, Pareto diagrams, histograms, control charts, and scatter diagrams.

Answer 743

Seven Basic Quality Tools

Question 744

A process of choosing a percentage of results at random. For example, a project creating a medical device may have 20 percent of all units randomly selected to check for quality.

Answer 744

Statistical Sampling

Question 744

A process of choosing a percentage of results at random. For example, a project creating a medical device may have 20 percent of all units randomly selected to check for quality.

Answer 744

Statistical Sampling

Question 745

Flowcharts that illustrate the flow of a process through a system, such as a project change request through the change control system, or work authorization through a quality control process.

Answer 745

System Or Process Flowcharts

Question 745

Flowcharts that illustrate the flow of a process through a system, such as a project change request through the change control system, or work authorization through a quality control process.

Answer 745

System Or Process Flowcharts

Question 746

Tree diagrams show the hierarchies and decomposition of a solution, an organization, or a project team. The WBS and an org chart are examples of tree diagrams.

Answer 746

Tree Diagram

Question 746

Tree diagrams show the hierarchies and decomposition of a solution, an organization, or a project team. The WBS and an org chart are examples of tree diagrams.

Answer 746

Tree Diagram

Question 747

The science of using past results to predict future performance.

Answer 747

Trend Analysis

Question 747

The science of using past results to predict future performance.

Answer 747

Trend Analysis

Question 748

The results of the project work as needed. This includes technical performance measures, project status, information on what the project has created to date, corrective actions, and performance reports.

Answer 748

Work Performance Information

Question 748

The results of the project work as needed. This includes technical performance measures, project status, information on what the project has created to date, corrective actions, and performance reports.

Answer 748

Work Performance Information

Question 749

Once the project is done, either the team moves onto other assignments as a unit, or the project team is disbanded and individual team members go on to other work.

Answer 749

Adjourning

Question 749

Once the project is done, either the team moves onto other assignments as a unit, or the project team is disbanded and individual team members go on to other work.

Answer 749

Adjourning

Question 750

Project management team members may have authority over other project team members, may have the ability to make decisions, and perhaps even sign approvals for project work and purchases.

Answer 750

Authority Power

Question 750

Project management team members may have authority over other project team members, may have the ability to make decisions, and perhaps even sign approvals for project work and purchases.

Answer 750

Authority Power

Question 751

The project manager has the authority to discipline the project team members. This is also known as penalty power.

Answer 751

Coercive Power

Question 751

The project manager has the authority to discipline the project team members. This is also known as penalty power.

Answer 751

Coercive Power

Question 752

This approach confronts the problem head-on and is the preferred method of conflict resolution. Multiple viewpoints and perspectives contribute to the solution.

Answer 752

Collaborate/Problem Solving

Question 752

This approach confronts the problem head-on and is the preferred method of conflict resolution. Multiple viewpoints and perspectives contribute to the solution.

Answer 752

Collaborate/Problem Solving

Question 753

Contracts and agreements with unions or other employee groups may serve as constraints on the project.

Answer 753

Collective Bargaining Agreement Constraints

Question 753

Contracts and agreements with unions or other employee groups may serve as constraints on the project.

Answer 753

Collective Bargaining Agreement Constraints

Question 754

This attribute defines what talents, skills, and capabilities are needed to complete the project work.

Answer 754

Competency

Question 754

This attribute defines what talents, skills, and capabilities are needed to complete the project work.

Answer 754

Competency

Question 755

This approach requires that both parties give up something.

Answer 755

Compromising

Question 755

This approach requires that both parties give up something.

Answer 755

Compromising

Question 756

This theory states that people will behave based on what they expect as a result of their behavior. In other words, people will work in relation to the expected reward.

Answer 756

Vroom’S Expectancy Theory

Question 756

This theory states that people will behave based on what they expect as a result of their behavior. In other words, people will work in relation to the expected reward.

Answer 756

Vroom’S Expectancy Theory

Question 757

The project manager’s authority comes both from experience with the technology the project

Answer 757

Expert Power

Question 757

The project manager’s authority comes both from experience with the technology the project

Answer 757

Expert Power

Question 758

The person with the power makes the decision.

Answer 758

Forcing Power

Question 758

The person with the power makes the decision.

Answer 758

Forcing Power

Question 759

The project manager has been assigned the role of project manager by senior management and is in charge of the project.

Answer 759

Formal Power

Question 759

The project manager has been assigned the role of project manager by senior management and is in charge of the project.

Answer 759

Formal Power

Question 760

The project team meets and learns about their roles and responsibilities on the project. Little interaction among the project team happens in this stage as the team is learning about the project and project manager.

Answer 760

Forming

Question 760

The project team meets and learns about their roles and responsibilities on the project. Little interaction among the project team happens in this stage as the team is learning about the project and project manager.

Answer 760

Forming

Question 761

Frederick Herzberg’s theory of the motivating agents and hygiene agents that affect a person’s willingness to excel in his career.

Answer 761

Herzberg’S Theory Of Motivation

Question 761

Frederick Herzberg’s theory of the motivating agents and hygiene agents that affect a person’s willingness to excel in his career.

Answer 761

Herzberg’S Theory Of Motivation

Question 762

A chart showing the relationship between superior and subordinate employees, groups, disciplines, and even departments.

Answer 762

Hierarchical Organizational Chart

Question 762

A chart showing the relationship between superior and subordinate employees, groups, disciplines, and even departments.

Answer 762

Hierarchical Organizational Chart

Question 763

A logbook of the issues the project team has identified and dates as to when the issues must be resolved by. The issue log may also include team members or stakeholders who are responsible for finding a solution to the identified issues.

Answer 763

Issue Log

Question 763

A logbook of the issues the project team has identified and dates as to when the issues must be resolved by. The issue log may also include team members or stakeholders who are responsible for finding a solution to the identified issues.

Answer 763

Issue Log

Question 764

Abraham Maslow’s theory of the five needs all humans have and work toward.

Answer 764

Maslow’S Hierarchy Of Needs

Question 764

Abraham Maslow’s theory of the five needs all humans have and work toward.

Answer 764

Maslow’S Hierarchy Of Needs

Question 765

David McClelland developed this theory, which states our needs are acquired and developed by our experiences over time. All people are, according to this theory, driven by one of three needs: achievement, affiliation, or power.

Answer 765

Mcclelland’S Theory Of Needs

Question 765

David McClelland developed this theory, which states our needs are acquired and developed by our experiences over time. All people are, according to this theory, driven by one of three needs: achievement, affiliation, or power.

Answer 765

Mcclelland’S Theory Of Needs

Question 766

Douglas McGregor’s theory that states management views workers in the Y category as competent and self-led and workers in the X category as incompetent and needing to be micromanaged.

Answer 766

Mcgregor’S Theory Of X And Y

Question 767

A method to rate potential project team members based on criteria such as education, experience, skills, knowledge, and more.

Answer 767

Multicriteria Decision Analysis

Question 767

A method to rate potential project team members based on criteria such as education, experience, skills, knowledge, and more.

