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All Exams Flashcards

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1
Q

All of the following are different between archaea, bacteria, and eukaryotes, EXCEPT…

a. the number of introns in each genome
b. the appearance of membrane-bound organelles.
c. the structure of each chromosome.
d. DNA -> RNA ->protein
e. the presence of true tissues

A

d. DNA -> RNA ->protein

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2
Q

The traditional three- or five-kingdom phylogenetic classifications of life has been modified with a three-domain system because there are…

a. 3 fundamental mechanisms of cellular organization
b. 3 different cell division processes
c. 3 fundamental cell layers
d. 3 fundamental mechanisms of metabolism: fermentation, glycolysis, and photosynthesis

A

a. 3 fundamental mechanisms of cellular organization

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3
Q

The first forms of life on Earth were thought to be…

a. single celled plants
b. prokaryotes
c. insects
d. large animals such as dinosaurs

A

b. prokaryotes

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4
Q

What do chloroplasts and mitochondria share with prokaryotes?

a. similar membrane composition and structure
b. division by binary fission
c. circular chromosome
d. ribosome composition and structure
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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5
Q

Why are many eukaryotes that exist in groups that look like multicellular individuals not considered truly multicellular organisms?

a. each cell in the collection is likely derived from a different parent
b. multicellular organisms show a level of communication, coordination, and cell specialization not seen in colonies of single cells
c. the DNA composition in each cell is likely different
d. in general, each cell in the collection can perform all the functions of all the other cells at any time
e. all of the above are possible explanations

A

e. all of the above are possible explanations

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6
Q

What event is thought to have contributed to the evolution of eukaryotes?

a. global warming
b. glaciation
c. volcanic activity
d. oxygenation of the atmosphere

A

d. oxygenation of the atmosphere

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7
Q

Bryophytes are all small organisms. In order for taller plants to develop, which of the following would be required?

a. an embryo that is protected by a seed coat
b. plants with both male and female parts
c. ability to distribute nutrients efficiently
d. a dependent sporophyte generation
e. an independent gametophyte generation

A

c. ability to distribute nutrients efficiently

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8
Q

Alternation of generations means that plants produce…

a. only haploid multicellular individuals
b. only diploid multicellular individuals
c. only diploid multicellular organisms with single celled haploid gametes
d. both haploid and diploid multicellular individuals

A

d. both haploid and diploid multicellular individuals

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT a trait shared by charophytes and land plants?

a. the presence of embryos
b. a membrane complex specific for producing extracellular cellulose
c. peroxisome enzymes for correcting rubisco-oxygen mistakes
d. chlorophyll a and b
e. sporopollenin

A

a. the presence of embryos

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10
Q

is the nuclear genome in the sporophyte the same as in the gametophyte?

a. only sometimes
b. yes
c. half of it is the same

A

c. half of it is the same

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11
Q

Which of the following traits of land plants allows them to grow in height?

a. alternation of generation
b. waxy cuticle
c. tracheids
d. sporopollenin

A

c. tracheids

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12
Q

Which of the following characteristics is shared by both gymnosperms and angiosperms?

a. chlorophyll a and b
b. cellulose in cell walls
c. vascular tissue
d. a very small and dependent gametophyte
e. all of the above are shared

A

e. all of the above are shared

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13
Q

If all the known animals and fungi are included in the branches of the tree shown then…

a. they would be called eukaryotes
b. they would be called the outgroup
c. they would share derived traits
d. fungi and animals would not be related by a common ancestor
e. all of the above are correct

A

c. they would share derived traits

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14
Q

Which polysaccharide is usually found in the cell wall of fungi?

a. starch
b. glycogen
c. chitin
d. cellulose

A

c. chitin

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15
Q

Which of the following is not found in any species in the animal and fungal kingdoms?

a. chitin
b. sexual reproduction
c. presence of tissues
d. chloroplasts
e. flagella

A

d. chloroplasts

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16
Q

The most ancient branch point in animal phylogeny is between having…

a. true tissues or no tissues
b. a well defined head or no head
c. radial or bilateral symmetry
d. diploblastic or triploblastic embryos
e. a body cavity or no cavity

