All economics flashcards

1
Q

What is demand?

A

Demand is the quantity of a good or service that customers are willing and able to purchase at a given price during a specific time period, ceteris paribus.

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2
Q

What does ceteris paribus mean?

A

Ceteris paribus assumes that everything apart from the price of goods remains the same.

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3
Q

What does the law of demand state?

A

As price decreases, demand increases and vice-versa.

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4
Q

Name 3 non-price determinants of demand

A

Possible answers:

Changes in income
Changes in the price of other goods
Tastes and preferences
Demographic changes
Future expectations
Number of potential buyers
Government policy
Seasonal shifts

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5
Q

Will a non-price determinant of demand cause a movement along or a shift in the demand curve?

A

A shift in the demand curve.

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6
Q

What are subsituted goods? State an example.

A

Substituted goods are goods which have similar characteristics and uses to consumers.

E.g. If there is a decrease in the price of the iPhones and thus an increase in the demand, there is less need for Samsung phones and thus an inwards shift of the demand curve as demand decreases.

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7
Q

What are complimentary goods? State the two types and name an example.

A

Definition:
- Complementary goods are goods which are consumed together, an increase of price in one good leads to the decrease of demand for both goods.

Types:
- Close compliment
- Remote compliment

Example:
- If the price of ink cartridges increases, there is less demand for printers.

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8
Q

What are unrelated goods? Name an example.

A

Definition:
- Unrelated goods are goods that share no characteristics or uses to the consumer. A rise/decrease in the price of one good will not affect the demand for another good.

Example:
- E.g. a decrease in the price of cigarettes will not lead to an increase in the demand of table clothes, as they have no relation.

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9
Q

What is supply?

A

Supply is defined as the quantity of a good or service that producers are willing and able to offer at a given price during a specific time period, ceteris paribus.

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10
Q

What does the law of supply state?

A

The law of supply states that as the price of a good increases the supply of the good will increase, ceteris paribus.

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11
Q

Name 3 non-price determinants of supply.

A

Possible answers:

Costs of production.
Technological change.
Price of related goods.
Future expectations.
Government intervention.

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12
Q

What is competitive supply?

A

Competitive supply is when the production of one good uses similar resources and processes as the production of another good.

This means that if the price of one good falls, producers can substitute that good for another, whose price is higher, for not much effort.

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13
Q

What is joint supply?

A

Joint supply occurs when two products are derived from the same resource. This makes it impossible to produce more of one without producing more of another. For example, animal products, specifically cow products, show joint supply. You cannot produce more meat without also increasing the quantity of cow skin (for leather).

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14
Q

What is market equilibrium?

A

Market equilibrium refers to a situation where price is adjusted until the quantity supplied and quantity demanded are equal.

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15
Q

What is market disequilibrium?

A

Market disequilibrium occurs when at a given price, the quantity demanded and the quantity supplied of a product is not the same quantity.

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16
Q

What is a shortage?

A

A shortage occurs when there is more demand for a good than supply of the same good, at any given price.

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17
Q

What is a surplus?

A

A surplus occurs when there is more supply for a good than demand for the same good at any given price.

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18
Q

What will happen to market equilibrium if demand increases?

A

If a non-price determinant of demand increases demand, the demand curve will shift outwards (to the right).

There will be a shortage of goods because at P1, the producer is willing and able to supply less of the good than is demanded.

In order for the market to re-establish equilibrium, the price has to increase to P2.

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19
Q

What will happen to market equilibrium if demand decreases?

A

If a non-price determinant of demand decreases demand, the demand curve will shift inwards (to the left).

There will be a surplus of goods because at P1, the producer is willing and able to supply more of the good than is demanded.

In order for the market to re-establish equilibrium, demand has to be increased and the price has to be lowered to P2.

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20
Q

What will happen to market equilibrium if there is an increase in supply?

A

If a non-price determinant of supply increases supply, the supply curve will shift outwards (to the right).

There will be a surplus of goods because at P1, the producer is willing and able to supply more of the good than is demanded.

In order for the market to re-establish equilibrium, demand has to be increased and the price has to be lowered to P2.

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21
Q

What will happen to market equilibrium if supply decreases?

A

If a non-price determinant of supply decreases supply, the supply curve will shift inwards (to the left).

There will be a shortage of goods because at P1, the producer is willing and able to supply less of the good than is demanded.

In order for the market to re-establish equilibrium, demand has to be decreased and the price has to increase to P2.

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22
Q

What is the price mechanism?

A

The price mechanism refers to the way in which price changes affect quantity demanded and quantity supplied.

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23
Q

What are the three functions of the price mechanism?

A

Signalling functions.

Rationing functions.

Incentivising functions.

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24
Q

What is a signalling function?

A

If the price of the market changes, then it signals to consumers/producers what to do with the resources they have.

For example, if the price mechanism lowers the price, it signals to firms that demand is decreasing and they should not produce more of that good.

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25
Q

What is PED?

A

PED is a measure of the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a good or service to change in its own price.

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26
Q

What is the formula for PED?

A

PED =

Percentage change in quantity demanded/ Percentage change in price.

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27
Q

What is inelastic demand? What is the PED of inelastic demand?

A

Inelastic demand occurs when the change in price is greater than the change in the quantity demanded.

PED = 0-1

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28
Q

What is unitary elastic demand? What is the PED of unitary elastic demand?

A

Unitary elastic demand occurs when the change in the quantity demanded is the same as the change in price.

PED = 1

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29
Q

What is elastic demand? What is the PED of elastic demand?

A

Elastic demand occurs when the change in price leads to a proportionally greater change in the quantity demanded.

PED < 1

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30
Q

What is perfectly inelastic demand? What is the PED of perfectly inelastic demand?

A

Perfectly inelastic demand occurs when there is no change in quantity demanded after a price change.

PED = 0

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31
Q

What is perfectly elastic demand? What is the PED of perfectly elastic demand?

A

Perfectly elastic demand occurs when a change in price would lead to an infinite change in quantity demand. It is hypothetical, and would only occur in perfectly competitive markets.

PED = Infinity.

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32
Q

Name 3 factors that impact price elasticity of demand.

A

The number/closeness of substitutes.

The neccesity of the product.

Length of time.

Proportion of income spent on a good.

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33
Q

What is revenue?

A

Revenue is the total amount of money that goes into a firm when a good is sold.

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34
Q

What is the formula for revenue?

A

Price x Quantity Sold

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35
Q

What is the formula for total revenue?

A

TR2 - TR1

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36
Q

What happens to total revenue if the Price Elasticity of Demand (PED) is greater than 1 (elastic) and the firm increases prices?

A

If PED is greater than 1 (elastic), increasing prices leads to a decrease in total revenue. This is because consumers are highly responsive to price changes, reducing their consumption significantly, resulting in the firm selling less and making less revenue.

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37
Q

What is the impact on total revenue when a firm increases the price of products with a Price Elasticity of Demand (PED) less than 1 (inelastic)?

A

If PED is less than 1 (inelastic), an increase in the price of products leads to an increase in total revenue. This happens because inelastic goods make consumers less responsive to price changes, and they do not significantly decrease their quantity consumed. Thus, the firm’s total revenue has the potential to increase or remain unchanged.

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38
Q

What effect does a price change have on total revenue when the Price Elasticity of Demand (PED) equals 1 (unit elastic)?

A

When PED equals 1 (unit elastic), total revenue remains unchanged despite changes in price. This is because the proportional change in quantity demanded exactly offsets the proportional change in price, leaving total revenue constant.

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39
Q

What is PES?

A

PES is a measure of the responsiveness of the quantity supplied of a good or service to change in its own price.

