Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NURS 305 - Exam 2 > All Cards > Flashcards

All Cards Flashcards

1
Q

______% of adult body weight is water

A

60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Total body water (TBW) is higher in ______

A

Infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Total body water (TBW) is lower in ______

A

Older adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fluid intake = ______

A

Fluid output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

______ is a strong indicator of fluid imbalance

A

Sudden weight change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Insensible fluid loss …

A

Cannot be measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In what areas may insensible fluid loss occur? (3)

A
  • Skin
  • Lungs
  • GI tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Death may occur if ______% of TBW is lost

A

20 - 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

______ is the primary electrolyte in extracellular fluid

A

Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe hypertonic dehydration

A

Water loss > sodium loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe hypotonic dehydration

A

Sodium loss > water loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe isotonic dehydration

A

Sodium loss = water loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can be used to replace lost fluids? (3)

A
  • Crystalloids
  • Colloids
  • Blood products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens to isotonic solutions when administered?

A

Stay in the vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What happens to hypotonic solutions when administered?

A

Leave the vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens to hypertonic solutions when administered?

A

Enter the vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acids ______ H+ ions

A

Release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bases ______ H+ ions

A

Accept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Increased H+ concentration = ______ pH

A

Decreased (acidic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Decreased H+ concentration = ______ pH

A

Increased (alkaline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the mechanism of action of crystalloids?

A

Replacement of fluids and electrolytes found in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the some examples of crystalloids? (2)

A
  • 0.9% NSS
  • Lactated ringers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Crystalloids contain … (2)

A
  • Water
  • Sodium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a possible adverse effect of crystalloids?

A

Pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the mechanism of action of colloids?

A

Create an isotonic environment –> increases blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are some examples of colloids? (2)

A
  • 5% albumin
  • Dextran
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which type of colloid has a rapid onset of action and a long duration?

A

5% albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Colloids contain … (4)

A
  • Proteins
  • Carbs
  • Fats
  • Animal collagen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the indications of colloids? (2)

A
  • Shock
  • Burns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are some possible side effects of colloids? (2)

A
  • Coagulation
  • Increased bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the mechanism of action of blood products?

A

Pull fluid from extravascular space into intravascular space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

______ are the only fluid able to carry oxygen

A

Blood products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the indications of blood products? (3)

A
  • Anemia
  • Acute bleeding
  • Increased clotting factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are some possible adverse effects of blood products? (3)

A
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Hepatitis
  • HIV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

______ are the most expensive and least available fluid

A

Blood products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

______ increase clotting capabilities

A

Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

______ increase clotting factors

A

Fresh frozen plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

______ Increases oxygen carrying capacity

A

pRBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

______ Increases oxygen carrying capacity, but is more beneficial because it contains plasma and plasma proteins

A

Whole blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is total parental nutrition (TPN)?

A

Administration of nutrients bypassing the GI tract (IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

TPN has a high ______ in order to provide calories

A

Glucose concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How is TPN administered?

A

PICC line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How long does TPN last?

A

> 7 - 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In the case of TPN, patient temperature must be monitored every ______ hours

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

During TPN administration, it is important to monitor glucose for ______

A

Hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

If TPN infusion runs out prior to the next bag, hang ______

A

10% dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Colloids should be administered ______

A

Slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the water soluble vitamins? (2)

A
  • B
  • C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the fat soluble vitamins? (4)

A
  • A
  • D
  • E
  • K
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Describe fat soluble vitamins (4)

A
  • Stored in liver
  • Excreted in feces
  • Slowly metabolized
  • Daily intake not required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

______ is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption

A

Intrinsic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Injury to ______ causes a lack of intrinsic factor

A

Gastric lining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Intrinsic factor is released by ______ within the gastric lining

A

Parietal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the 4 types of macro-nutrients?

A
  • Calcium
  • Magnesium
  • Potassium
  • Sodium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What 3 systems are responsible for regulation of electrolytes?