A

a. true tissues or no tissues

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17
Q

Which statement is most consistent with the hypothesis that the Cambrian explosion was caused by the rise of predator-prey relationships?

a. a worm burrows in the fossil record
b. larger animals in the fossil record
c. hard parts in the fossil record
d. organic material in the fossil record
e. fern galls in the fossil record

A

c. hard parts in the fossil record

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18
Q

Which of the following phenotypes would most likely be the result pf a Hot gene mutation?

a. abnormal body length or height
b. two different eye colors
c. the contraction of a genetic illness
d. two fewer/many appendages than normal

A

d. two fewer/many appendages than normal

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19
Q

You observe some pond organisms, which you determine are arthropod larvae, rather than adults. You would expect them to have all of the following structures except…

a. antennae
b. sex organs
c. complex eyes
d. an exoskeleton of chitin

A

b. sex organs

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20
Q

Crustaceans are…

a. ecdysozoans
b. nematodes
c. acoelomates
d. parazoans

A

a. ecdysozoans

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21
Q

A student encounters an animal embryo at the eight cell stage. The four smaller cells that comprise one hemisphere of the embryo seem to be rotated 45 degrees and lie in the grooves between larger, underlying cells (spiral cleavage). The embryo may potentially develop into a/n…

a. sea sponge
b. hagfish
c. seas star
d. ostrich
e. flatworm

A

e. flatworm

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22
Q

Cephalization is primarily associated with…

a. adaption to dark environments
b. a method of reproduction
c. a fate of the blastopore
d. types of the digestive system
e. bilateral symmetry

A

e. bilateral symmetry

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23
Q

Which of these characteristics possibly added the most to vertebrate success in relatively dry environments?

a. The amniotic egg
b. the ability to maintain a constant body temperature
c. four legs
d. claws
e. a four chambered heart

A

a. The amniotic egg

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24
Q

Members of Chondrichthyes differ from members of Osteichthyes by having a…

a. jaw
b. bony skeleton
c. cartilaginous skeleton
d. two sets of paired fins

A

c. cartilaginous skeleton

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25
Q

What is the source of most of the mass of a plant?

a. CO2
b. H2O
c. nutrients from the soil
d. nitrogen

A

a. CO2

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26
Q

The image below represents the. appearance of genetically identical plants at different ages grown in low or high density situations. What can you determine from the plants in this image?

a. these plant forms are so different they cannot be genetic clones
b. the plants have changed their forms based off the season
c. they might respond differently to different environmental cues and might end up looking different
d. the number of branches displayed is directly related to the age of the plant
e. none of the above

A

c. they might respond differently to different environmental cues and might end up looking different

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27
Q

Roots that enable a plant to grow in water logged areas are called…

a. pneumatophores
b. prop roots
c. fibrous roots
d. strangler roots

A

a. pneumatophores

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28
Q

Which of the following is not a plant organ?

a. roots
b. stems
c. leaves
d. lungs

A

d. lungs

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29
Q

Which of the following is not a plant tissue?

a. vascular
b. ground
c. nervous
d. dermal

A

c. nervous

30
Q

Which of the following is the major site of photosynthesis?

a. apical meristem
b. ground tissue
c. xylem cells
d. phloem cells

A

b. ground tissue

31
Q

Which of the following is INCORRECTLY paired?

a. collenchyma - supporting cells for growing parts of a plant
b. trichomes - extensions of above ground dermal cells
c. parenchyma - storage cells also found in roots
d. root hair - extensions of dermal cells to increase surface area
e. all of the above are in fact correctly paired so I chose this answer

A

e. all of the above are in fact correctly paired so I chose this answer

32
Q

What structure branches off from the protoderm and meristem?

a. trichomes
b. leaves
c. dermal cells
d. roots
e. phloem

A

c. dermal cells

33
Q

New root cells in the “zone of cell division” are being produced by…

a. meiosis
b. mitosis
c. sporulation
d. fertilization
e. differentiation

A

b. mitosis

34
Q

which of the following is an example of secondary growth?