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40
Q

What is the formula for PES?

A

PES =

Percentage change in quantity supplied / Percentage change in price.

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41
Q

What does a Price Elasticity of Supply (PES) equal to 0 indicate? What does the supply curve look like?

A

A PES of 0 indicates a perfectly inelastic supply, where changes in price do not lead to any change in the quantity supplied.

The supply curve in this case is a vertical line.

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42
Q

What does a Price Elasticity of Supply (PES) between 0 and 1 signify? What does the supply curve look like?

A

A PES between 0 and 1 signifies a price inelastic supply, where the change in price is greater than the change in the quantity supplied.

The supply curve for this is a sloped line that intersects with the x-axis.

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43
Q

What does a Price Elasticity of Supply (PES) equal to 1 represent? What does the supply curve look like?

A

A PES of 1 represents a unitary elastic supply, where the change in price leads to an equal change in the quantity supplied.

The supply curve in this case is a sloped line that intersects with the origin.

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44
Q

What does a Price Elasticity of Supply (PES) greater than 1 represent? What does the supply curve look like?

A

A PES greater than 1 denotes a price elastic supply, where a change in price leads to a greater change in the quantity supplied.

The supply curve for this is a sloped line that intersects with the y-axis.

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45
Q

What does a Price Elasticity of Supply (PES) equal to infinity represent?

A

A PES of infinity symbolizes a perfectly elastic supply, where any change in price would lead to an infinite change in the quantity supplied. The supply curve in this case is a horizontal line.

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46
Q

Name 3 factors that impact PES

A

Length of time.

Mobility of the factors of production.

Ability to store stock.

Unused capacity.

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47
Q

What is XED?

A

XED means cross elasticity of demand.

It is the measurement of the sensitivity of quantity demanded for one good to the change in the price of another good.

E.g. how the demand for coffee creamer would be impacted by a change in price in coffee.

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48
Q

What is the formula for XED?

A

XED =

Percentage change in demand for good x/ Percentage change in price for good y.

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49
Q

What does it mean if the Cross Elasticity of Demand (XED) is positive?

A

A positive XED, greater than 0, indicates that goods X and Y are substitutes. If the price of good Y increases, consumers will switch their demand to good X, increasing its demand.

For instance, a price rise for Samsung phones will increase the demand for iPhones, leading to an outward shift in the demand curve for good X.

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50
Q

What does a Cross Elasticity of Demand (XED) of zero imply?

A

If XED equals zero, it suggests that there is no relationship between goods X and Y.

Changes in the price of good Y have no impact on the quantity demanded for good X.

Their demand curves are independent of each other.

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51
Q

What does it mean if the Cross Elasticity of Demand (XED) is negative?

A

A negative XED, less than 0, indicates that goods X and Y are complements.

If the price of good Y increases, the demand for both goods X and Y decreases.

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52
Q

What is YED?

A

YED stands for income elasticity of demand.

It measures the responsiveness of demand to changes in income.

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53
Q

What is the formula for YED?

A

YED =

Percentage change in quantity demanded / Percentage change in income.

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54
Q

What does a positive YED indicate?

A

If the YED is positive, it indicates that the good is a normal good.

This means that as income increases, demand for the good increases.

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55
Q

What does a YED greater than one indicate?

A

If the YED is greater than one, it indicates that the good is a luxury.

Luxurious goods are goods that are not essential but are highly desired and associated with higher income levels.

As income increases, the demand for the good increases.

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56
Q

What does a negative YED represent?

A

If the YED is negative, it indicates that the good is an inferior good.

An inferior good is one such as instant noodles.

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57
Q

What does a YED less than one indicate?

A

If the YED is less than one, it indicates that the good is a necessity.

Necessities are essential goods required for basic living and whose demand remains constant regardless of income changes.

As income increases, demand will remain stable.

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58
Q

Name 3 reasons that governments intervene in markets.

A

To earn government revenue.

To support firms.

To support households on low incomes.

To influence the levels of consumption/production.

To correct market failure.

To promote equity.

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59
Q

Name 3 methods of government intervention in markets.

A

Price controls.

Indirect taxes.

Subsidies.

Direct provision of services.

Command/control regulation and legislation.

Consumer nudges.

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60
Q

What is a price ceiling?

A

The government can set a maximum price, known as a price ceiling below the equilibrium price to prevent consumer exploitation.

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61
Q

What are the aims of price ceilings?

A

Increase the consumption of a good/service that are neccesary/socially beneficial.

Reduce the price of certain goods/ services for low income consumers.

Prevent exploitation by monopolies.

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62
Q

Name and explain 3 consequences of price ceilings.

A

Possible answers:

Shorages.

Rationing.

Black markets.

Lack of efficiency.

Welfare loss caused by the loss in efficiency.

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63
Q

How can the government correct the shortages caused by a price ceiling?

A

Increase the supply of the good by directly provisioning it.

Grant subsidies to producers.

Store stock of the good and release it into the market.

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64
Q

What are price floors?

A

Price floors are the opposite of price ceilings, in which the government sets a minimum price, above the equilibrium price, of the good or service.

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65
Q

What are the aims of a price floor?

A

To increase the income of producers of goods/services that the government deems important.

To protect workers, and ensure they have a minimum wage.

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66
Q

Name 3 consequences of price ceilings.

A

Potential answers:

Surplus’s.

The creation of parallel markets.

Firm inefficiency.

Welfare loss.

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67
Q

What are indirect taxes?

A

Indirect (pigouvian) taxes are taxes paid to the government from the firm that produces the goods being taxed.

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68
Q

What are the two forms of indirect taxes?

A

A specific tax is a fixed tax per unit sold of the taxed good (E.g. For every apple sold, there is a $0.40 tax).

A percentage tax (Ad Valorem tax) is a tax that is a percentage of the price of the good (E.g. 10% of the revenue of apples are taxed).

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69
Q

How will an indirect tax look like on a graph?

A

Inward shift of the supply curve.

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70
Q

What are subsidies?

A

Subsidies are a payment per unit of output given to firms by the government.

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71
Q

What two forms can subsidies come in?

A

Direct cash grants, where a set amount of money is given to firms by the governments.

Tax breaks, where certain industries are exempted from certain taxes.

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72
Q

What would a firm subsidy look like on a diagram?

A

Outwards shift of the supply curve.

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73
Q

What are the two ways governments can indirectly intervene in a market?

A

Command and Control legislation.

Consumer nudges.

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74
Q

Give an example of command/control legislation.

A

Age restrictions.

Advertising bans.

Quotas.

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75
Q

What four basic principals do consumer nudges need to employ in order to be efficient?

A

Easy, attractive, social, timely nudges.

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76
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of consumer nudges?

A

The advantages of consumer nudges are that they’re inexpensive and easy to implement.

The disadvantages of consumer nudges is that they can be perceived as manipulative.

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77
Q

What is market failure?

A

Market failure can be defined as a situation in which the free market fails to allocate resources efficiently.

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78
Q

What are negative externalities of production?

A

A negative externality of production refers to a situation in which the production of a good negatively affects an uninvolved third party.

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79
Q

How can the government correct a negative externality of production?

A

Imposing indirect taxes.

Legislation.

Tradable emission permits - cap on how much firms can pollute that can be bought/sold.

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80
Q

What are negative externalities of consumption?

A

Negative externalities of consumption refers to a situation in which the consumption of a good leads to negative consequences for an unrelated third party, such as the consumption of cigarettes and the effect on bystanders (second-hand smoke).

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81
Q

How can the government correct a negative externality of production?

A

Banning/regulating the good.

Imposing an indirect tax.