A
  • Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
  • ADH
  • SNS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

______ is the most abundant mineral

A

Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Absorption of calcium requires adequate amounts of ______

A

Vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Calcium has an inverse relationship with ______

A

Phosphorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the indications of calcium carbonate? (2)

A
  • Dyspepsia
  • Postmenopausal osteoporosis prevention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the primary side effect of calcium carbonate?

A

Nephrolithiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What can occur as a result of calcium carbonate toxicity? (3)

A
  • Cardiac irregularities
  • Coma
  • Delirium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

______ is the most plentiful cation of intracellular fluid

A

Magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the primary indication of magnesium sulfate?

A

Ventricular arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the side effects of magnesium sulfate? (3)

A
  • Decreased reflexes
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hyperkalemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What can occur as a result of magnesium sulfate toxicity? (2)

A
  • Deep tendon reflex loss
  • CNS depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How is magnesium sulfate toxicity treated? (2)

A
  • IV calcium
  • Furosemide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What results from the interaction of K+ sparing diuretics and ACE inhibitors?

A

Hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What results from the interaction of diuretics and mineralocorticoids?

A

Hypokelmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Hyperkalemia is caused by a shift of K+ …

A

Out of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the manifestations of hyperkalemia? (3)

A
  • Muscle weakness
  • Palpitations
  • EKG changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Low K+ can increase digoxin toxicity and cause ______

A

Ventricular dysrhthmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Parenteral infusions of ______ must be monitored closely

A

Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

IV potassium must NOT be administered at a rate faster than ______ to patients on cardiac monitors

A

10 mEq / hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

______ give potassium as an IV bolus or undiluted

A

NEVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the side effects of sodium? (2)

A
  • Cramps
  • Venous phlebitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Aldosterone can ______ Na+ and Cl-

A

Conserve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Aldosterone can cause ______ of potassium

A

Excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the manifestations of hypernatremia? (3)

A
  • Anorexia
  • Restlessness
  • Lethargy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the manifestations of hyponatremia? (2)

A
  • Stomach cramps
  • Seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Hyponatremia can be …

A

Absolute or relative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the 3 types of micro-nutrients?

A
  • Iodine
  • Iron
  • Zinc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

______ is an essential component of T3 and T4 synthesis

A

Iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

______ increases thyroid uptake of iodine for T3 and T4 production

A

TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

______ causes increased TSH

A

Low iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Low iodine results in ______

A

Goiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

______ is an oxygen carrier in hemoglobin and myoglobin

A

Iron ferrous sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Where is iron ferrous sulfate stored? (3)

A
  • Liver
  • Spleen
  • Bone marrow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The following foods ______ iron absorption:

  • Organice juice
  • Veal
  • Fish
  • Ascorbic acid
A

Enhance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The following foods ______ iron absorption:

  • Eggs
  • Corn
  • Beans
  • Phytates
A

Impair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

______ is important in wound healing and tissue growth

A

Zinc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are some examples of isotonic solutions? (2)

A
  • 0.9% NSS
  • Lactated ringers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is an example of a hypotonic solution?

A

0.45% saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is an example of a hypertonic solution?

A

3% saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of a cold (2)

A
  • Inflammatory response –> increased mucus
  • Mucous drips down the pharynx –> esophagus –> lower respiratory tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Release of inflammatory substances in the case of a cold causes …

A

Dilation - nasal congestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of antihistamines

A

Block histamine receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Do NOT push off histamine that is …

A

Already bound to a receptor (compete for unoccupied receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Histamines are beneficial when …

A

Given early

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are the functions of histamine 1? (2)

A
  • Smooth muscle contraction
  • Capillary dilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the functions of histamine 2? (2)

A
  • Heart rate acceleration
  • Gastric acid secretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Excessive release of histamine can lead to ______

A

Anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What type of antihistamine is diphenhydramine (Benadryl)?

A

1st generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Describe the characteristics of 1st generation antihistamines (2)

A
  • High sedating effect
  • High anticholinergic effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What type of antihistamine is loratadine (Claritin)?

A

2nd generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Describe the characteristics of 2nd generation antihistamines (2)

A
  • Low sedating effect
  • Low anticholinergic effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the indications of antihistamines? (3)

A
  • Allergies / urticaria
  • Motion sickness
  • Parkinson’s disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are the contraindications of antihistamines? (5)

A
  • BPH
  • Bronchial asthma
  • COPD
  • Narrow angle glaucoma
  • Seizure disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the primary side effect of antihistamines?