Answer 767

Multicriteria Decision Analysis

Question 768

Project team members go about getting the project work, begin to rely on one another, and generally complete their project assignments.

Answer 768

Norming

Question 769

Traditional chart that depicts how the organization is broken down by department and disciplines. This chart is sometimes called the organizational breakdown structure (OBS) and is arranged by departments, units, or teams.

Answer 769

Organization Chart

Question 769

Traditional chart that depicts how the organization is broken down by department and disciplines. This chart is sometimes called the organizational breakdown structure (OBS) and is arranged by departments, units, or teams.

Answer 769

Organization Chart

Question 770

William Ouchi’s theory is based on the participative management style of the Japanese. This theory states that workers are motivated by a sense of commitment, opportunity, and advancement.

Answer 770

Ouchi’S Theory Z

Question 770

William Ouchi’s theory is based on the participative management style of the Japanese. This theory states that workers are motivated by a sense of commitment, opportunity, and advancement.

Answer 770

Ouchi’S Theory Z

Question 771

If a project team can reach the performing stage of team development, they trust one another, work well together, and issues and problems get resolved quickly and effectively.

Answer 771

Performing

Question 772

The hidden goals, personal agendas, and alliances among the project team members and the stakeholders.

Answer 772

Political Interfaces

Question 772

The hidden goals, personal agendas, and alliances among the project team members and the stakeholders.

Answer 772

Political Interfaces

Question 773

A RACI chart is a matrix chart that only uses the activities of responsible, accountable, consult, and inform.

Answer 773

Raci Chart

Question 774

The project team personally knows the project manager. Referent can also mean that the project manager refers to the person who assigned him the position.

Answer 774

Referent Power

Question 774

The project team personally knows the project manager. Referent can also mean that the project manager refers to the person who assigned him the position.

Answer 774

Referent Power

Question 775

This hierarchical chart can decompose the project by the type of resources used throughout it.

Answer 775

Resource Breakdown Structure (Rbs)

Question 775

This hierarchical chart can decompose the project by the type of resources used throughout it.

Answer 775

Resource Breakdown Structure (Rbs)

Question 776

A RAM chart shows the correlation between project team members and the work they’ve been assigned to complete.

Answer 776

Responsibility Assignment Matrix (Ram)

Question 776

A RAM chart shows the correlation between project team members and the work they’ve been assigned to complete.

Answer 776

Responsibility Assignment Matrix (Ram)

Question 777

A responsibility is the work that a role performs.

Answer 777

Responsibility

Question 777

A responsibility is the work that a role performs.

Answer 777

Responsibility

Question 778

This plan defines staff acquisition, the timetable for staff acquisition, the staff release plan, training needs for the project team, any organizational compliance issues, rewards and

Answer 778

Resource Management Plan

Question 778

This plan defines staff acquisition, the timetable for staff acquisition, the staff release plan, training needs for the project team, any organizational compliance issues, rewards and

Answer 778

Resource Management Plan

Question 779

The project manager has the authority to reward the project team.

Answer 779

Reward

Question 779

The project manager has the authority to reward the project team.

Answer 779

Reward

Question 780

This denotes what a person is specifically responsible for in a project. Roles are usually tied to job titles, such as network engineer, mechanical engineer, and electrician.

Answer 780

Role

Question 780

This denotes what a person is specifically responsible for in a project. Roles are usually tied to job titles, such as network engineer, mechanical engineer, and electrician.

Answer 780

Role

Question 781

This approach smooths out the conflict by minimizing the perceived size of the problem. It is a temporary solution, but can calm team relations and boisterous discussions.

Answer 781

Smoothing

Question 781

This approach smooths out the conflict by minimizing the perceived size of the problem. It is a temporary solution, but can calm team relations and boisterous discussions.

Answer 781

Smoothing

Question 782

The project team struggles for project positions, leadership, and project direction. The project team can become hostile toward the project leader, challenge ideas, and try to establish and claim positions about the project work. The amount of debate and fury can vary depending on if the project team is willing to work together, the nature of the project, and the control of the project manager.

Answer 782

Storming

Question 782

The project team struggles for project positions, leadership, and project direction. The project team can become hostile toward the project leader, challenge ideas, and try to establish and claim positions about the project work. The amount of debate and fury can vary depending on if the project team is willing to work together, the nature of the project, and the control of the project manager.

Answer 782

Storming

Question 783

The project team identifies the disciplines and specialties that the project will require to complete the project scope statement. The technical interfaces are the resources that will be doing the project work.

Answer 783

Technical Interfaces

Question 784

This conflict resolution method sees one side of the argument walking away from the problem, usually in disgust.

Answer 784

Withdrawal

Question 784

This conflict resolution method sees one side of the argument walking away from the problem, usually in disgust.

Answer 784

Withdrawal

Question 785

The receiver signals that the message has been received. An acknowledgment shows receipt of the message, but not necessarily agreement with the message.

Answer 785

Acknowledgment

Question 786

The receiver confirms that the message is being received through feedback, questions, prompts for clarity, and other signs of confirmation.

Answer 786

Active Listening

Question 786

The receiver confirms that the message is being received through feedback, questions, prompts for clarity, and other signs of confirmation.

Answer 786

Active Listening

Question 787

The best modality to use when communicating that is relevant to the information being communicated.

Answer 787

Choice Of Media

Question 787

The best modality to use when communicating that is relevant to the information being communicated.

Answer 787

Choice Of Media

Question 788

Anything that the project management team believes to be true but hasn’t proven to be true. For example, the project management team may assume that all of the project team can be reached via cell phone, but parts of the world, as of this writing, don’t have a cell signal.

Answer 788

Communication Assumptions

Question 788

Anything that the project management team believes to be true but hasn’t proven to be true. For example, the project management team may assume that all of the project team can be reached via cell phone, but parts of the world, as of this writing, don’t have a cell signal.

Answer 788

Communication Assumptions

Question 789

Anything that prohibits communication from occurring.

Answer 789

Communication Barrier

Question 789

Anything that prohibits communication from occurring.

Answer 789

Communication Barrier

Question 790

N(N – 1)/2, where N represents the number of identified stakeholders. This formula reveals the total number of communication channels within a project.

Answer 790

Communication Channels Formula

Question 790

N(N – 1)/2, where N represents the number of identified stakeholders. This formula reveals the total number of communication channels within a project.

Answer 790

Communication Channels Formula

Question 791

Anything that limits the project management team’s options. When it comes to communication constraints, geographical locales, incompatible communications software, and even limited communications technology can constrain the project team.

Answer 791

Communication Constraints

Question 791

Anything that limits the project management team’s options. When it comes to communication constraints, geographical locales, incompatible communications software, and even limited communications technology can constrain the project team.

Answer 791

Communication Constraints

Question 792

A project management subsidiary plan that defines the stakeholders who need specific information, the person who will supply the information, the schedule for the information to be supplied, and the approved modality to provide the information.