Negative advertising campaign.

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82
Q

What are positive externalities of production? When do they occur?

A

A positive externality of production refers to a situation in which the production of a good positively affects an uninvolved third party.

Positive externalities of production occur when there is an underproduction of a merit good.

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83
Q

How can the government correct a positive externality of production?

A

Subsidisation of firms.

Direct provision of goods/services.

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84
Q

Name a positive externality of production.

A

An example of a positive externality of production would occur when a company tears down an abandoned building and constructs a new office or apartment building that enhances the surrounding community.

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85
Q

What is a positive externality of consumption?

A

Positive externalities of consumption refers to a situation in which the consumption of a good leads to positive consequences for an unrelated third party, such as the consumption of vaccines which in turn, lower the chance of illness spreading through a population.

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86
Q

How can the government correct a positive externality of consumption?

A

Subsidise production - lower cost.

Positive advertising.

Government regulation - mandated consumption.

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87
Q

What does it mean for a good to be rivalrous? Give an example.

A

The consumption of the good by one person reduces the availability of that good for consumption by others.

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88
Q

What does it mean for a good to be excludable?

A

It is possible to prevent individuals who have not paid for the good from consuming it.

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89
Q

What are private goods and what is an example of a private good?

A

Private goods are goods that are excludable and rivalrous.

This means that the good, when consumed by one person, cannot be consumed by others and those that do not pay for goods cannot consume it.

An example of a private good is an iphone, because:

When you purchase an iphone, nobody else can buy the same phone. When you purchase/use an iphone, you can stop anybody that did not pay for the phone from using it.

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90
Q

What are public goods and what is an example of a public good?

A

Public goods are non-rivalrous and non-excludable goods.

This means that the good, when consumed by one person, can be consumed by others and those that do not pay for goods can consume it.

An example of a public good is national defence, because:

The protection provided by a country’s military benefits all citizens and does not diminish if more people are protected (non-rivalrous).

Individuals cannot be excluded from enjoying the benefits of national defence, regardless of whether they contribute to its funding (non-excludable).

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91
Q

What are club goods and what is an example of a club good?

A

Club goods are goods that are excludable but non-rivalrous.

This means that access to these goods can be controlled (people can be prevented from using them if they do not pay), but one person’s use of the good does not significantly diminish the ability of another person to use it as well, until the point of congestion or capacity limit is reached.

An example of a club good is subscription-based streaming service, because:

Subscribers can use the service, and one subscriber’s viewing does not affect another’s ability to watch the same content (non-rivalrous).

Anybody that does not pay for the good cannot access it (excludable).

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92
Q

How are common pool resources a form of market failure?

A

Market failure can be defined as a situation in which the free market fails to allocate resources efficiently.

Common pool resources and public goods are both non-excludable, meaning that those that do not pay for them can still access them.

As a result, prices cannot be charged and hence private provision through the market is not feasible.

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93
Q

What is the theory of “tragedy of the commons”?

A

The tragedy of the commons refers to a situation in which individuals with access to a public resource (also called a common) act in their own interest and, in doing so, ultimately deplete the resource.

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94
Q

Name 3 ways governments can intervene in order to increase sustainability?

A

Legislation and regulations.

Carbon taxes.

Elimination of environmentally harmful subsidies.

Funding for clean technologies.

Cap and trade schemes.

Government subsidies for the development of clean technologies.

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95
Q

How are public goods a form of market failure?

A

Public goods illustrate the free rider problem.

The free rider problem occurs when people use a good without paying for it.

Since it is not possible to charge a price for the good, private firms will not produce it, even though there will be demand for it.

Public goods are therefore a type of market failure because the free market fails to produce it.

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96
Q

What is asymmetric information?

A

Asymmetric information occurs when not all parties involved in a transaction have perfect knowledge to make an economic decision.

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97
Q

Why is asymmetric information a form of market failure?

A

Market failure occurs when the market fails to allocate resources successfully.

Without perfect information, markets cannot do that.

Therefore, asymmetric information is a form of market failure.

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98
Q

How does asymmetric information lead to an over or under allocation of resources?

A

Asymmetric information can lead to an over-allocation of resources when the producer has more information than the consumer.

Asymmetric information can lead to an under-allocation of resources when the consumer has more information than the producer:
If the consumer has more information than the producer, then they can and will pay below the socially optimal amount.

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99
Q

What are the two types of asymmetric information?

A

Adverse selection.

Moral hazard.

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100
Q

What is adverse selection?

A

Adverse selection refers to a situation where one party has more information before the transaction occurs than the other participant.

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101
Q

What is a moral hazard?

A

A moral hazard occurs where one participant takes on more risk because they know they will not pay the consequences of that risk. The asymmetric information changes their behaviour after the transaction has occurred.

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102
Q

How can governments correct asymmetric information?

A

Legislation - making sure all relevant information is disclosed to consumers.

Regulation - monitoring industries to ensure legislation is being adhered.

Direct provision of information - ensuring customers get the relevant information.

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103
Q

What are the two private responses to information asymmetry?

A

Signalling.

Screening.

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104
Q

How can signalling solve asymmetric information? Use an example.

A

In the case of adverse selection, in which participants have asymmetric information before the transaction, the participant with more information can signal that they know more.

This occurs when a firm hires new employees.

Firms will want to hire people with particular skills.

Prospective employees have the ability to signal themselves by highlighting their particular skill sets and qualifications in their CVs (resumes).

Qualifications can be verified and there are consequences for anyone making fraudulent claims on their CVs when applying for a job.

This example of using CV’s before hiring represents signalling because it allows the more informed party (the prospective employees) to credibly demonstrate their qualities, reducing information asymmetry.

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105
Q

How can screening solve information asymmetry? Give an example.

A

In the case of adverse selection, in which participants have asymmetric information before the transaction, the participant with less information can screen in order to cause the other party to reveal their information.

An example of screening can also be seen when a firm hires new employees.
Employers can insist that prospective employees have certain qualifications before they will interview them; for example, by requiring that all applicants have degrees, and therefore limiting the amount of applicants that are eligible for the role.

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106
Q

What are the four principal types of competitive markets?

A

Monopoly.

Oligopoly.

Monopolistic competition.

Perfect competition.

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107
Q

What is profit maximisation?

A

Profit maximisation refers to the process by which a firm determines the price, input, and output levels that result in the highest profit.

When firms act as profit maximisers, they are behaving rationally.

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108
Q

What is the formula to calculate profits?

A

Total profit =

total revenue - total costs

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109
Q

What makes up total cost?

A

Fixed costs - costs that stay constant regardless of output.

Variable costs - costs that vary based on output.

Opportunity cost - costs that account for the second best alternative for the resource being used in the production of a good or service.

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110
Q

Give an example of injections to an economy.

A

Government spending, consumption, investment and exports.

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111
Q

Give an example of leakages from an economy.

A

Taxes, savings and imports.

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112
Q

What is GDP?

A

It is a measure of everything produced within a country in a specific time period (usually a year).

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113
Q

What is the formula for GDP?

A

The formula for GDP is GDP = C + I + G + (X-M), in which:

C = consumption spending on goods/services.

I = investment spending by business in order to grow. Money is spent on the factors of production (land, labour, capital, enterprise).

G = Government spending.

X-M = Net exports, money gained by exports - money spent on imports.

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114
Q

What is real GDP?

A

Real GDP is the GDP of a country at any given point after having been being adjusted for inflation.

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115
Q

What is the formula for real GDP?

A

Real GDP =

(Nominal GDP / Price deflator) x 100

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116
Q

What is GDP per capita?

A

GDP per capita shows the average economic output per person in a country.