A

Drowsiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are the anticholinergic effects of antihistamines? (4)

A
  • Dry mouth
  • Visual changes
  • Urinary retention
  • Constipation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Antihistamines require caution use in what population?

A

Elderly men (BPH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are some examples of H2 blockers? (4)

A
  • Axid
  • Pepcid
  • Tagament
  • Zantac
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are some examples of H1 blockers? (4)

A
  • Allegra
  • Benadryl
  • Claritin
  • Zyrtec
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the 3 subclasses of nasal decongestants?

A
  • Adrenergics
  • Anticholinergics
  • Corticosteroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of adrenergics (2)

A
  • Constriction –> nasal drainage
  • Stimulation of sympathetic nervous system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the primary indication of adrenergics?

A

Sinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are some examples of adrenergics? (2)

A
  • Sudafed
  • Afrin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the side effects of adrenergics? (4)

A
  • Increased BP
  • Insomnia
  • Palpitations
  • Tremors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of anticholinergics

A

Dilation –> prevents nasal drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the primary indication of anticholinergics?

A

Rhinorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is an example of an anticholinergic?

A

Atrovent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of corticosteroids

A

Control of inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Afrin should be used for no more than ______

A

3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the primary indication of corticosteroids?

A

Rhinorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are some examples of corticosteroids? (3)

A
  • Flonase
  • Nasacort
  • Rhinocort
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is a contraindication of corticosteroids?

A

Nasal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Describe the effects of oral nasal decongestants (3)

A
  • Systemic
  • Delayed onset
  • No rebound congestion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Describe the effect of inhaled nasal decongestants

A

Risk of rebound congestion with adrenergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Describe the effect of topical nasal decongestants

A

Risk of rebound congestion with adrenergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are the 2 types of antitussives?

A
  • Opioid
  • Non-opioid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of antitussives

A

Suppression of cough reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What are the only 2 opioids used as antitussives?

A
  • Codeine
  • Hydrocodone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What are the side effects of opioid antitussives? (3)

A
  • Sedation
  • Dizziness
  • Constipation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is a possible adverse effect from large amount of opioid antitussives?

A

Respiratory depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Describe the teaching associated with opioid antitussives (3)

A
  • Do not combine with other CNS depressants
  • Avoid ethanol
  • No driving
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What are some examples of non-opioid antitussives? (2)

A
  • Delsym
  • Tessalon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Describe the teaching associated with Tessalon

A

Do not chew capsules - causes numbness in mouth and throat (aspiration risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is an example of an expectorant?

A

Mucinex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of expectorants (2)

A
  • Respiratory tract hydration
  • Decreases mucus viscosity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is the primary indication of expectorants?

A

Productive cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What are the side effects of expectorants? (3)

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Gastric irritation
141
Q

Describe the teaching associated with expectorants

A

Increase fluid intake

142
Q

What is an example of a mucolytic?

A

Mucomyst

143
Q

What are the possible routes of mucomyst? (2)

A
  • PO
  • Inhalation
144
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of mucolytics

A

Decreases mucus viscosity

145
Q

What are the side effects of mucolytics? (3)

A
  • Headache
  • Confusion
  • Depression
146
Q

Describe COPD

A

Emphysema and chronic bronchitis

147
Q

What is the primary function of beta adrenergic agonist inhalers?

A

Bronchodilation

148
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of a beta adrenergic agonist inhalers (2)

A
  • Stimulation of beta 2 receptors in the lungs
  • Relaxation of smooth muscle - bronchodilation / increased airflow
149
Q

What are the 2 types of beta adrenergic agonist inhalers?

A
  • Short-acting (rescue)
  • Long-acting (prevention / control)
150
Q

When are short-acting beta-adrenergic agonists used?

A

During the acute phase of an asthma attack

151
Q

What are the side effects of beta-adrenergic agonists? (4)

A
  • Bronchospasm
  • Dry mouth
  • Tachycardia
  • Palpitations
152
Q

What is the maximum dose of short-acting beta-adrenergic agonists?