a. increase in length of the stem
b. increase in thickness of the stem
c. increase in the number of root hairs
d. increase in leaf number along a stem

A

b. increase in thickness of the stem

35
Q

The observation that both plants and animals can have 1) hard tissues for structural support, 2) branching vasculature that transports nutrients, and 3) highly branched tissues that absorb oxygen and other nutrients (eg roots and lungs) provides evidence for…

a. a closer relationship between plants and fungi
b. a closer relationship between animals and fungi
c. solutions to challenges created by a recent common ancestor
d. similar solutions for a set of common challenges for obtaining a large body size

A

d. similar solutions for a set of common challenges for obtaining a large body size

36
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of connective tissue?

a. it forms the internal and external lining of many organs
b. it connects and supports other tissues
c. It consists of a few cells surrounded by fiber in a matrix
d. erythrocytes and leukocytes would signify a type of connective tissue

A

a. it forms the internal and external lining of many organs

37
Q

Which of the following is the best description of smooth muscle?

a. striated, branching cells; involuntary control
b. spindle-shaped cells; involuntary control
c. spindle shaped cells connected by intercalated discs
d. striated cells containing overlapping filaments; involuntary control
e. spindle shaped striated cells; voluntary control

A

b. spindle-shaped cells; involuntary control

38
Q

The part of a neuron that contains the nucleus is the…

a. response
b. dendrite
c. axon
d. cell body
e. gland

A

d. cell body

39
Q

Metabolism is…

a. the sum of all fat burned in an organisms body
b. the use of energy to build organic molecules in an organisms cells
c. the energy released by breaking down molecules an organisms cells
d. the sum of all chemical reactions in all of an organisms cells

A

d. the sum of all chemical reactions in all of an organisms cells

40
Q

negative feedback circuits are…

a. mechanisms that most commonly maintain homeostasis
b. activated only when a physiological variable rises above a set point
c. involved in the process of blood clotting
d. involved in maintaining contractions during childbirth
e. found in endotherms but not in ectotherms

A

a. mechanisms that most commonly maintain homeostasis

41
Q

Which method of heat exchange occurs during direct contact between the source and animal?

a. radiation
b. evaporation
c. convection
d. conduction

A

d. conduction

42
Q

When a dehydrated human patient needs to be given fluids intravenously, they are given…

a. water, which is hypotonic with respect to body fluids
b. saline at a concentration that is isotonic with respect ti body fluids
c. glucose because it is a non-electrolyte
d. blood

A

b. saline at a concentration that is isotonic with respect ti body fluids

43
Q

Osmosis is…

a. the ability of molecules to accumulate inside membranes
b. the ability of solvent to dissolve membranes
c. the tendency of molecules to spread out into the available space
d. a form of diffusion involving solvent molecules and a semipermeable membrane
e. the ability of charged molecules to cross membranes

A

d. a form of diffusion involving solvent molecules and a semipermeable membrane

44
Q

which of the following osmoregulatory features is shared by BOTH marine and freshwater bony fish?

a. they both lose water through their gills
b. they both produce a large volume of dilute urine
c. they both regulate salts using cells in they gills
d. they both produce small volumes of concentrated urine
e. they both prevent water loss by covering their body in scales

A

c. they both regulate salts using cells in they gills

45
Q

The advantage of excreting wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that…

a. urea can be exchanged for Na+
b. urea is less toxic than ammonia
c. urea requires more water for excretion than ammonia
d. urea does not affect the osmolar gradient
e. less nitrogen is removed from the body

A

b. urea is less toxic than ammonia

46
Q

Flame cells are primitive excretory organs found in…

a. flatworms
b. arthropods
c. cnidaria
d. mammals

A

a. flatworms

47
Q

What form of nitrogenous waste do organisms wit shelled eggs excrete, AND WHY?

a. ammonia because it is less toxic in enclosed spaces
b. urea because it’s the least toxic in high concentrations
c. ammonia because it is the most soluble inside an egg
d. uric acid because it precipitates out of solution into a solid
e. uric acid because it is the most energy intensive to produce