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117
Q

What is the formula of GDP per capita?

A

GDP per capita =
Real GDP/ Population of a country.

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118
Q

What is GNI?

A

GNI is the total money made by a country’s people and businesses, including money made abroad, minus money made by foreigners in the country.

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119
Q

What is the formula for GNI?

A

GNI =

GPD + incomes flowing from other countries - incomes flowing out to other countries.

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120
Q

What is real GNI and what is the formula?

A

Real GNI is the GNI of a country at any given point after being adjusted for inflation.

The formula for real GNI is: Real GNI = (Nominal GNI/Price Deflator) x 100.

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121
Q

What is the formula for GNI per capita?

A

GNI per capita = Real GNI/ Population of a country.

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122
Q

Name 2 advantages of using GDP as a measure of national income accounting.

A

GDP allows comparison with other countries, since it is an international measurement.

Economic growth is a primary target for many governments, and thus GDP gives a relative idea of where countries stand and where they can grow.

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123
Q

Name 2 disadvantages of using GDP as a method of national income accounting.

A

GDP overestimates quality of life in a specific country, as money spent on projects such as cleaning up pollution is also counted into GDP, even if it is just restoring damage.

GDP does not factor in income inequality.

GDP relies on government agencies to collect data, and that data can be flawed or rigged for various reasons.

Companies are always attempting to improve their products/services but prices don’t change dramatically, which is something GDP does not calculate (quality of output).

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124
Q

What is the business cycle?

A

The Business Cycle is a model that shows the fluctuations in an economy over time.

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125
Q

Name the four phases of the business cycle.

A

Growth (expansion)

Boom (peak)

Recession (contraction)

Slump (trough).

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126
Q

Explain the phases of the business cycle.

A

During the growth phase, GDP is increasing and so is inflation and interest rates.

During the peak phase, economic activity, inflation and interest rates are at their highest.

During the recession phase, economic activity is decreasing, as are inflation and interest rates.

During the trough phase, economic activity, interest rates and inflation are at their lowest.

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127
Q

What factors alter the business cycle?

A

Business cycles are affected by factors such as changes in climate, natural disasters, wage levels and inflation.

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128
Q

What is the difference between a decrease in GDP and a decrease in GDP growth

A

A decrease in GDP is a fall in economic output, or a recession if occurring for longer than 2 quarters.

A decrease in GDP growth rate is just when the GDP growth rate decreases.

129
Q

Name 3 alternate measures of well-being.

A

The World Hapiness Report/ The Cantril Ladder.

OECD Better Life Index.

Gross National Hapiness Indicator.

Happy Planet Index.

130
Q

What is the aggregate demand and what is the formula for AD?

A

Aggregate demand refers to the total output that all buyers in a country are willing and able to buy at any given price and time.

The formula for aggregate demand is the same as the formula for GDP.

131
Q

What causes a movement along/shift in the AD curve?

A

Changes in the prices of goods lead to a movement along the AD curve.

A shift in any of the AD components (C, I, G, (X-M)) will cause the curve to shift inwards/outwards.

132
Q

Name 5 determinants of AD and what component of AD they correspond to.

A

Confidence - Consumption.

Employment - Consumption.

Interest rates - Consumption.

Wealth - Consumption.

Personal taxes - Consumption.

Household indebtness - Consumption.

Expectations of future price level - Consumption.

Interest rates - investment.

Business confidence - investment.

Technology - investment.

Business taxes - investment.

Corporate indebtness - investment.

Government priorities - government spending.

Income of trading partners - Net exports.

Exchange rates - Net exports.

Trade policies - Net exports.

133
Q

What is aggregate supply?

A

Aggregate supply refers to the total output that all firms in a country are willing and able to provide at a given price level.

134
Q

What is SRAS?

A

SRAS stands for short-run aggregate supply.

SRAS refers to the positive relationship between Real GDP (Real Output) and the price level of goods/services.

135
Q

Name 3 determinants of SRAS.

A

Changes in wages.

Changes in the cost of raw materials.

Changes in the price of imports.

Changes in government taxes/subsidies.

136
Q

What is LRAS?

A

LRAS stands for Long-Run Aggregate Supply.

The LRAS curve represents the relationship between Real GDP and the price level of resources in an economy.

137
Q

Why doesn’t output level change in the long run?

A

Output level doesn’t change in the LRAS curve because all factors of production are being used at maximum sustainable capacity.

This means that an economy cannot produce any more output.

The price of the goods may increase but the quantity will not increase.

138
Q

Name the 3 determinants of LRAS?

A

Quality of the factors of production.

Quantity of the factors of production.

Levels of technology used to produce a majority of goods in a country.

139
Q

Name the 2 principal macroeconomic perspectives.

A

The Keynesian Perspective.

The New Classical Perspective.

140
Q

What is the new classical economic perspective?

A

The New Classical, also known as the monetarist perspective, is an economic thought that differs SRAS and LRAS.

New Classical economists believe that SRAS is determined by price level and LRAS is not.

141
Q

Explain the three sections of the Keynesian aggregate supply curve.

A

Section I is the phase in which there is a perfectly horizontal aggregate supply (AS) curve. There is a lot of unused capacity of production, meaning that output can be increased without price increases.

Section II is the phase in which the economy approaches its potential maximum output. Producers now compete for limited factors of production, leading to an increase in price level.

Section III is the phase in which the economy is at its full capacity (Ymax), there is no more economic growth that can occur as all the factors of production are fully employed. This shows Aggregate Supply (AS) as a fully vertical curve. The third stage of AS for Keynesian Economists is the only stage for new classical economists. The first and second stages for Keynesian economics is SRAS for New Classical Economists.

142
Q

What are the determinants of the Keynesian aggregate supply curve?

A

Increases in efficiency.

Institutional changes.

Reducations in the natural rate of unemployment.

143
Q

What is short-run economic equilibrium?

A

Short-run equilibrium refers to a situation in which short-run aggregate supply intersects with aggregate demand.

144
Q

Name and explain the three equilibrium positions.

A

Recessionary (Deflationary) gap: This type of equilibrium occurs when AD intersects AS below full employment level of output. This means that the demands of the economy are less than the potential output of the economy. In this situation, GDP is less than potential GDP, and unemployment levels are greater than natural unemployment levels.

Inflationary gap: An inflationary gap is the opposite of a deflationary gap. Essentially, it means that the economy is ‘overheating’, and that the economy is not being sustainable because they are using more resources than they can use sustainably. GDP is greater than potential GDP, and unemployment is lower than natural unemployment rates.

Full employment: This type of equilibrium occurs when the economy is being as productive as possible, and AD intersects with AS at Yp (Full employment).

145
Q

What is economic growth?

A

Economic growth refers to an increase in real GDP over a period of time (typically a year).

146
Q

What is the formula for economic growth?

A

Growth rate =

Real GDP(2) - Real GDP (1) / Real GDP (1) x 100

147
Q

Name 3 causes of short-term economic growth.

A

Changes in consumer/buisiness confidence

Changes in interest rates

Changes in government expenditure

Changes in taxation

Changes in exchange rates

148
Q

Name 3 causes of long-term economic growth

A

An increase in the size of the labour force.

An improvement in human capital.

An increase in the stock of physical capital.

An improvement in technological advances.

149
Q

What is human capital?

A

Human capital are the skills, knowledge, and experience possessed by an individual or population.

150
Q

What is physical capital?

A

Physical capital refers to assets, such as building, machinery, and vehicles, which are owned and employed by an organisation.

151
Q

Name and explain 2 consequences of economic growth.

A

Change in living standards.

Impact on the entironment.

Income distribution.