A

12 puffs / day

153
Q

What occurs if albuterol is used too frequently? (2)

A
  • Loses its beta 2 specific actions
  • Stimulates beta 1 receptors
154
Q

When are long-acting beta-adrenergic agonists used?

A

Prophylactically to prevent asthma attacks

155
Q

What are the side effects of long-acting beta-adrenergic agonists? (3)

A
  • Hypertension
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Hypokalemia
156
Q

What are the contraindications of long-acting beta-adrenergic agonists? (2)

A
  • Acute asthma
  • COPD events
157
Q

What is an example of a long-acting beta-adrenergic agonist?

A

Salmeterol

158
Q

Anticholinergic inhalers are used more in ______ than asthma

A

COPD

159
Q

What is an example of an anticholinergic inhaler?

A

Ipratropium bromide

160
Q

Anticholinergic inhalers are used as a controller medication with ______ effects

A

Slow and prolonged

161
Q

What are the side effects of anticholinergic inhalers? (2)

A
  • Intraocular pressure
  • Urinary retention
162
Q

What are the possible routes of xanthine derivatives? (2)

A
  • PO
  • IV
163
Q

What is an example of a xanthine derivative?

A

Theophylline

164
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of xanthine derivatives

A

Increases cAMP –> bronchodilation

165
Q

Xanthine derivatives are metabolized similarly to ______

A

Caffeine

166
Q

What are the primary risks associated with xanthine derivatives? (2)

A
  • Drug interactions
  • Narrow therapeutic range
167
Q

Xanthine derivatives must be closely monitored with ______

A

Blood draws

168
Q

What is the normal level of theophylline?

A

5 - 15 mcg / mL

169
Q

What is the route of leukotriene modifiers?

A

PO

170
Q

What are the 2 types of leukotriene modifiers?

A
  • Direct
  • Indirect
171
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of leukotriene modifiers

A

Smooth muscle relaxation –> airway dilation

172
Q

Leukotriene modifiers are a ______

A

Controller medication

173
Q

Describe the teaching associated with leukotriene modifiers

A

Take before bed

174
Q

What are the possible routes of corticosteroids? (3)

A
  • Inhalation
  • PO
  • IV
175
Q

______ corticosteroids have systemic absorption

A

Oral / IV

176
Q

Oral / IV corticosteroids should be in the ______ for the shortest time possible

A

Lowest dose

177
Q

What are the side effects of inhaled corticosteroids? (2)

A
  • Oral candidiasis
  • Oropharyngeal irritation
178
Q

What are the side effects of oral / IV corticosteroids? (2)

A
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Immunosuppression
179
Q

Describe the teaching associated with corticosteroids

A

Rinse mouth after using inhaler

180
Q

What are the primary first lines drug used to treat TB? (2)

A
  • Isoniazid (INH)
  • Rifampin
181
Q

What is the primary indication of isoniazid (INH) / rifampin?

A

Treatment of active / latent TB

182
Q

What is the primary contraindication of isoniazid (INH) / rifampin?

A

Liver disease

183
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of isoniazid (INH) / rifampin

A

Inhibits mycobacteria synthesis

184
Q

What are the side effects of isoniazid (INH)? (2)

A
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Optic neuritis
185
Q

What is the adverse effect of isoniazid (INH) / rifampin?

A

Hepatotoxicity

186
Q

What is the primary drug interaction risk associated with rifampin?

A

Highly protein bound drugs

187
Q

What unique characteristic of rifampin is important in patient teaching?

A

Colors all body fluid reddish orange

188
Q

2nd generation antihistamines have ______

A

High antihistamine activity

189
Q

What side effect is associated with Afrin?