A

d. uric acid because it precipitates out of solution into a solid

48
Q

Kidneys have one of the highest metabolic rates of any organs in the human body. This is likely because they…

a. store excess body lipids
b. have membranes that are permeable to water
c. operate an extensive network of active transport pumps
d. are essential for removing waste material
e. contain a lot of contracting muscle tissue

A

c. operate an extensive network of active transport pumps

49
Q

Which of the following sections of the mammalian nephron is INCORRECTLY paired with its function?

a. distal tubule - reabsorption of NaCl and balancing potassium in levels
b. proximal tubule - secretion of Na+ into filtrate and transport of glucose and amino acids out of tubule
c. ascending limb loop of Henle - diffusion and pumping of NaCl out of filtrate
d. Descending limb of loop of henle - diffusion of urea out of the filtrate
e. bowmans capsule and glomerulus - filtration of blood

A

d. Descending limb of loop of henle - diffusion of urea out of the filtrate

50
Q

The transfer of fluid from the glomerulus to Bowman’s capsule…

a. results from active transport
b. transfers large molecules as easily as small ones
c. is very selective as to which subprotein sized molecules are transferred
d. usually includes the transfer of red blood cells into bowmans capsule
e. is mainly a consequence of blood pressure in the capillaries of the glomerulus

A

e. is mainly a consequence of blood pressure in the capillaries of the glomerulus

51
Q

Approximately how much ATP/NADPH does it take to move 100 mL of water 10 cm up along this tree trunk?

a. none
b. 10 ATP/ml/cm
c. 500 NADPH molecules
d. 50 ATP molecules/ml/cm
e. need more information

A

a. none

52
Q

Active transport involves all of the following EXCEPT..

a. diffusion of solute through the lipid bilayer of a membrane
b. pumping of solutes across the membrane
c. hydrolysis of ATP
d. transport of solute against a concentration gradient
e. specific transport proteins in the membrane

A

a. diffusion of solute through the lipid bilayer of a membrane

53
Q

The movement of water across biological membranes can best be predicted by…

a. negative charges in the cell wall
b. prevailing weather conditions
c. level of active transport
d. water potentials
e. ATP levels

A

d. water potentials

54
Q

If you cut the stalk f a celery plant and placed it in a beaker of green water, the green color would travel up the stalk and into the leaf. This result can be explained using all the following concepts EXCEPT…

a. cohesive properties of water
b. transpiration pull
c. capillary movement of water
d. adhesive properties of water
e. root pressure

A

e. root pressure

55
Q

What happens when a plant cell with a water potential of -0.3 MPa is placed into a beaker of water?

a. the water in the beaker has a water potential of 0MPa
b. the water flows from the beaker into the plant cell
c. the cell loses water to the beaker
d. there is no change
e. none of the above

A

b. the water flows from the beaker into the plant cell

56
Q

Circulatory systems compensate for…

a. temp differences between the lungs and the active tissue
b. the problem of communication systems involving only the nervous system
c. the slow rate at which diffusion occurs over large distances
d. the need to cushion animals from trauma
e. the need fetal organisms have for maintaining an optimal body temperature

A

c.the slow rate at which diffusion occurs over large distances

57
Q

In a system with double circulation…

a. blood is pumped from two separate organs as it circulates through the body
b. there Is a countercurrent exchange within the gills
c. hemolymph circulates both through a pumping blood vessel and through body tubes
d. blood is pumped to the gas exchange organ and returning blood is then pumped through systemic vessels
e. there are always two ventricles an often two atria

A

d. blood is pumped to the gas exchange organ and returning blood is then pumped through systemic vessels

58
Q

suppose you are studying the circulatory system of an animal. You have observed that it has thick, bony scales, is an ectotherm, and can dive underwater for hours at a time. Which of the following characteristics is it likely to have?

a. a heart valve to bypass blood flow to the lungs
b. an open circulatory system
c. a heart with one atria and one ventricle
d. circulation of hemolymph through the hemocoel
e. double circulation with a pulmocutaneous circuit