152
Q

What is unemployment?

A

Unemployment refers to people of working age who are actively looking for a job but who are not employed.

153
Q

What is the formula to calculate unemployment?

A

Unemployment rate = Number of unemployed/Labour force
x 100

Labour force = # of employed people + # of unemployed people

154
Q

Name and explain 2 difficulties in calculating the unemployment rate.

A

Discouraged workers: The unemployment rate overlooks discouraged workers, who have stopped looking for employment due to repeated failures in securing a job.

Underemployed workers: It fails to account for underemployed workers, who are employed in jobs that do not utilise their skills or provide enough hours.

Geographical disparities: The rate does not reflect geographical disparities, where employment opportunities vary significantly between different regions.

Disparities: The rate does not account for disparities in employment that affect groups differently based on age, gender, ethnicity, and other demographic factors.

155
Q

Name the types of unemployment.

A

Natural unemployment

Cyclical (demand-defficient) unemployment

Structural unemployment

Frictional unemployment

Seasonal unemployment

156
Q

What is natural unemployment?

A

Natural unemployment is the employment rate in a country when the market is at long-term equilibrium (resources are fully employed).

157
Q

What is cyclical unemployment?

A

Cyclical unemployment is unemployment that occurs during a recessionary gap, in the downturns of the business cycle.

158
Q

What is structural unemployment?

A

Structural unemployment is a type of unemployment that occurs as a result of changes in demand for particular types of labour skills.

159
Q

What is frictional unemployment?

A

Frictional unemployment occurs when workers are between jobs.

160
Q

What is seasonal unemployment?

A

Seasonal unemployment occurs when the demand for labour in certain industries occurs on a seasonal basis.

161
Q

Name 4 costs of unemployment.

A

A loss of real GDP.

A loss of income.

A loss of tax revenue for the government.

Costs to the government of unemployment benefits.

More unequal distribution of income.

Increased indebtedness.

Increased stress levels.

Increased crime rates.

Increased risks to health.

162
Q

What is inflation?

A

The term “inflation” refers to a sustained increase in average price level over time.

163
Q

What is the formula for calculating inflation?

A

Inflation Rate =

CPI (2) - CPI (1)

/ CPI (1)

x 100

164
Q

What is the formula for CPI?

A

Cost of the basket in year / Cost of basket in the base year x 100.

165
Q

What is CPI?

A

The CPI of a country refers to the consumer price index, which is a measure of the value of a typical basket of goods and services (what people would usually buy) for a year.

166
Q

Name and explain 3 difficulties in measuring inflation.

A

Varying inflation for varying incomes: Inflation doesn’t consider varying spending habits of different income groups, affecting accuracy in measuring costs for specific demographics.

Differences in income distribution: Inflation hits lower-income individuals harder as they allocate more of their earnings to essential items, making it difficult to cover basic needs during price hikes.

Changes in consumption patterns: Inflation calculations don’t adapt to evolving consumer preferences driven by new products entering the market.

Changes in quality over time: Inflation metrics often overlook how quality improvements in products

167
Q

What are the three-types of inflation?

A

Demand-pull inflation.

Cost-push inflation.

Inflationary wage-price spiral.

168
Q

What is inflationary wage-price spiral inflation?

A

When a rise in aggregate demand puts upward pressure on the price level of goods and services, workers will start to demand higher wages from their employers.

Higher wages result in higher costs of production for firms, the result is a fall in short-run aggregate supply.

169
Q

Name and explain 3 costs of inflation.

A

Greater uncertainty.

Redustributive effects.

Effects on savings.

Damange to export competitivness.

Impact on economic growth.

Inefficient market allocation.

170
Q

What is deflation? What is disinflation?

A

Deflation is the decrease of price level over time.

Disinflation is the reduction of inflation rates over time, and is more common as it can be caused by either monetary or fiscal policy.

171
Q

What is the cause of deflation?

A

Since deflation is the opposite of inflation, it is caused by either an increase in aggregate supply (opposite of cost-push inflation), or a decrease in aggregate demand (opposite of demand-pull inflation).

Deflation will be caused by factors that decrease AD or increase AS.

172
Q

Name 2 costs of deflation.

A

Business uncertainty.

Deffered consumption.

Increased cyclical unemployment.

Bankruptcies will increase.

173
Q

What is economic inequality>

A

Economic inequality means the differences in income levels across a population.

174
Q

What is the lorenz curve and what does it measure>

A

The Lorenz curve is a graphical representation of the degree of income equality (or inequality) in an economy.

It measures the percentage of total income that each quintile.

175
Q

What is the gini coefficient?

A

The Gini coefficient (index) is a set of values that represent income equality in a country.

The values range from 0-1, with higher values meaning more income inequality and lower values representing lower income inequalities.

176
Q

What is poverty?

A

The term “poverty” refers to the inability of an individual/household to afford an adequate standard of living.

177
Q

What are the two types of poverty? Define each.

A

Absolute poverty:
Absolute poverty refers to a situation in which an individual/family does not have the income levels required to meet basic human needs (clean water, food, education, etc). Absolute poverty are individuals that live below the poverty line (1.90 USD/day).

Relative poverty:
Relative poverty refers to a comparison of an individual’s/family’s income to the median societal income.

178
Q

Name 3 causes of economic inequality/poverty.

A

Inequality of opportunity.

Different levels of human capital.

Different levels of resource ownership.

Discrimination.

Government tax/benefit policies.

Technological change.

179
Q

Name 2 consequences of economic inequality/poverty.

A

Less economic growth.

Lower living standards.

Social and political instability.

180
Q

What is VAT?

A

Value added tax (VAT) taxes refer to the taxes on the spending of goods/services. This can come in the form of specific taxes (fixed price of tax on all goods/services) or a percentage tax (based on the value of the good/service).

181
Q

What are the three types of taxation?

A

Proportional taxation.

Regressive taxation.

Progressive taxation.

182
Q

What is proportional taxation?

A

Proportional taxation is when the tax rate stays the same, irregardless of income earnt.W

183
Q

What is regressive taxation?

A

Regressive taxation is when the tax rate decreases as income increases.

184
Q

What is progressive taxation?

A

Progressive taxation is when the tax rate increases as income increases.

185
Q

Name 3 solutions to solve economic inequality/poverty.

A

Progressive taxation.

Investment in human capital.

Transfer payments.

Universal Basic Income (UBI).

186
Q

What is monetary policy?

A

Monetary policy refers to the policy carried out by the central bank which aims to change interest rates and influence aggregate demand.

187
Q

What are the four goals of monetary policy?

A

Low and stable inflation.

Low unemployment.

Control business cycle fluctuations.

Promote long-term growth.

188
Q

What is an interest rates?

A

An interest rate is defined as the cost of borrowing money.

189
Q

How are interest rates adjusted?

A

Interest rates are controlled by adjusting the supply of money.

As the supply of money increases interest rates decrease because there is more availability of money (easier to loan) and vice-versa.

190
Q

What is the formula for nominal interest rates?

A

Nominal interest rate - rate of inflation.

191
Q

Name 3 stregnths of expansionary monetary policy.

A

Stimulates economic growth.

Reduces unemployment.

Lowering interest rates.

Combates deflation.

192
Q

Name 2 weaknesses of expansionary monetary policy.

A

Increased inflation.

Effectiveness may be limited by lack of confidence.

Banks may not be willing to lend (confidence).

193
Q

What is contractionary monetary policy and what is its goal?

A

‘Tight’ monetary policy refers to monetary policy that is pursued during an inflationary gap.

The goal is to decrease investment and consumption spending.

The central bank will choose to decrease money supply.