A

Rebound congestion

190
Q

Anticholinergics block ______

A

Acetylcholine

191
Q

______ may occur if the recommended dosage of Delsym is exceeded - commonly abused

A

Sedation

192
Q

Opioid antitussives also function as ______

A

Analgesics

193
Q

Describe the treatment of asthma (2)

A
  • Decrease inflammation
  • Bonchodilation
194
Q

______ is more common with albuterol than xopenex

A

Tachycardia

195
Q

Long-acting beta-adrenergic agonists are often combined with ______

A

Anti-inflammatory drugs (steroids)

196
Q

Anticholinergic inhalers are used as an adjunctive therapy to prevent ______

A

Wheezing and dyspnea

197
Q

Anticholinergic inhalers require caution in patients with what conditions? (2)

A
  • Acute narrow angle glaucoma
  • Prostate enlargement
198
Q

High levels of cAMP contribute to ______

A

Smooth muscle relaxation

199
Q

Large doses of xanthine derivatives stimulate the cerebrovascular system causing …

A

Increased blood flow to kidneys –> dilation of renal blood vessels and increased GFR (diuretic effect)

200
Q

Isoniazid (INH) can also be used for ______

A

Prophylaxis

201
Q

What is an example of a short-acting beta-adrenergic agonist?

A

Albuterol

202
Q

What 3 hormones are secreted by the thyroid gland?

A
  • Thyroxine (T4)
  • Triiodothyronine (T3)
  • Calcitonin
203
Q

The thyroid gland is responsible for ______

A

BMR

204
Q

What are the manifestations of hypothyroidism? (3)

A
  • Facial edema
  • Fatigue
  • Intolerance to cold
205
Q

Patients with hypothyroidism are lacking ______

A

T3 and T4

206
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of synthroid (3)

A
  • Increases metabolic rate –> converts T4 to T3
  • Increases catecholamine sensitivity –> increases cardiac output
  • Increases renal blood flow / GFR –> diuretic effect
207
Q

What are the side effects of synthroid? (2)

A
  • Diaphoresis
  • Weight loss
208
Q

What are the adverse effects of synthroid? (2)

A
  • Osteoporosis
  • Seizures
209
Q

Describe the nursing considerations of synthroid (2)

A
  • Long half-life - single dose per day
  • Stop tube feed before and after administration
210
Q

When does the maximum therapeutic effect of synthroid occur?

A

4 - 6 weeks

211
Q

What are the routes of synthroid? (2)

A
  • PO
  • IV
212
Q

What are the manifestations of hyperthyroidism? (4)

A
  • Bulging eyes
  • Facial flushing
  • Finger clubbing
  • Intolerance to heat
213
Q

Describe the treatment of hyperthyroidism (3)

A
  • Destruction of thyroid gland
  • Thyroidectomy
  • Antithyroid drugs
214
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of tapazole

A

Inhibits synthesis of T3 / T4

215
Q

What is the primary side effect of tapazole?

A

Agranulocytosis

216
Q

Describe the nursing considerations of tapazole (2)

A
  • Not safe during pregnancy / lactation
  • Monitor CBC - pancytopenia (low platelets)
217
Q

When does the maximum therapeutic effect of tapazole occur?

A

12 weeks

218
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of PTU

A

Inhibits synthesis of T3 / T4

219
Q

What is the primary concern of PTU?

A

Liver function

220
Q

Describe the primary nursing consideration of PTU

A

Requires multiple doses per day

221
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of iodine-131

A

Thyroid gland destruction

222
Q

Describe the nursing considerations of iodine-131 (2)

A
  • Not safe during pregnancy / lactation
  • Causes life-long hypothyroidism
223
Q

When does the maximum therapeutic effect of iodine-131 occur?

A

8 - 12 weeks

224
Q

Describe the nursing considerations of antithyroid medications (4)

A
  • Avoid food high in iodine
  • Better tolerated with food
  • Combine to maintain blood levels
  • Do not stop abruptly
225
Q

What is the primary adverse effect of thyroid drugs?

A

Dysrhythmias

226
Q

What is the primary adverse effect of anti-thyroid drugs?