Answer 792

Communications Management Plan

Question 792

A project management subsidiary plan that defines the stakeholders who need specific information, the person who will supply the information, the schedule for the information to be supplied, and the approved modality to provide the information.

Answer 792

Communications Management Plan

Question 793

The device that decodes a message as it is being received.

Answer 793

Decoder

Question 793

The device that decodes a message as it is being received.

Answer 793

Decoder

Question 794

The receiver is involved in the listening experience by paying attention to visual cues from the speaker and paralingual characteristics, and by asking relevant questions.

Answer 794

Effective Listening

Question 794

The receiver is involved in the listening experience by paying attention to visual cues from the speaker and paralingual characteristics, and by asking relevant questions.

Answer 794

Effective Listening

Question 795

The device that encodes the message being sent.

Answer 795

Encoder

Question 795

The device that encodes the message being sent.

Answer 795

Encoder

Question 796

The sender confirms that the receiver understands the message by directly asking for a response, questions for clarification, or other confirmation.

Answer 796

Feedback

Question 796

The sender confirms that the receiver understands the message by directly asking for a response, questions for clarification, or other confirmation.

Answer 796

Feedback

Question 797

Stakeholders are mapped on a grid based on their influence over the project in relation to their influence over the project execution.

Answer 797

Influence/Impact Grid

Question 797

Stakeholders are mapped on a grid based on their influence over the project in relation to their influence over the project execution.

Answer 797

Influence/Impact Grid

Question 798

A software package that allows the project management team to present the project’s health through graphics, spreadsheets, and text. (Think of Microsoft Project.)

Answer 798

Information Presentation Tools

Question 798

A software package that allows the project management team to present the project’s health through graphics, spreadsheets, and text. (Think of Microsoft Project.)

Answer 798

Information Presentation Tools

Question 799

A system to quickly and effectively store, archive, and access project information.

Answer 799

Information Retrieval System

Question 799

A system to quickly and effectively store, archive, and access project information.

Answer 799

Information Retrieval System

Question 800

This is the most common and most effective approach to communication. It’s where two or more people exchange information. Consider status meetings, ad-hoc meetings, phone calls, and videoconferences.

Answer 800

Interactive Communication

Question 800

This is the most common and most effective approach to communication. It’s where two or more people exchange information. Consider status meetings, ad-hoc meetings, phone calls, and videoconferences.

Answer 800

Interactive Communication

Question 801

This is documentation of what did and did not work in the project implementation. Lessons learned documentation is created throughout the project by the entire project team. When lessons learned sessions are completed, they’re available to be used and applied by the entire organization. They are now part of the organizational process assets.

Answer 801

Lessons Learned

Question 801

This is documentation of what did and did not work in the project implementation. Lessons learned documentation is created throughout the project by the entire project team. When lessons learned sessions are completed, they’re available to be used and applied by the entire organization. They are now part of the organizational process assets.

Answer 801

Lessons Learned

Question 802

The device or technology that transports a message.

Answer 802

Medium

Question 802

The device or technology that transports a message.

Answer 802

Medium

Question 803

Anything that interferes with or disrupts a message.

Answer 803

Noise

Question 804

Facial expressions, hand gestures, and body language are nonverbal cues that contribute to a message. Approximately 55 percent of communication is nonverbal.

Answer 804

Nonverbal

Question 805

The pitch, tone, and inflections in the sender’s voice affecting the message being sent.

Answer 805

Paralingual

Question 805

The pitch, tone, and inflections in the sender’s voice affecting the message being sent.

Answer 805

Paralingual

Question 806

A report that depicts how well a project is performing. Often, the performance report is based on earned value management and may include cost or schedule variance reports.

Answer 806

Performance Report

Question 806

A report that depicts how well a project is performing. Often, the performance report is based on earned value management and may include cost or schedule variance reports.

Answer 806

Performance Report

Question 807

Presentations are useful in providing information to customers, management, the project team, and other stakeholders.

Answer 807

Project Presentations

Question 808

All the business of the project communications is also part of the organizational process assets. This includes e-mails, memos, letters, and faxes.

Answer 808

Project Records

Question 808

All the business of the project communications is also part of the organizational process assets. This includes e-mails, memos, letters, and faxes.

Answer 808

Project Records

Question 809

Reports are formal communications on project activities, their status, and conditions.

Answer 809

Project Reports

Question 810

This approach pulls the information from a central repository, like a database of information. Pull communications are good for large groups of stakeholders who want to access project information at their discretion. Consider a project web site where stakeholders can periodically drop by for a quick update on the project status.

Answer 810

Pull Communication

Question 810

This approach pulls the information from a central repository, like a database of information. Pull communications are good for large groups of stakeholders who want to access project information at their discretion. Consider a project web site where stakeholders can periodically drop by for a quick update on the project status.

Answer 810

Pull Communication

Question 811

This approach pushes the information from the sender to the receiver without any real acknowledgment that the information was really received or understood. Consider letters, faxes, voicemail messages, e-mails, and other communications modalities that the sender packages and sends to receivers through some intermediary network.

Answer 811

Push Communication

Question 811

This approach pushes the information from the sender to the receiver without any real acknowledgment that the information was really received or understood. Consider letters, faxes, voicemail messages, e-mails, and other communications modalities that the sender packages and sends to receivers through some intermediary network.

Answer 811

Push Communication

Question 812

The person who receives the message.

Answer 812

Receiver

Question 812

The person who receives the message.

Answer 812

Receiver

Question 813

The person who is sending the message.

Answer 813

Sender

Question 813

The person who is sending the message.

Answer 813

Sender

Question 814

Feedback loops and barriers to communications.

Answer 814

Sender–Receiver Models

Question 814

Feedback loops and barriers to communications.

Answer 814

Sender–Receiver Models

Question 815

Notices to the stakeholders about resolved issues, approved changes, and the overall health of the project.

Answer 815

Stakeholder Notifications

Question 815

Notices to the stakeholders about resolved issues, approved changes, and the overall health of the project.

Answer 815

Stakeholder Notifications

Question 816

A regularly scheduled meeting to discuss the status of the project and its progress toward completing the project scope statement.

Answer 816

Status Review Meeting

Question 816

A regularly scheduled meeting to discuss the status of the project and its progress toward completing the project scope statement.

Answer 816

Status Review Meeting

Question 817

A system to record the actual time to complete project activities.

Answer 817

Time Reporting System

Question 817

A system to record the actual time to complete project activities.

Answer 817

Time Reporting System

Question 818

A risk response appropriate for both positive and negative risks, but often used for smaller risks within a project.

Answer 818

Acceptance

Question 818

A risk response appropriate for both positive and negative risks, but often used for smaller risks within a project.

Answer 818

Acceptance

Question 819

Risks that have an uncertain, unclear nature, such as new laws or regulations, the marketplace conditions, and other risks that are nearly impossible to predict.

Answer 819

Ambiguity Risks

Question 819

Risks that have an uncertain, unclear nature, such as new laws or regulations, the marketplace conditions, and other risks that are nearly impossible to predict.

Answer 819

Ambiguity Risks

Question 820

A risk response to avoid the risk.