194
Q

Name 2 strengths of contractionary monetary policy.

A

Controls inflation.

Reduces price level.

195
Q

Name 2 weaknesses of contractionary monetary policy.

A

Economic slowdown.

Increased unemployment.

Conflict with other macroeconomic objectives.

Time lags.

196
Q

What is fiscal policy?

A

Fiscal policy refers to manipulations by the government of its own expenditures and taxes to influence the level of aggregate demand.

197
Q

Name 3 goals of fiscal policy.

A

Maintain a low and stable rate of inflation.

Maintain unemployment at low rates.

Reduce business cycle fluctuations.

Promote a stable economic environment.

Achieve an equitable distribution of income.

198
Q

What three positions can the government budget be in?

A

Balanced budget: When government expenditure is equal to government revenue.

Budget deficit: When government expenditure is greater than government revenue.

Budget surplus: When government expenditure is less than government revenue.

199
Q

What is the Keynesian multiplier?

A

The Keynesian multiplier is a numerical value that describes the proportional amount by GDP increases as a result of expansionary fiscal policy.

200
Q

What are the two formulas to calculate the Keynesian multiplier?

A

KM = 1/ (1-MPC)

KM = 1 / (MPS +MPT + MPM)

201
Q

What is MPS?

A

MPC (Marginal propensity to save): The MPC is the fraction of an extra dollar of income that an individual decides to save rather than spend.

202
Q

What is MTP?

A

MPT (Marginal propensity to tax): The MPT is the portion of each additional dollar of income that is taken by taxes.

203
Q

What is MPM?

A

MPM (Marginal propensity to import): It refers to the fraction of additional income that is spent on importing goods and services from abroad.

204
Q

What formula is used to see how much the KM changes GDP?

A

Change in GDP = KM autonomous expenditure.

205
Q

What is autonomous expenditure?

A

Autonomous expenditure is spending that does not depend on the current level of income or output. This means it happens regardless of the economic situation, such as government spending on infrastructure or a household’s minimum spending on necessities.

206
Q

What is expansionary fiscal policy?

A

Expansionary fiscal policy refers to the increase in government expenditure and/or a decrease in taxes.

207
Q

Name 2 strengths of expansionary monetary policy.

A

Decreases unemployment.

Directly influences AD.

Assists low-income households.

208
Q

Name 3 limitations of expansionary fiscal policy.

A

Conflict between macroeconomic objectives (demand-pull inflation).

Political constraints.

Time lags.

209
Q

What is contractionary fiscal policy?

A

Contractionary fiscal policy refers to the decrease in government expenditure and/or an increase in taxes.

210
Q

Name 2 strengths of contractionary monetary policy.

A

Controls inflation.

Stabilizes the economy.

Leads to a sustainable use of the factors of production.

211
Q

Name 2 weaknesses of contractionary monetary policy.

A

Time lags.

Conflict of macroeconomic objectives (unemployment and economic growth).

Political constraints/unpopularity.

212
Q

What are supply side policies?

A

Refer to policies aimed at stimulating the supply side of the economy.

213
Q

Name 3 goals of supply side policies.

A

Promoting long-term growth via increasing the productive capacity of the economy.

Improve competition and efficiency.

Reduce costs of labour.

Increase firm efficiency.

Reducing inflation.

214
Q

What are market-based supply-side policies?

A

Market-based supply-side policies refer to policies that focus on allowing markets to operate more freely with minimal government intervention.

215
Q

Name 3 examples of market-based supply-side policies?

A

Lowering business taxes.

Lowering personal-income taxes.

Lowering taxes on capital gains (e.g. stocks, bonds and real estate).

Weakening the power of labour unions.

Abolishing minimum wage legislation.

Reducing unemployment benefits.

Privatisation.

Deregulation.

216
Q

What are the disadvantages of market-based supply side policies?

A

Possible negative impacts of equity.

Generation of negative externalities.

Time lags.

217
Q

What are interventionist supply-side policies?

A

Interventionist supply-side policies refer to policies that focus on governments directly intervening in markets.

218
Q

Name 3 examples of interventionist supply-side policies.

A

Training and education.

Improved health care services.

Increased R & D.

The provision of infrastructure.

The maintenance of infrastructure.

219
Q

What are the constraints of interventionist supply-side policies?

A

Opportunity cost for the government.

Time lags.

220
Q

Name 2 ways that demand-side and supply-side policies overlap.

A

Increased investment: Both demand-side and supply-side policies can boost immediate economic activity and long-term growth by encouraging more investment in R&D, technology, and capital goods.

Government expenditure: Government spending on infrastructure, education, and healthcare stimulates short-term demand and fosters long-term economic growth by enhancing labour skills and capital efficiency.

Tax policies: Reductions in personal and corporate taxes under both policy approaches increase short-term spending and long-term economic potential by boosting disposable income and encouraging investment and innovation.

221
Q

How is the overlap between supply and demand-side policies illustrated?

A

By a shift in both the AD and LRAS/AS curve.

222
Q

What is free trade?

A

Free trade occurs when there are no barriers to trade, meaning that there is no government intervention.

223
Q

What are the benefits of international trade? Name 3 benefits.

A

All possible answers:

  • Increased competition for domestic producers.
  • More efficient production/ economies of scale.
  • Lower prices for consumers.
  • Greater choice for consumers.
  • Access to larger markets.
  • Acquisition of resources.
224
Q

What is absolute advantage?

A

A country has an absolute advantage if they produce more efficiently than the rest of the world.

This means it is able to manufacture goods at a faster rate and a higher quality, for more profit, than other competing economies.

225
Q

What is comparative advantage?

A

The theory of comparative advantage states that two countries will gain from trade if they specialise in the production of the goods that have the lowest opportunity cost.

226
Q

What are 2 factors that impact comparative advantage?

A

Factor endowments: Refer to the natural resources or advantages a country has. For example, Saudi Arabia has higher oil endowments than the United States, and the United States has a higher capital endowments than Saudi Arabia.

Levels of technology: Some countries are able to increase efficiency through improvements in technology (e.g. Japan developing robotic car assembly lines) and some are not.

227
Q

What is the formula for calculating opportunity cost?

A

Opportunity cost of good

A = Production possibility of producing good B/ Production possibility of producing good A

228
Q

Name 2 limitations to the theory of absolute/comparative advantage.

A

Possible answers:

  • There are only two countries.
  • They only produce two goods.
  • Full employment of resources in the best way.
  • There is perfect information.
  • Technology is constant.
  • There are zero costs of transport.
229
Q

What is a tariff?

A

A tariff is a tax applied per unit on imported goods and services into a country.

230
Q

What impacts do tariffs have on consumer surplus?

A

Consumer surplus decreases as a result of the tariff. Prior to the tariff, consumers paid less for the imported goods, enjoying a high consumer surplus because of the lower prices.

231
Q

What happens to (domestic) producer surplus after a tariff?

A

The producer surplus increases as a result of the tariff, as domestic producers receive a higher price for the goods being taxed.

232
Q

When are tariffs most effective?

A

When they’re imposed on elastic goods.

233
Q

What is a quota?

A

A quota is the legal limit on the quantity of a good that can be imported in a given time frame (usually a year).

234
Q

How does a quota impact consumer surplus?

A

Consumer surplus decreases, because consumers have to pay more and consume less of the goods.

235
Q

How does a quota impact producer surplus?

A

Producer surplus increases for domestic producers, as they are able to sell more, receive a higher price, and not face such stiff competition.

236
Q

What is a subsidy?

A

Subsidies are a payment per unit of output given to firms by the government.

237
Q

What forms can subsidies come in?