A

Leukopenia

227
Q

______ is a growth hormone drug

A

Genotropin

228
Q

Genotropin targets the ______

A

Anterior pituitary

229
Q

What are the indications of genotropin? (2)

A
  • Hypopituitary dwarfism
  • Wasting / cachexia from HIV
230
Q

What are the routes of genotropin? (2)

A
  • SQ
  • IM
231
Q

Genotropin dosing is ______

A

Weight based

232
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of desmopressin (DDAVP)

A

Mimics ADH —> retains water

233
Q

What are the indications of desmopressin (DDAVP)? (3)

A
  • Acute bleeding disorders
  • Diabetes insipidus
  • Nocturnal enuresis
234
Q

What are the side effects of desmopressin (DDAVP)? (2)

A
  • Hyponatremia
  • Water intoxication
235
Q

Describe the nursing implications of desmopressin (DDAVP) (2)

A
  • Daily weights
  • Monitor renal function
236
Q

Genotropin should increase ______ in children

A

Growth

237
Q

Desmopressin (DDVAP) should reduce ______ and decrease urinary output

A

Thirst

238
Q

The primary purpose of corticosteroids is to …

A

Decrease inflammation

239
Q

Prednisone is an intermediate acting ______

A

Glucocorticoid

240
Q

______ is the most commonly used oral glucocorticoid for anti-inflammatory / immunosuppressant purposes

A

Prednisone

241
Q

What is prednisone used to treat?

A

Exacerbations of chronic respiratory illnesses

242
Q

Hydrocortisone is a short-acting ______

A

Glucocorticoid

243
Q

20 mg of hydrocortisone = ______ of prednisone

A

5 mg

244
Q

What is hydrocortisone used to treat?

A

Chronic adrenal insufficiency

245
Q

Which route of hydrocortisone has the lowest potency?

A

Topical

246
Q

______ is the most commonly used injectable glucocorticoid drug

A

Solu-medrol

247
Q

What is the route of solu-medrol?

A

IV

248
Q

Injectable formulations containing benzyl alcohol cannot be given to children under ______

A

28 days of age

249
Q

Describe the nursing considerations of corticosteroids (3)

A
  • Monitor for edema
  • Monitor electrolytes
  • Do not take with alcohol, aspirin, or NSAIDs
250
Q

What is the primary side effect of hydrocortisone?

A

Sodium / water retention

251
Q

What are the routes of corticosteroids? (4)

A
  • PO
  • IV
  • IM
  • Rectal
252
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of fludrocortisone acetate (2)

A
  • Sodium retention
  • Potassium excretion
253
Q

What can occur as a result of sudden discontinuation of corticosteroid drugs?

A

Drop in serum levels / cortisone

254
Q

Fludrocortisone acetate is a ______

A

Mineralocorticoid

255
Q

What is the primary indication of fludrocortisone acetate?

A

Adrenocortical insufficiency (Addison’s disease)

256
Q

What are the adverse effects of fludrocortisone acetate? (2)

A
  • Intracranial pressure
  • Seizures
257
Q

What is the primary side effect of fludrocortisone acetate?

A

Hypokalemia - monitor cardiac changes (U waves)

258
Q

Thyroxine (T4) is converted to ______ peripherally

A

Triiodothyronine (T3)

259
Q

IV synthroid is rarely used and should be ______ of oral dose

A

50%

260
Q

What are some examples of antithyroid drugs? (3)

A
  • Tapazole
  • PTU
  • Iodine-131
261
Q

Tapazole cannot inactivate already formed ______

A

Thyroid hormone

262
Q

Describe the administration of synthroid (3)

A
  • In the morning
  • 30 - 60 minutes prior to food
  • With full glass of water
263
Q

Tube feedings ______ absorption of synthroid

A

Decrease

264
Q

Are the following manifestations of hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism?

  • Bradycardia
  • Constipation
  • Weight gain
A

Hypothyroidism

265
Q

Are the following manifestations of hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism?

  • Tachycardia
  • Diarrhea
  • Weight loss
A

Hyperthyroidism

266
Q

Steroids differ in what factors related to sodium and fluid retention? (3)

A
  • Duration
  • Extent
  • Potency
267
Q

Describe the administration of oral corticosteroids

A

Given with food

268
Q

What types of tissue are contained in the pancreas? (2)

A
  • Exocrine
  • Endocrine
269
Q

What is the function of exocrine tissue?

A

Production of pancreatic juices

270
Q

What is the function of endocrine tissue?