Answer 820

Avoidance

Question 820

A risk response to avoid the risk.

Answer 820

Avoidance

Question 821

The most common approach to risk identification; usually completed by a project team with subject matter experts to identify the risks within the project.

Answer 821

Brainstorming

Question 822

These risks may have negative or positive outcomes. Examples include using a less experienced worker to complete a task, allowing phases or activities to overlap, or forgoing the expense of formal training for on-the-job education.

Answer 822

Business Risks

Question 822

These risks may have negative or positive outcomes. Examples include using a less experienced worker to complete a task, allowing phases or activities to overlap, or forgoing the expense of formal training for on-the-job education.

Answer 822

Business Risks

Question 823

A ranking approach to identify the probability and impact by using a numerical value, from .01 (very low) to 1.0 (certain).

Answer 823

Cardinal Scales

Question 824

A quick and cost-effective risk identification approach.

Answer 824

Checklists

Question 824

A quick and cost-effective risk identification approach.

Answer 824

Checklists

Question 825

The consideration of the risk ranking scores that takes into account any bias, the accuracy of the data submitted, and the reliability of the nature of the data submitted.

Answer 825

Data Precision

Question 825

The consideration of the risk ranking scores that takes into account any bias, the accuracy of the data submitted, and the reliability of the nature of the data submitted.

Answer 825

Data Precision

Question 826

A method to determine which of two or more decisions is the best one. The model examines the costs and benefits of each decision’s outcome and weighs the probability of success for each of the decisions.

Answer 826

Decision Tree

Question 826

A method to determine which of two or more decisions is the best one. The model examines the costs and benefits of each decision’s outcome and weighs the probability of success for each of the decisions.

Answer 826

Decision Tree

Question 827

An anonymous method of querying experts about foreseeable risks within a project, phase, or component of a project. The results of the survey are analyzed by a third party, organized, and then circulated to the experts. There can be several rounds of anonymous discussion with the Delphi Technique, without fear of backlash or offending other participants in the process. The goal is to gain consensus on project risks within the project.

Answer 827

Delphi Technique

Question 827

An anonymous method of querying experts about foreseeable risks within a project, phase, or component of a project. The results of the survey are analyzed by a third party, organized, and then circulated to the experts. There can be several rounds of anonymous discussion with the Delphi Technique, without fear of backlash or offending other participants in the process. The goal is to gain consensus on project risks within the project.

Answer 827

Delphi Technique

Question 828

A risk response that attempts to enhance the conditions to ensure that a positive risk event will likely happen.

Answer 828

Enhancing

Question 828

A risk response that attempts to enhance the conditions to ensure that a positive risk event will likely happen.

Answer 828

Enhancing

Question 829

A risk response that is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events that may outside of the project manager’s authority to act upon.

Answer 829

Escalating

Question 829

A risk response that is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events that may outside of the project manager’s authority to act upon.

Answer 829

Escalating

Question 830

The monetary value of a risk exposure based on the risk’s probability and impact in the risk matrix. This approach is typically used in quantitative risk analysis because it quantifies the risk exposure.

Answer 830

Expected Monetary Value (Emv)

Question 830

The monetary value of a risk exposure based on the risk’s probability and impact in the risk matrix. This approach is typically used in quantitative risk analysis because it quantifies the risk exposure.

Answer 830

Expected Monetary Value (Emv)

Question 831

A risk response that takes advantage of the positive risks within a project.

Answer 831

Exploit

Question 831

A risk response that takes advantage of the positive risks within a project.

Answer 831

Exploit

Question 832

These risks are outside of the project, but directly affect it—for example, legal issues, labor issues, a shift in project priorities, or weather. “Force majeure” risks call for disaster recovery rather than project management. These are risks caused by earthquakes, tornadoes, floods, civil unrest, and other disasters.

Answer 832

External Risks

Question 832

These risks are outside of the project, but directly affect it—for example, legal issues, labor issues, a shift in project priorities, or weather. “Force majeure” risks call for disaster recovery rather than project management. These are risks caused by earthquakes, tornadoes, floods, civil unrest, and other disasters.

Answer 832

External Risks

Question 833

System or process flowcharts show the relationship between components and how the overall process works. These are useful for identifying risks between system components.

Answer 833

Flowcharts

Question 833

System or process flowcharts show the relationship between components and how the overall process works. These are useful for identifying risks between system components.

Answer 833

Flowcharts

Question 834

An influence diagram charts out a decision problem. It identifies all of the elements, variables, decisions, and objectives and also how each factor may influence another.

Answer 834

Influence Diagrams

Question 834

An influence diagram charts out a decision problem. It identifies all of the elements, variables, decisions, and objectives and also how each factor may influence another.

Answer 834

Influence Diagrams

Question 835

These cause-and-effect diagrams are also called fishbone diagrams and are used to find the root cause of factors that are causing risks within the project.

Answer 835

Ishikawa Diagrams

Question 835

These cause-and-effect diagrams are also called fishbone diagrams and are used to find the root cause of factors that are causing risks within the project.

Answer 835

Ishikawa Diagrams

Question 836

Low-priority risks are identified and assigned to a watch list for periodic monitoring.

Answer 836

Low-Priority Risk Watch List

Question 836

Low-priority risks are identified and assigned to a watch list for periodic monitoring.

Answer 836

Low-Priority Risk Watch List

Question 837

A risk response effort to reduce the probability and/or impact of an identified risk in the project.

Answer 837

Mitigation

Question 837

A risk response effort to reduce the probability and/or impact of an identified risk in the project.

Answer 837

Mitigation

Question 838

A simulation technique that got its name from the casinos of Monte Carlo, Monaco. The simulation is completed using a computer software program that can simulate a project, using values for all possible variables, to predict the most likely model.

Answer 838

Monte Carlo Technique

Question 838

A simulation technique that got its name from the casinos of Monte Carlo, Monaco. The simulation is completed using a computer software program that can simulate a project, using values for all possible variables, to predict the most likely model.

Answer 838

Monte Carlo Technique

Question 839

A ranking approach that identifies and ranks the risks from very high to very unlikely or to some other value.

Answer 839

Ordinal Scales

Question 839

A ranking approach that identifies and ranks the risks from very high to very unlikely or to some other value.

Answer 839

Ordinal Scales

Question 840

The performing organization can contribute to the project’s risks through unreasonable cost, time, and scope expectations; poor project prioritization; inadequate funding or the disruption of funding; and competition with other projects for internal resources.

Answer 840

Organizational Risks

Question 840

The performing organization can contribute to the project’s risks through unreasonable cost, time, and scope expectations; poor project prioritization; inadequate funding or the disruption of funding; and competition with other projects for internal resources.

Answer 840

Organizational Risks

Question 841

A prompt list used for risk identification. PESTLE examines risks in the Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, and Environmental domains.

Answer 841

Pestle

Question 841

A prompt list used for risk identification. PESTLE examines risks in the Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, and Environmental domains.

Answer 841

Pestle

Question 842

A matrix that ranks the probability of a risk event occurring and its impact on the project if the event does happen; used in qualitative and quantitative risk analyses.

Answer 842

Probability And Impact Matrix

Question 842

A matrix that ranks the probability of a risk event occurring and its impact on the project if the event does happen; used in qualitative and quantitative risk analyses.

Answer 842

Probability And Impact Matrix

Question 843

These risks deal with faults in the management of the project: the unsuccessful allocation of time, resources, and scheduling; unacceptable work results; and poor project management.

Answer 843

Project Management Risks

Question 843

These risks deal with faults in the management of the project: the unsuccessful allocation of time, resources, and scheduling; unacceptable work results; and poor project management.

Answer 843

Project Management Risks

Question 844

These risks have only a negative outcome. Examples include loss of life or limb, fire, theft, natural disasters, and the like.

Answer 844

Pure Risks

Question 844

These risks have only a negative outcome. Examples include loss of life or limb, fire, theft, natural disasters, and the like.

Answer 844

Pure Risks

Question 845

This approach “qualifies” the risks that have been identified in the project. Specifically, qualitative risk analysis examines and prioritizes risks based on their probability of occurring and their impact on the project should they occur.

Answer 845

Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 845

This approach “qualifies” the risks that have been identified in the project. Specifically, qualitative risk analysis examines and prioritizes risks based on their probability of occurring and their impact on the project should they occur.

Answer 845

Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 846

This approach attempts to numerically assess the probability and impact of the identified risks. It also creates an overall risk score for the project. This method is more in-depth than qualitative risk analysis and relies on several different tools to accomplish its goal.

Answer 846

Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 846

This approach attempts to numerically assess the probability and impact of the identified risks. It also creates an overall risk score for the project. This method is more in-depth than qualitative risk analysis and relies on several different tools to accomplish its goal.

Answer 846

Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 847

An ordinal scale that uses red, amber, and green (RAG) to capture the probability, impact, and risk score.

Answer 847

Rag Rating

Question 847

An ordinal scale that uses red, amber, and green (RAG) to capture the probability, impact, and risk score.

Answer 847

Rag Rating

Question 848

Risks that are expected to remain after a risk response.

Answer 848

Residual Risks

Question 848

Risks that are expected to remain after a risk response.

Answer 848

Residual Risks

Question 849

A project risk is an uncertain event or condition that can have a positive or negative impact on the project.

Answer 849

Risk

Question 850

The systematic process of combing through the project, the project plan, the work breakdown structure, and all supporting documentation to identify as many risks that may affect the project as possible.

Answer 850

Risk Identification

Question 850

The systematic process of combing through the project, the project plan, the work breakdown structure, and all supporting documentation to identify as many risks that may affect the project as possible.

Answer 850

Risk Identification

Question 851

A project management subsidiary plan that defines how risks will be identified, analyzed, responded to, and monitored within the project. The plan also defines the iterative risk management process that the project is expected to adhere to.

Answer 851

Risk Management Plan

Question 852

The agreed-upon approach to the management of the project risk processes.

Answer 852

Risk Management Planning

Question 852

The agreed-upon approach to the management of the project risk processes.

Answer 852

Risk Management Planning

Question 853

The individuals or entities that are responsible for monitoring and responding to an identified risk within the project.

Answer 853

Risk Owners

Question 853

The individuals or entities that are responsible for monitoring and responding to an identified risk within the project.

Answer 853

Risk Owners

Question 854

The risk register is a project plan component that contains all of the information related to the risk management activities. It’s updated as risk management activities are conducted to reflect the status, progress, and nature of the project risks.

Answer 854

Risk Register

Question 854

The risk register is a project plan component that contains all of the information related to the risk management activities. It’s updated as risk management activities are conducted to reflect the status, progress, and nature of the project risks.

Answer 854

Risk Register

Question 855

The risk report explains the overall project risks and provides summaries about the individual project risks.

Answer 855

Risk Report

Question 855

The risk report explains the overall project risks and provides summaries about the individual project risks.

Answer 855

Risk Report

Question 856

An audit to test the validity of the established risk responses.

Answer 856

Risk Response Audit

Question 856

An audit to test the validity of the established risk responses.

Answer 856

Risk Response Audit

Question 857

The level of ownership an individual or entity has over a project risk.

Answer 857

Risk Responsibilities

Question 857

The level of ownership an individual or entity has over a project risk.

Answer 857

Risk Responsibilities

Question 858

The calculated score based on each risk’s probability and impact. The approach can be used in both qualitative and quantitative risk analysis.

Answer 858

Risk Score

Question 858

The calculated score based on each risk’s probability and impact. The approach can be used in both qualitative and quantitative risk analysis.

Answer 858

Risk Score

Question 859

Root cause identification aims to find out why a risk event may be occurring, the causal factors for the risk events, and then, eventually, how the events can be mitigated or eliminated.

Answer 859

Root Cause Identification

Question 859

Root cause identification aims to find out why a risk event may be occurring, the causal factors for the risk events, and then, eventually, how the events can be mitigated or eliminated.

Answer 859

Root Cause Identification

Question 860

New risks that are created as a result of a risk response.

Answer 860

Secondary Risks

Question 860

New risks that are created as a result of a risk response.

Answer 860

Secondary Risks

Question 861

A quantitative risk analysis tool that examines each risk to determine which one has the largest impact on the project’s success.

Answer 861

Sensitivity Analysis

Question 861

A quantitative risk analysis tool that examines each risk to determine which one has the largest impact on the project’s success.

Answer 861

Sensitivity Analysis

Question 862

A risk response that shares the advantages of a positive risk within a project.

Answer 862

Sharing

Question 862

A risk response that shares the advantages of a positive risk within a project.

Answer 862

Sharing

Question 863

SWOT analysis is the process of examining the project from the perspective of each characteristic: strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

Answer 863

Swot Analysis

Question 863

SWOT analysis is the process of examining the project from the perspective of each characteristic: strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

Answer 863

Swot Analysis

Question 864

A prompt list used in risk identification to examine the Technical, Environmental, Commercial, Operational, and Political factors of the project.

Answer 864

Tecop

Question 864

A prompt list used in risk identification to examine the Technical, Environmental, Commercial, Operational, and Political factors of the project.

Answer 864

Tecop

Question 865

Technical risks are associated with new, unproven, or complex technologies being used on the project. Changes to the technology during the project implementation can also be a risk. Quality risks are the levels set for expectations of impractical quality and performance.

Answer 865

Technical, Quality, Or Performance Risks

Question 865

Technical risks are associated with new, unproven, or complex technologies being used on the project. Changes to the technology during the project implementation can also be a risk. Quality risks are the levels set for expectations of impractical quality and performance.

Answer 865

Technical, Quality, Or Performance Risks

Question 866

A risk response that transfers the ownership of the risk to another party. Insurance, licensed contractors, or other project teams are good examples of transference. A fee and contractual relationships are typically involved with the transference of a risk.