A

Direct cash grants, where a set amount of money is given to firms by the governments.

Tax breaks, where certain industries are exempted from certain taxes.

238
Q

How does a subsidy impact consumer and producer surplus?

A

Consumer surplus remains neutral, consumers buy the same at the same price.

Producer surplus increases, as domestic firms increase their competitiveness.

Consumer and producer surplus can overlap.

239
Q

What are administrative barriers?

A

Administrative barriers are less intrusive ways to protect domestic markets from goods/services not deemed of adequate quality.

240
Q

What form can administrative barriers come in?

A

They can come in the form of product standards, voluntary export restraints or ‘buy national’ policies.

241
Q

Name 3 arguments for trade protection?

A

Possible answers:

  • Protection of infant/sunrise economies.
  • National security.
  • Health and safety.
  • Environmental standards.
  • Anti-dumping.
  • Unfair competition.
  • Balance of payments.
  • Source of government revenue.
  • Protection of jobs.
242
Q

Name 3 arguments against trade protection.

A

Possible answers:

  • Misallocation of resources
  • Retaliation
  • Increased costs
  • Higher prices
  • Less choice
  • Lack of incentive for domestic firms to become more efficient
  • Reduced export competitiveness
243
Q

What are preferential trade agreements?

A

Preferential trade agreements (PTA’s) reduce or remove trade barriers (such as tariffs) for specific goods/services between participating countries.

244
Q

What does it mean for a PTA to be unliaterial/non-reciprocal?

A

This means that the country that provides the PTA is not required to receive the same treatment in return.

245
Q

What are the types of PTA?

A

PTA’s can come in the form of bilateral, multilateral or regional trade agreements.

246
Q

What are bilaterial trade agreements?

A

Bilateral Trade Agreements (BTAs), are the simplest type of PTA:
In a BTA, two countries agree to engage in ‘freer trade’.
Freer trade means that the countries agree to reduce/remove tariffs for certain products, but not all.

247
Q

Give an example of a BTA

A

An example of a BTA is the EU-Japan BTA on the most traded goods (machinery/vehicles, chemicals, manufactured goods, etc).

248
Q

What is a multilaterial trade agreement?

A

When more than two countries engage in a PTA, it is called a multilateral trade agreement (MTA):

249
Q

Give an example of a MTA

A

An example of an MTA is the USMCA (United States - Mexico - Canada agreement).

250
Q

What are regional trade agreements?

A

When PTA’s are established between countries that are geographically close to each other, they are called Regional Trade Agreements (RTAs):

251
Q

Give an example of a RTA

A

The European Union (EU)

252
Q

What are the types of trading blocs?

A
  • Free trade areas.
  • Customs unions.
  • Common markets.
  • Monetary unions.
253
Q

What is a free trade area?

A

Free trade areas (FTAs) are the most common type of trading bloc.

FTAs are formed by a bloc (group) of countries signing trade agreements to remove all/most barriers to trade with other countries involved in the agreement.

Countries are free to set their own external policy towards non-member countries.

254
Q

What are custom unions?

A

The only difference between a FTA and custom union is that all the countries in the customs unions set a common external policy towards non-members.
The members of the policy still engage in free trade within themselves.

255
Q

What is a common market?

A

A common market is a type of trade agreement that not only allows free trade between goods/services, but also between the factors of production.

256
Q

What are the factors of production?

A

The factors of production are land, labour, entrepreneurial talent and capital.

257
Q

Give an example of a common market and state why that example is correct.

A

An example of a common market is the EU:

If you have an EU passport, you can work in any EU country.

You also do not need a passport to drive from one EU country to another.

258
Q

What are the components of a monetary union?

A

Free trade

A common external policy

Free movement of the factors of production

A shared currency

259
Q

Give an example of a monetary union?

A

The most known monetary union is the Eurozone/European Monetary Union:
The Eurozone is composed of 20/27 EU countries.

260
Q

Name 3 advantages of monetary unions

A

Posible answers:

Price stability

Reduction of uncertainties

More competitive business environment

Stronger relations between countries

Stronger positions in global trade

261
Q

Name 3 disadvantages of monetary unions

A

Possible answers:

Political difficulties

Loss of control over monetary policy

Restrictions on the use of fiscal policy

Large change needed to swap currencies

262
Q

What is the WTO?

A

The World Trade Organisation (WTO) improves and broadens international trade by setting rules/practices to achieve greater balance and transparency.

263
Q

What is an exchange rate?

A

An exchange rate is the value of a currency expressed in terms of another currency.

264
Q

What market is currency traded in?

A

Forex market

265
Q

What is a floating exchange rate?

A

A floating exchange rate is one that is allowed to be set by the price mechanism of the market, not by government interference.

266
Q

What is apreciation and depreciation?

A

Appreciation is the increase in the value of a currency in terms of another.

Depreciation is the decrease in the value of a currency in terms of another.

267
Q

Name 3 factors that impact the demand/supply for a currency

A

Possible answers:

  • Foreign demand for exports
  • Domestic demand for imports
  • Inward/outward foreign direct investment
  • Inward/outward portfolio investment
  • Remittances
  • Speculation
  • Relative inflation rates
  • Relative interest rates
  • Relative growth rates
  • Central bank intervention
268
Q

How will a depreciation of a currency impact inflation rates?

A
  • Depreciation leads to inflation as the currency’s decreased value makes imports more costly, particularly in countries reliant on imported raw materials.
  • Currency depreciation raises the price of imports, resulting in cost-push inflation by making foreign goods or services more expensive.
  • Depreciation can also enhance demand-pull inflation as consumers shift to domestically produced goods due to the higher cost of imported items, driving up prices if domestic production cannot meet the increased demand.
269
Q

How will an apreciation of a currency impact inflation?

A
  • Appreciation leads to a decrease in inflation as the currency’s increased value makes imports cheaper, particularly in countries dependent on imported raw materials, lowering the cost of goods and services and reducing inflationary pressures.
  • Currency appreciation can reduce demand-pull inflation by making imports more affordable, which decreases the demand for domestically produced goods and services, thereby easing inflationary pressure.
270
Q

How will a apreciation of a currency impact economic growth?

A

Currency appreciation can slow economic growth by making exports more expensive and less competitive abroad, reducing foreign demand for domestic goods and services.

271
Q

How will a depreciation of a currency impact economic growth?

A

Currency depreciation can stimulate economic growth by making exports cheaper and more competitive abroad, increasing foreign demand for domestic goods and services.

272
Q

How will the depreciation of a currency impact unemployment?

A

Currency depreciation can lead to cheaper exports, potentially increasing demand and decreasing unemployment, as new jobs emerge in export-driven sectors and industries that replace imports, which become costlier.

273
Q

How will the apreciation of a currency impact unemployment?

A

If a currency appreciates, exports may cost more and demand could drop, potentially raising unemployment in exporting industries, while cheaper imports might boost jobs in industries relying on foreign materials.

274
Q

How will currency depreaction impact living standards in MEDCs?

A

For most economically developed countries, a depreciation of the currency makes exports more competitive internationally, potentially boosting domestic production and employment in export industries. However, it also makes imports more expensive, which can reduce the purchasing power of consumers and increase the cost of living, especially for imported goods and services.

275
Q

How will currency apreaction impact living standards in MEDCs?

A

For most economically developed countries, an appreciation would make imports cheaper, meaning that consumers have a wider variety to choose from. However, this can cause firms to shift their production to LEDCs, as they do not have to pay workers so much there.

276
Q

How will currency depreaction impact living standards in LEDCs?

A

A depreciation in the currency of least economically developed countries can make their exports more attractive on the global market, potentially supporting local industries and employment. However, it also raises the prices of imports, including vital goods such as food, medicine, and technology, which can adversely affect living standards by increasing inflation and making essential products less affordable for the population.

277
Q

How will currency apreaction impact living standards in LEDCs?

A

For least economically developed countries, an appreciation of the currency can improve purchasing power, making imported goods, technology, and essential commodities more affordable. This can enhance living standards but may also hurt local industries that are not competitive with foreign products, potentially leading to job losses in sectors that cannot compete with cheaper imports. Additionally, LEDCs are usually reliant on tourism, which will fall as a result of appreciation.

278
Q

What are fixed exchange rates?

A

Fixed exchange rate regimes are when a country’s central bank sets and maintains the value of its currency at a specific rate compared to another country.

279
Q

What does the central bank do when they want to weaken the currency?

A

When a weaker currency is needed, the central bank devalues the currency.

280
Q

What does the central bank do when they want to strengthen the currency?

A

When a stronger currency is needed, the central bank reevaluates the currency

281
Q

How would the central bank depreciate a currency?

A

Sell its currency for a foreign currency and keep that foreign currency in reserve.

282
Q

How would the central bank apreciate a currency?

A

Buy its own currency with foreign reserves.

283
Q

What are managed exchange rates?

A

A managed exchange rate system is a system between the floating and the fixed exchange rate system.

It allows the exchange rate of a country to fluctuate with the price mechanism of the forex markets, but fluctuations are confined within a set range (upper and lower limits).

284
Q

What is the main goal of a managed exchange rate system?

A

The main goal of a managed exchange rate system is to avoid significant fluctuations in a short period of time.

285
Q

What is an overvalued currency?

A

An overvalued currency is one whose value is above the equilibrium point.

286
Q

What is an undervalued currency?

A

An undervalued currency is one whose value is below the equilibrium point.

287
Q

Why are undervalued currencies seen as an unfair trade practice?

A

Undervalued currencies would make exports cheaper, which means that the export industries within a nation would have an advantage against foreign competitors.

288
Q

Name 2 advantages of floating exchange rate systems?

A

Flexibility to policy-makers

No need for large reserves

289
Q

Name 3 disadvantages of floating exchange rate systems

A

Possible answers:

  • Uncertainty for stakeholders
  • Negative effects on trade/investment
  • Currency speculation
  • Potential for financial crises
290
Q

What are the advantages of fixed exchange rate systems?

A
  • Degree of certainty for stakeholders
  • Limits on speculation
291
Q

What are the disadvantages of fixed exchange rate systems?

A
  • Need for large reserves
  • Limited flexibility for policy-makers
292
Q

What is the balance of payments?

A

It’s a record of the value of all transactions between the residents of one country and the residents of all other countries in the world over a given period of time.

293
Q

What are the three components of the BoP?

A

The current account

The capital account

The financial account

294
Q

What are credits/debits in the BoP?

A

All the payments received into a country from other countries (inflows) are called credits.

All the payments made to other countries from a country (outflows) are called debits.

295
Q

What are the four components of the current account?

A

The balance of trade in goods

The balance of trade in services

The balance of trade in incomes

The balance of trade in transfers

296
Q

What are the components of the capital account?

A

The balance of trade of capital transfers

The balance of trade in transcations in-produced, non-financial assests

297
Q

What are examples of “transfers” in the current account?

A

Transfers refer to financial flows such as remittances, gifts and foreign aid.

298
Q

What are examples of “transcations in-produced, non-financial assests” in the capital account?

A

Transactions in-produced and non-financial assets are intangible items such as intellectual property, legal agreements (leases) or rights to use something.

299
Q

What are the four components of the financial account?

A

Balance of trade in FDI

Balance of trade in portfolio investments

Balance of trade in reserve assests

Balance of trade in official borrowing

300
Q

Give an example of “reserve assests” that form part of the financial account

A

Reserve assets are foreign currency holdings and other assets held by a central bank that are primarily used to manage the exchange rate.

301
Q

Name 3 implications of a persistent current account defecit.

Verbally explain one.

A

Possible answers:

  • Interest rates.
  • The foreign ownership of domestic assets.
  • National debt.
  • National credit ratings.
  • Demand management.
  • Economic growth.
  • Exchange rates.
302
Q

What are the three methods for correcting a persistent current account defecit?

A

Expenditure-switching policies.

Expenditure-reducing policies.

Supply-side policies.

303
Q

What are expenditure-switiching policies?

A

Expenditure switching-policies are any trade protectionist measures, including:
Tariffs.
Quotas.
Subsidies.

304
Q

What are the potential drawbacks of expenditure-switching policies?

A
  • Higher domestic prices
  • Reduced competition
  • Reduced efficiency
  • Risk of retaliation
305
Q

What are expenditure-reducing policies?

A

Expenditure-reducing policies involve trying to slow down domestic spending in the economy.

306
Q

What are the two forms of expenditure-reducing policies?

Give an example of each

A
  • Contradictory monetary policy (e.g. Increased interest rates).
  • Contradictory fiscal policy (E.g. Increased taxes).
307
Q

What are the potential drawbacks of expenditure-switching policies?

A
  • The risk of recession
  • Currency appreciation
  • Short-term solution (does not adress root cause).
308
Q

What are supply-side policies and how do they correct a persisent current account defecit?

A

Supply-side policies increase the economy’s productive capacity, potentially making domestic products more competitive internationally, which can boost exports.

309
Q

What are supply-side policies likely to be in MEDC’s?

A
  • Easing business regulations
  • Diminishing the influence of trade unions
  • Lowering minimum wage

Overall: Lower production costs, increase national output.

310
Q

What are supply-side policies likely to be in LEDC’s?

A
  • Simplifying business establishment processes
  • Improved acsess to credit
  • Ensuring a non-corrupt regulatory framework (creating a trustworthy environment for investment)
311
Q

Name the potential drawback of supply-side policies?

A
  • Increases inequality
312
Q

What is the Marshall-Lerner condition?

A

The Marshall-Lerner condition (MLC) describes the circumstances under which a depreciation of the domestic currency will lead to an improvement in the current account.

313
Q

What does the MLC state?

A

It states that a depreciation will only lead to an improvement in the current account if the sum of the elasticities of a country’s exports and imports is greater than one.

314
Q

What is the formula for the MLC?

A

PEDx + PEDm > 1

315
Q

What happens if the MLC > 1

A

If the MLC > 1, it means that the depreciation of the currency will improve the trade balance.

316
Q

What happens if the MLC < 1

A

If the MLC < 1, it means that the depreciation of the currency will not improve the trade balance, it will worsen an already-existing deficit.

317
Q

What is the J-curve effect?

A

The J-curve models the impact that currency depreciation has on a current account.

In the short-term, currency depreciation will worsen the current account deficit.

However, in the long-term, the depreciation will improve the trade balance and lead to a current account surplus.

318
Q

Why will the depreciation of the currency lead to a worsening of the current-account defecit in the short-term?

A
  • The period of time is too brief for customers to adjust their consumption decisions away from imports and to domestically produced goods.
319
Q

What are the implications of a persisent current account surplus?

A
  • Domestic consumption and investment: A current account surplus may decrease domestic consumption and investment due to more capital flowing abroad, reducing funding for domestic projects and spending.
  • Pressure on the exchange rate: Upward pressure on the exchange rate from a current account surplus can appreciate the currency, making exports costlier, slowing economic growth, and potentially increasing unemployment.
  • Export competitiveness: Increased export prices from currency appreciation due to a current account surplus can reduce export competitiveness, leading to unemployment in export sectors and more competitive imports affecting domestic industries.