A

Production of glucagon / insulin

271
Q

______ is the primary source of energy for cells

A

Glucose

272
Q

What is the route of insulin?

A

SQ

273
Q

It is important to rotate insulin sites to avoid risk of ______

A

Lipodystrophy (degeneration of adipose tissue)

274
Q

What is the primary side effect of insulin?

A

Hypoglycemia

275
Q

What factors of insulin are important to know? (3)

A
  • Onset
  • Peak
  • Duration
276
Q

Risk of hypoglycemia is highest during the ______ of insulin action

A

Peak

277
Q

ONLY ______ insulin can be given IV

A

Regular

278
Q

Which type of insulin has the following?

Onset: 15 - 30 minutes

Peak: 1 - 2 hours

Duration: 3 - 5 hours

A

Rapid

279
Q

Which type of insulin has the following?

Onset: 30 - 60 minutes

Peak: 1 - 5 hours

Duration: 6 - 10 hours

A

Short (regular)

280
Q

Which type of insulin has the following?

Onset: 1 - 2 hours

Peak: 6 - 14 hours

Duration: 10 - 18 hours

A

Intermediate

281
Q

Which type of insulin has the following?

Onset: 1 - 2 hours

Peak: none

Duration: 24 hours

A

Long

282
Q

Meal time insulin is also known as ______ insulin

A

Bolus

283
Q

Administer rapid insulin within ______ minutes prior to meal

A

15

284
Q

Administer rapid insulin within ______ minutes after start of meal

A

20

285
Q

What are the agents of short-acting insulin (regular)?

A
  • Humulin R
  • Novolin R
286
Q

Humulin R is available in ______ (concentrated insulin)

A

U-500 (500 units / mL)

287
Q

What are the agents of intermediate (NPH) insulin?

A
  • Humulin N
  • Novolin N
288
Q

Intermediate (NPH) is ______ insulin

A

Basal

289
Q

When is intermediate (NPH) insulin administered?

A

Morning and evening

290
Q

Describe the appearance of intermediate (NPH) insulin

A

Cloudy appearance - roll before administration

291
Q

What are the agents of mixed insulin? (3)

A
  • Humulin
  • Novolin
  • Novolog
292
Q

Never mix ______ insulins

A

Basal

293
Q

Describe the steps of mixing insulin

A

** Draw up the clear (fast-acting) before the cloudy (long-acting)

  • Inject air into cloudy
  • Inject air into clear
  • Withdraw clear
  • Withdraw cloudy
294
Q

Lantus insulin is ______

A

Long-acting

295
Q

Levemir insulin is ______

A

Long-acting

296
Q

Lantus insulin requires ______ daily dosing

A

Once

297
Q

Levemir insulin requires ______ daily dosing

A

Twice

298
Q

Levemir is ______

A

Weight-based

299
Q

Levemir is a ______ insulin

A

Basal

300
Q

Subcutaneous short-acting or regular insulin doses are adjusted according to ______

A

Blood glucose test results

301
Q

When is the sliding-scale (correction factor) used in insulin dosing?

A

TPN / enteral tube feedings

302
Q

Subcutaneous insulin is ordered in an amount that increases as ______ increases

A

Blood glucose

303
Q

Describe the disadvantages of sliding-scale (correction factor) insulin dosing (2)

A
  • Delays insulin until onset of hyperglycemia
  • Swings in glucose control
304
Q

Describe the 2 coverages of insulin

A
  • Basal coverage - 24 hour need
  • Food coverage - 2 hour need / meal
305
Q

Name an example of a biguanide (glucophage)

A

Metformin

306
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of biguanides (glucophages) (2)

A
  • Decrease glucose release
  • Increase insulin sensitivity
307
Q

Glucophage does not cause ______

A

Hypoglycemia

308
Q

Describe the nursing considerations of biguanides (glucophages) (2)

A
  • Hold 48 hours before / after IV contrast
  • Monitor renal function
309
Q

What is the primary side effect of biguanides (glucophages)?