A

a. a heart valve to bypass blood flow to the lungs

59
Q

blood returning to the mammalian heart in a pulmonary vein first drains into…

a. vena cava
b. left atrium
c. right atrium
d. left ventricle
e. right ventricle

A

b. left atrium

60
Q

The semilunar valves of the mammalian heart…

a. are the route by which blood flows from the atria to the ventricles
b. are found only on the right side of the heart
c. prevent back flow of blood in the aorta and pulmonary arteries
d. are the attachment site where pulmonary veins empty into the heart
e. are at the places where the anterior and posterior vena cava empty into the heart

A

c. prevent back flow of blood in the aorta and pulmonary arteries

61
Q

During diastole,

a. the atria fill with blood
b. blood flows passively into the ventricles
c. semilunar valves are closed but atrioventricular valves are open
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

62
Q

the image shown above represents various stages in plant reproduction. the gametes produced are a result of…

a. abiotic factors
b. mitosis
c. meiosis
d. flowers
e. seeds

A

b. mitosis

63
Q

Which of the following statements regarding flowering plants is FALSE?

a. the sporophyte is the dominant generation
b. female gametophytes develop megaspores within the anthers
c. pollination is the delivery of pollen to the stigma of a carpel
d. the food storing endosperm is derived from the cells that contain two polar nuclei and one sperm nucleus
e. flowers produce fruits from the ovaries

A

b. female gametophytes develop megaspores within the anthers

64
Q

Which of the following is a key event during embryogenesis?

a. distinct groups of cells form what will become dermal, ground, and vascular tissues
b. the megasporocyte divides by mitosis, forming cells that directly become the embryonic gametophyte
c. starches are hydrolyzed, providing sugars required for early steps in in germination
d. the seed coat takes on water so that germination can begin

A

a. distinct groups of cells form what will become dermal, ground, and vascular tissues

65
Q

Fruits…

a. can be things such as pineapples, potatoes, and wheat berries
b. have only one role - fertilizing the ground around the tree they develop on
c. that form after a fertilization event that should have seeds in them
d. only include tissues from the developing embryo
e. all of the above

A

c. that form after a fertilization event that should have seeds in them

66
Q

Which of the following types of plants are incapable of self pollination?

a. monoecious
b. complete
c. asexual flowers
d. dioecious

A

d. dioecious

67
Q

Which of the following is NOT a plant defense against disease?

a. cells near the point of infection destroy themselves to prevent infection spread
b. chemicals that kill pathogens are produced
c. cells of the lymphatic system are used to phagocytose pathogens
d. the waxy cuticle is a defense mechanism
e. R-avr recognition, signals resistance pathways

A

c. cells of the lymphatic system are used to phagocytose pathogens

68
Q

In cases where plants exhibit generalized defense responses in organs distant from the infection site, this is termed…

a. a hyperactive response
b. systemic acquired response
c. plasticity
d. hyperactivity

A

b. systemic acquired response

69
Q

Which of the following is a barrier against pathogens provided by the skin?

a. dessiccation
b. high pH
c. mucus
d. tears

A

a. dessiccation

70
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of active but NOT passive immunity?

a. antibodies are involved
b. lymphocytes are produced In bone marrow
c. transfer of antibodies from the mother across the placenta to the fetus
d. requires direct exposure to a living or simulated pathogen
e. requires an active barrier defense such as skin

A

d. requires direct exposure to a living or simulated pathogen

71
Q

Which of the following cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, and in response to class ! MHC molecule antigen complexes, produce performs and granzymes?

a. macrophages
b. B cells
c. helper T cells
d. suppressor T cells
e. cytotoxic T cells

A

e. cytotoxic T cells

72
Q

Edward Jenner (1749) successfully used cowpox virus as a vaccine against the virus that causes smallpox. Why was he successful even though he used viruses of different kinds?

a. There are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses
b. the immune system responds non specifically to antigens
c. the cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox
d. cowpox and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties

A

a. There are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses

BIO 200 (2 decks)

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