Answer 866

Transference

Question 866

A risk response that transfers the ownership of the risk to another party. Insurance, licensed contractors, or other project teams are good examples of transference. A fee and contractual relationships are typically involved with the transference of a risk.

Answer 866

Transference

Question 867

A type of risk based on the variations that may occur in the project, such as production, number of quality errors, or even the weather.

Answer 867

Variability Risks

Question 867

A type of risk based on the variations that may occur in the project, such as production, number of quality errors, or even the weather.

Answer 867

Variability Risks

Question 868

A prompt list used in risk identification that examines the Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity, and Ambiguity of risk factors within the project.

Answer 868

Vuca

Question 868

A prompt list used in risk identification that examines the Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity, and Ambiguity of risk factors within the project.

Answer 868

Vuca

Question 869

When there is an issue or claim that must be settled before the contract can be closed, the parties involved in the issue or claim will try to reach a settlement through mediation or arbitration.

Answer 869

Alternative Dispute Resolution

Question 870

From seller to buyer. Price is the determining factor in the decision-making process.

Answer 870

Bid

Question 870

From seller to buyer. Price is the determining factor in the decision-making process.

Answer 870

Bid

Question 871

A meeting of all the project’s potential vendors to clarify the contract statement of work and the details of the contracted work.

Answer 871

Bidder Conference

Question 871

A meeting of all the project’s potential vendors to clarify the contract statement of work and the details of the contracted work.

Answer 871

Bidder Conference

Question 872

These are disagreements between the buyer and the seller, usually centering on a change, who did the change, and even whether a change has occurred. Claims are also called disputes and appeals, and are monitored and controlled through the project in accordance with the contract terms.

Answer 872

Claims

Question 872

These are disagreements between the buyer and the seller, usually centering on a change, who did the change, and even whether a change has occurred. Claims are also called disputes and appeals, and are monitored and controlled through the project in accordance with the contract terms.

Answer 872

Claims

Question 873

A contract is a formal agreement between the buyer and the seller. Contracts can be oral or written—though written is preferred.

Answer 873

Contract

Question 874

This defines the procedures for how the contract may be changed. The process for changing the contract includes the forms; documented communications; tracking; conditions within the project, business, or marketplace that justify the needed change; dispute resolution procedures; and the procedures for getting the changes approved within the performing organization.

Answer 874

Contract Change Control System

Question 874

This defines the procedures for how the contract may be changed. The process for changing the contract includes the forms; documented communications; tracking; conditions within the project, business, or marketplace that justify the needed change; dispute resolution procedures; and the procedures for getting the changes approved within the performing organization.

Answer 874

Contract Change Control System

Question 875

This document requires that the seller fully describe the work to be completed and/or the product to be supplied. The SOW becomes part of the contract between the buyer and the seller.

Answer 875

Contract Statement Of Work (Sow Also Csow)

Question 875

This document requires that the seller fully describe the work to be completed and/or the product to be supplied. The SOW becomes part of the contract between the buyer and the seller.

Answer 875

Contract Statement Of Work (Sow Also Csow)

Question 876

A contract that pays the vendor all costs for the project, but also includes a buyer- determined award fee for the project work.

Answer 876

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract

Question 876

A contract that pays the vendor all costs for the project, but also includes a buyer- determined award fee for the project work.

Answer 876

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract

Question 877

A contract that requires the buyer to pay for the cost of the goods and services procured plus a fixed fee for the contracted work. The buyer assumes the risk of a cost overrun.

Answer 877

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract

Question 877

A contract that requires the buyer to pay for the cost of the goods and services procured plus a fixed fee for the contracted work. The buyer assumes the risk of a cost overrun.

Answer 877

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract

Question 878

A contract type that requires the buyer to pay a cost for the procured work, plus an incentive fee, or a bonus, for the work if terms and conditions are met.

Answer 878

Cost Plus Incentive Fee

Question 878

A contract type that requires the buyer to pay a cost for the procured work, plus an incentive fee, or a bonus, for the work if terms and conditions are met.

Answer 878

Cost Plus Incentive Fee

Question 879

A contract that requires the buyer to pay for the costs of the goods and services procured plus a percentage of the costs. The buyer assumes all of the risks for cost overruns.

Answer 879

Cost Plus Percentage Of Costs

Question 879

A contract that requires the buyer to pay for the costs of the goods and services procured plus a percentage of the costs. The buyer assumes all of the risks for cost overruns.

Answer 879

Cost Plus Percentage Of Costs

Question 880

These are costs incurred by the project in order for the project to exist. Examples include the equipment needed to complete the project work, salaries of the project team, and other expenses tied directly to the project’s existence.

Answer 880

Direct Costs

Question 880

These are costs incurred by the project in order for the project to exist. Examples include the equipment needed to complete the project work, salaries of the project team, and other expenses tied directly to the project’s existence.

Answer 880

Direct Costs

Question 881

Also known as firm fixed-price and lump- sum contracts, these are agreements that define a total price for the product the seller is to provide.

Answer 881

Fixed-Price Contracts

Question 881

Also known as firm fixed-price and lump- sum contracts, these are agreements that define a total price for the product the seller is to provide.

Answer 881

Fixed-Price Contracts

Question 882

A fixed-price contract with opportunities for bonuses for meeting goals on costs, schedule, and other objectives. These contracts usually have a price ceiling for costs and associated bonuses.

Answer 882

Fixed-Price Incentive Fee

Question 882

A fixed-price contract with opportunities for bonuses for meeting goals on costs, schedule, and other objectives. These contracts usually have a price ceiling for costs and associated bonuses.

Answer 882

Fixed-Price Incentive Fee

Question 883

A fixed-price contract with a special allowance for price increases based on economic reasons such as inflation or the cost of raw materials.

Answer 883

Fixed-Price With Economic Price Adjustments

Question 883

A fixed-price contract with a special allowance for price increases based on economic reasons such as inflation or the cost of raw materials.

Answer 883

Fixed-Price With Economic Price Adjustments

Question 884

An “act of God” that may have a negative impact on the project. Examples include fire, hurricanes, tornadoes, and earthquakes.

Answer 884

Force Majeure

Question 884

An “act of God” that may have a negative impact on the project. Examples include fire, hurricanes, tornadoes, and earthquakes.

Answer 884

Force Majeure

Question 885

These estimates are often referred to as “should cost” estimates. They are created by the performing organization or outside experts to predict what the cost of the procured product should be.

Answer 885

Independent Estimates

Question 885

These estimates are often referred to as “should cost” estimates. They are created by the performing organization or outside experts to predict what the cost of the procured product should be.

Answer 885

Independent Estimates

Question 886

These are costs attributed to the cost of doing business. Examples include utilities, office space, and other overhead costs.

Answer 886

Indirect Costs

Question 886

These are costs attributed to the cost of doing business. Examples include utilities, office space, and other overhead costs.

Answer 886

Indirect Costs

Question 887

From buyer to seller. Requests the seller to provide a price for the procured product or service.

Answer 887

Invitation For Bid (Ifb)

Question 887

From buyer to seller. Requests the seller to provide a price for the procured product or service.

Answer 887

Invitation For Bid (Ifb)

Question 888

A letter contract allows the vendor to begin working on the project immediately. It is often used as a stopgap solution.

Answer 888

Letter Contract

Question 888

A letter contract allows the vendor to begin working on the project immediately. It is often used as a stopgap solution.

Answer 888

Letter Contract

Question 889

A letter of intent is not a contract, but a letter stating that the buyer is intending to create a contractual relationship with the seller.

Answer 889

Letter Of Intent

Question 889

A letter of intent is not a contract, but a letter stating that the buyer is intending to create a contractual relationship with the seller.

Answer 889

Letter Of Intent

Question 890

A process in which the project management team determines the cost- effectiveness, benefits, and feasibility of making a product or buying it from a vendor.

Answer 890

Make-Or-Buy Decision

Question 890

A process in which the project management team determines the cost- effectiveness, benefits, and feasibility of making a product or buying it from a vendor.

Answer 890

Make-Or-Buy Decision

Question 891

The contractual relationship between the buyer and the seller is often considered confidential and secret.

Answer 891

Privity

Question 891

The contractual relationship between the buyer and the seller is often considered confidential and secret.

Answer 891

Privity

Question 892

A project management subsidiary plan that documents the decisions made in the procurement planning processes.

Answer 892

Procurement Management Plan

Question 892

A project management subsidiary plan that documents the decisions made in the procurement planning processes.

Answer 892

Procurement Management Plan

Question 893

A process to identify which parts of the project warrant procurement from a vendor by the buyer.

Answer 893

Procurement Planning

Question 893

A process to identify which parts of the project warrant procurement from a vendor by the buyer.

Answer 893

Procurement Planning

Question 894

A document the seller provides to the buyer. The proposal includes more than just a fee for the proposed work. It also includes information on the vendor’s skills, the vendor’s reputation, and ideas on how the vendor can complete the contracted work for the buyer.

Answer 894

Proposal

Question 894

A document the seller provides to the buyer. The proposal includes more than just a fee for the proposed work. It also includes information on the vendor’s skills, the vendor’s reputation, and ideas on how the vendor can complete the contracted work for the buyer.

Answer 894

Proposal

Question 895

A purchase order is a form of unilateral contract that the buyer provides to the vendor showing that the purchase has been approved by the buyer’s organization.

Answer 895

Purchase Order (Po)

Question 895

A purchase order is a form of unilateral contract that the buyer provides to the vendor showing that the purchase has been approved by the buyer’s organization.

Answer 895

Purchase Order (Po)

Question 896

From seller to buyer. Price is the determining factor in the decision-making process.

Answer 896

Quotation

Question 896

From seller to buyer. Price is the determining factor in the decision-making process.

Answer 896

Quotation

Question 897

From buyer to seller. Requests the seller to provide a proposal to complete the procured work or to provide the procured product.

Answer 897

Request For Proposal (Rfp)

Question 897

From buyer to seller. Requests the seller to provide a proposal to complete the procured work or to provide the procured product.

Answer 897

Request For Proposal (Rfp)

Question 898

From buyer to seller. Requests the seller to provide a price for the procured product or service.

Answer 898

Request For Quote (Rfq)

Question 898

From buyer to seller. Requests the seller to provide a price for the procured product or service.

Answer 898

Request For Quote (Rfq)

Question 899

When the project management team decides to use transference to respond to a risk, a risk-related contractual agreement is created between the buyer and the seller.

Answer 899

Risk-Related Contractual Agreements

Question 899

When the project management team decides to use transference to respond to a risk, a risk-related contractual agreement is created between the buyer and the seller.

Answer 899

Risk-Related Contractual Agreements

Question 900

A tool that filters or screens out vendors that don’t qualify for the contract.

Answer 900

Screening System

Question 900

A tool that filters or screens out vendors that don’t qualify for the contract.

Answer 900

Screening System

Question 901

These are used by organizations to rate prior experience with each vendor that they have worked with in the past. The seller rating system can track performance, quality ratings, delivery, and even contract compliance.

Answer 901

Seller Rating Systems

Question 901

These are used by organizations to rate prior experience with each vendor that they have worked with in the past. The seller rating system can track performance, quality ratings, delivery, and even contract compliance.

Answer 901

Seller Rating Systems

Question 902

Defines the obligations for the seller, what the seller will provide, and all of the particulars of the contracted work. Terms of reference is similar to the statement of work.

Answer 902

Terms Of Reference

Question 902

Defines the obligations for the seller, what the seller will provide, and all of the particulars of the contracted work. Terms of reference is similar to the statement of work.

Answer 902

Terms Of Reference

Question 903

A contract type in which the buyer pays for the time and materials for the procured work. This is a simple contract, usually for smaller procurement conditions. These contract types require a not-to-exceed clause, or the buyer assumes the risk for cost overruns.

Answer 903

Time And Materials Contract

Question 903

A contract type in which the buyer pays for the time and materials for the procured work. This is a simple contract, usually for smaller procurement conditions. These contract types require a not-to-exceed clause, or the buyer assumes the risk for cost overruns.

Answer 903

Time And Materials Contract

Question 904

This takes out the personal preferences of the decision maker in the organization to ensure that the best seller is awarded the contract. Weights are assigned to the values of the proposals, and each proposal is scored.

Answer 904

Weighting System

Question 904

This takes out the personal preferences of the decision maker in the organization to ensure that the best seller is awarded the contract. Weights are assigned to the values of the proposals, and each proposal is scored.

Answer 904

Weighting System

Question 905

This type of communication means that information is happening among stakeholders, like in a forum. Examples of interactive communications are meetings, videoconferences, phone calls, and ad-hoc conversations. Interactive communications means that the participants are actively communicating with one another.

Answer 905

Interactive Communications

Question 905

This type of communication means that information is happening among stakeholders, like in a forum. Examples of interactive communications are meetings, videoconferences, phone calls, and ad-hoc conversations. Interactive communications means that the participants are actively communicating with one another.

Answer 905

Interactive Communications

Question 906

A data gathering technique that’s similar to brainstorming, but provides brainstorming meeting participants with the questions and topics for brainstorming before the stakeholder identification meeting.

Answer 906

Brain Writing

Question 906

A data gathering technique that’s similar to brainstorming, but provides brainstorming meeting participants with the questions and topics for brainstorming before the stakeholder identification meeting.

Answer 906

Brain Writing

Question 907

Stakeholders—such as management, the project manager, program manager, or customers—that have the authority to make decisions in the project.

Answer 907

Key Stakeholder

Question 907

Stakeholders—such as management, the project manager, program manager, or customers—that have the authority to make decisions in the project.

Answer 907

Key Stakeholder

Question 908

Part of stakeholder analysis classification. A leading stakeholder is aware of your project, they want your project to be successful, and the stakeholder is working to make certain the project is a success.

Answer 908

Leading Stakeholder Status

Question 908

Part of stakeholder analysis classification. A leading stakeholder is aware of your project, they want your project to be successful, and the stakeholder is working to make certain the project is a success.

Answer 908

Leading Stakeholder Status

Question 909

A stakeholder who does not want the project to exist and is opposed to the project.

Answer 909

Negative Stakeholder

Question 909

A stakeholder who does not want the project to exist and is opposed to the project.

Answer 909

Negative Stakeholder

Question 910

A stakeholder who has neither a positive nor negative attitude about the project’s existence.

Answer 910

Neutral Stakeholder

Question 910

A stakeholder who has neither a positive nor negative attitude about the project’s existence.

Answer 910

Neutral Stakeholder

Question 911

Part of stakeholder analysis classification. A neutral stakeholder is aware of your project and is not concerned if the project succeeds or fails.

Answer 911

Neutral Stakeholder Status

Question 911

Part of stakeholder analysis classification. A neutral stakeholder is aware of your project and is not concerned if the project succeeds or fails.

Answer 911

Neutral Stakeholder Status

Question 912

A stakeholder who sees the benefits of the project and is in favor of the change the project is to bring about.

Answer 912

Positive Stakeholder

Question 912

A stakeholder who sees the benefits of the project and is in favor of the change the project is to bring about.

Answer 912

Positive Stakeholder

Question 913

This is an analysis meeting to examine and document the roles in the project. The role’s interests, concerns, influence, project knowledge, and attitude are documented.

Answer 913

Profile Analysis Meeting

Question 913

This is an analysis meeting to examine and document the roles in the project. The role’s interests, concerns, influence, project knowledge, and attitude are documented.

Answer 913

Profile Analysis Meeting

Question 914

This type of communication pulls information from a central repository. Pull communications allow stakeholders to retrieve information from a central source as needed.

Answer 914

Pull Communications

Question 914

This type of communication pulls information from a central repository. Pull communications allow stakeholders to retrieve information from a central source as needed.

Answer 914

Pull Communications

Question 915

This type of communication happens when the sender pushes the same message to multiple people. Good examples of push communications are broadcast text messages, faxes, press releases, and group e-mails.

Answer 915

Push Communications

Question 915

This type of communication happens when the sender pushes the same message to multiple people. Good examples of push communications are broadcast text messages, faxes, press releases, and group e-mails.

Answer 915

Push Communications

Question 916

A reporting system is a software program to store and analyze project data for reporting. A common reporting system will take project data, allow the project manager to pass the data through earned value management, for example, and then create forecasting reports about the project costs and schedule.

Answer 916

Reporting System

Question 916

A reporting system is a software program to store and analyze project data for reporting. A common reporting system will take project data, allow the project manager to pass the data through earned value management, for example, and then create forecasting reports about the project costs and schedule.

Answer 916

Reporting System

Question 917

Part of stakeholder analysis classification. A resistant stakeholder is aware of your project, but they do not support the changes your project will create.

Answer 917

Resistant Stakeholder Status

Question 917

Part of stakeholder analysis classification. A resistant stakeholder is aware of your project, but they do not support the changes your project will create.

Answer 917

Resistant Stakeholder Status

Question 918

Anyone who is affected by the existence of the project or who can affect the project’s existence. Stakeholders can enter and exit the project as conditions change within the project.

Answer 918

Stakeholder

Question 919

An activity that ranks stakeholders based on their influence, interests, and expectations of the project. Stakeholders are identified and ranked, and then their needs and expectations are documented and addressed.

Answer 919

Stakeholder Analysis

Question 919

An activity that ranks stakeholders based on their influence, interests, and expectations of the project. Stakeholders are identified and ranked, and then their needs and expectations are documented and addressed.

Answer 919

Stakeholder Analysis

Question 920

These are charts and diagrams that help the project manager determine the influence of stakeholders in relation to their interest in the project. Common classification models include the power/interest grid, the power/influence grid, the influence/impact grid, and the salience model.

Answer 920

Stakeholder Classification Models

Question 920

These are charts and diagrams that help the project manager determine the influence of stakeholders in relation to their interest in the project. Common classification models include the power/interest grid, the power/influence grid, the influence/impact grid, and the salience model.

Answer 920

Stakeholder Classification Models

Question 921

The project manager works to keep the project stakeholders interested, involved, and supportive of the project. Through communication, management skills, and interpersonal skills, the project manager can work to keep the project stakeholders engaged and interested in the project.

Answer 921

Stakeholder Engagement

Question 922

A project initiation activity to identify, document, and classify the project stakeholders as early as possible in the project.

Answer 922

Stakeholder Identification

Question 922

A project initiation activity to identify, document, and classify the project stakeholders as early as possible in the project.

Answer 922

Stakeholder Identification

Question 923

The project management knowledge area that focuses on the management and engagement of the project stakeholders. There are four processes in this knowledge area: identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder management, manage stakeholder engagement, and Monitor Stakeholder Engagement.

Answer 923

Stakeholder Management

Question 923

The project management knowledge area that focuses on the management and engagement of the project stakeholders. There are four processes in this knowledge area: identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder management, manage stakeholder engagement, and Monitor Stakeholder Engagement.

Answer 923

Stakeholder Management

Question 924

The stakeholder engagement plan documents a strategy for managing the engagement of project stakeholders. The stakeholder engagement plan establishes stakeholder engagement and defines how the project manager can increase and improve stakeholder engagement.

Answer 924

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

Question 924

The stakeholder engagement plan documents a strategy for managing the engagement of project stakeholders. The stakeholder engagement plan establishes stakeholder engagement and defines how the project manager can increase and improve stakeholder engagement.

Answer 924

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

Question 925

The project manager works with the project team and subject matter experts to create a strategy to manage the project stakeholders.

Answer 925

Stakeholder Engagement Planning

Question 925

The project manager works with the project team and subject matter experts to create a strategy to manage the project stakeholders.

Answer 925

Stakeholder Engagement Planning

Question 926

A documentation of each stakeholder’s contact information, position, concerns, interests, and attitude toward the project. The project manager updates the register as new stakeholders are identified and when stakeholders leave the project.

Answer 926

Stakeholder Register

Question 926

A documentation of each stakeholder’s contact information, position, concerns, interests, and attitude toward the project. The project manager updates the register as new stakeholders are identified and when stakeholders leave the project.

Answer 926

Stakeholder Register

Question 927

This is part of stakeholder analysis classification. A supportive stakeholder is aware of your project and is supportive and hopeful that the project will be successful.

Answer 927

Supportive Stakeholder Status

Question 927

This is part of stakeholder analysis classification. A supportive stakeholder is aware of your project and is supportive and hopeful that the project will be successful.

Answer 927

Supportive Stakeholder Status

Question 928

Part of stakeholder analysis classification. An unaware status means the stakeholder doesn’t know about the project and the effect the project may create on the stakeholder.

Answer 928

Unaware Stakeholder Status

Question 928

Part of stakeholder analysis classification. An unaware status means the stakeholder doesn’t know about the project and the effect the project may create on the stakeholder.

Answer 928

Unaware Stakeholder Status