A

Lactic acidosis

310
Q

______ medications are most frequently used for recently diagnosed type II diabetics

A

Oral

311
Q

Name an example of a sulfonylurea

A

Glucotrol

312
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of sulfonylureas (2)

A
  • Decrease insulin resistance
  • Increase insulin secretion
313
Q

What is the primary indication of glucotrol?

A

Poor renal function

314
Q

What are the side effects of sulfonylureas? (2)

A
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Weight gain
315
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of alpha-glucoside inhibitors

A

Delay absorption of glucose

316
Q

Why must alpha-glucoside inhibitors be taken with meals?

A

Prevention of postprandial blood glucose elevations

317
Q

Name an example of an alpha-glucoside inhibitor

A

Precose

318
Q

What are the side effects of alpha-glucoside inhibitors? (3)

A
  • Flatulence
  • Diarrhea
  • Abdominal pain
319
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of dipeptidyl peptidase IV (DPP-IV) inhibitors

A

Delay breakdown of incretin

320
Q

What are the functions of incretin? (2)

A
  • Increases insulin synthesis
  • Decreases glucagon breakdown
321
Q

Dipeptidyl peptidase IV (DPP-IV) inhibitors should NOT be used with ______

A

Insulin

322
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of SGLT-2 inhibitors

A

Inhibits reabsorption of filtered glucose –> promotes excretion of glucose into urine

323
Q

Name an example of a SGLT-2 inhibitor

A

Invokana

324
Q

Describe the dosing of SGLT-2 inhibitors

A

Once a day in the morning

325
Q

What are the side effects of SGLT-2 inhibitors? (2)

A
  • UTIs
  • Vaginal infections
326
Q

What is the primary adverse side effect of thiazolidinediones (TZDs)?

A

Congestive heart failure due to fluid retention

327
Q

DO NOT use ______ with heart failure patients

A

Thiazolidinediones (TZDs)

328
Q

Administer meglitinides within ______ minutes prior to meal

A

15 - 30

329
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of GLP-1 agonists (3)

A
  • Suppress elevated glucagon
  • Slow gastric emptying
  • Decrease appetite
330
Q

Name some examples of GLP-1 agonists (3)

A
  • Byetta
  • Ozempic
  • Victoza
331
Q

Byetta and victoza should be administered ______ hours apart from oral meds

A

1 - 2

332
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of amylin agonists (2)

A
  • Slows gastric emptying
  • Suppresses glucagon
333
Q

______ is a natural hormone released by the beta cells in response to food and reduces postprandial blood glucose

A

Amylin

334
Q

______ in patients with diabetes is 8 times higher than in general population

A

MI

335
Q

Name 2 examples of medications used to reduce cardiovascular death in diabetics

A
  • Jardiance
  • Liraglutide
336
Q

Check ______ before giving insulin

A

Blood glucose level

337
Q

Describe the storage of insulin pens / vials (2)

A
  • Unopened insulin pens or vials should be kept in the refrigerator
  • Open vials or pens may be kept at room temperature for 28 days
338
Q

What is the first rule of treating diabetes?

A

Minimize hypoglycemic events

339
Q

Describe the rule of 15s

A
  • Give patient 15 grams of quick-acting carbohydrates
  • Wait 15 minutes and test blood glucose
  • If unable to test, treat every 15 min until symptoms resolve
340
Q

What does complete lack of insulin lead to? (3)

A
  • Polyuria
  • Polydipsia
  • Polyphagia
341
Q

What are some examples of rapid insulin? (3)

A
  • Aspart
  • Lispro
  • Glulisine
342
Q

Administer rapid insulin within ______ minutes prior to meal

A

30

343
Q

Administer mixed insulin within ______ minutes prior to meal

A

30

344
Q

Which type of insulin is 70% intermediate, 30% short?

A

Humulin

345
Q

Which type of insulin in 70% long, 30% short?

A

Novolin

346
Q

Which type of insulin is 70% long, 30% rapid?

A

Novolog

347
Q

Biguanides (glucophages) are used for those with BMI of ______

A

> 25% (weight loss effect)

348
Q

What are the indications of biguanides (glucophages)? (2)

A
  • Pre-diabetes
  • Polycystic ovarian disease

NURS 305 - Exam 2 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions