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NURS 305 - Exam 2 > IV Fluids, Nutrients, and Electrolytes > Flashcards

IV Fluids, Nutrients, and Electrolytes Flashcards

1
Q

______% of adult body weight is water

A

60

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2
Q

Total body water (TBW) is higher in ______

A

Infants

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3
Q

Total body water (TBW) is lower in ______

A

Older adults

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4
Q

Fluid intake = ______

A

Fluid output

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5
Q

______ is a strong indicator of fluid imbalance

A

Sudden weight change

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6
Q

Insensible fluid loss …

A

Cannot be measured

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7
Q

In what areas may insensible fluid loss occur? (3)

A
  • Skin
  • Lungs
  • GI tract
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8
Q

Death may occur if ______% of TBW is lost

A

20 - 25

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9
Q

______ is the primary electrolyte in extracellular fluid

A

Sodium

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10
Q

Describe hypertonic dehydration

A

Water loss > sodium loss

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11
Q

Describe hypotonic dehydration

A

Sodium loss > water loss

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12
Q

Describe isotonic dehydration

A

Sodium loss = water loss

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13
Q

What can be used to replace lost fluids? (3)

A
  • Crystalloids
  • Colloids
  • Blood products
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14
Q

What happens to isotonic solutions when administered?

A

Stay in the vessel

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15
Q

What are some examples of isotonic solutions? (2)

A
  • 0.9% NSS
  • Lactated ringers
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16
Q

What happens to hypotonic solutions when administered?

A

Leave the vessel

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17
Q

What is an example of a hypotonic solution?

A

0.45% saline

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18
Q

What happens to hypertonic solutions when administered?

A

Enter the vessel

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19
Q

What is an example of a hypertonic solution?

A

3% saline

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20
Q

Acids ______ H+ ions

A

Release

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21
Q

Bases ______ H+ ions

A

Accept

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22
Q

Increased H+ concentration = ______ pH

A

Decreased (acidic)

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23
Q

Decreased H+ concentration = ______ pH

A

Increased (alkaline)

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24
Q

What is the mechanism of action of crystalloids?

A

Replacement of fluids and electrolytes found in the body

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25
Q

What are the some examples of crystalloids? (2)

A
  • 0.9% NSS
  • Lactated ringers
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26
Q

Crystalloids contain … (2)

A
  • Water
  • Sodium
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27
Q

What is a possible adverse effect of crystalloids?

A

Pulmonary edema

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28
Q

What is the mechanism of action of colloids?

A

Create an isotonic environment –> increases blood volume

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29
Q

What are some examples of colloids? (2)

A
  • 5% albumin
  • Dextran
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30
Q

Which type of colloid has a rapid onset of action and a long duration?

A

5% albumin

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31
Q

Colloids contain … (4)

A
  • Proteins
  • Carbs
  • Fats
  • Animal collagen
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32
Q

What are the indications of colloids? (2)

A
  • Shock
  • Burns
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33
Q

What are some possible side effects of colloids? (2)

A
  • Coagulation
  • Increased bleeding
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34
Q

What is the mechanism of action of blood products?

A

Pull fluid from extravascular space into intravascular space

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35
Q

______ are the only fluid able to carry oxygen

A

Blood products

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36
Q

What are the indications of blood products? (3)

A
  • Anemia
  • Acute bleeding
  • Increased clotting factors
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37
Q

What are some possible adverse effects of blood products? (3)

A
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Hepatitis
  • HIV
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38
Q

______ are the most expensive and least available fluid

A

Blood products

39
Q

______ increase clotting capabilities

40
Q

______ increase clotting factors

A

Fresh frozen plasma

41
Q

______ Increases oxygen carrying capacity

42
Q

______ Increases oxygen carrying capacity, but is more beneficial because it contains plasma and plasma proteins

A

Whole blood

43
Q

What is total parental nutrition (TPN)?

A

Administration of nutrients bypassing the GI tract (IV)

44
Q

TPN has a high ______ in order to provide calories

A

Glucose concentration

45
Q

How is TPN administered?

46
Q

How long does TPN last?

A

> 7 - 10 days

47
Q

In the case of TPN, patient temperature must be monitored every ______ hours

48
Q

During TPN administration, it is important to monitor glucose for ______

A

Hyperglycemia

49
Q

If TPN infusion runs out prior to the next bag, hang ______

A

10% dextrose

50
Q

Colloids should be administered ______

51
Q

What are the water soluble vitamins? (2)

52
Q

What are the fat soluble vitamins? (4)

53
Q

Describe fat soluble vitamins (4)

A
  • Stored in liver
  • Excreted in feces
  • Slowly metabolized
  • Daily intake not required
54
Q

______ is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption

A

Intrinsic factor

55
Q

Injury to ______ causes a lack of intrinsic factor

A

Gastric lining

56
Q

Intrinsic factor is released by ______ within the gastric lining

A

Parietal cells

57
Q

What are the 4 types of macro-nutrients?

A
  • Calcium
  • Magnesium
  • Potassium
  • Sodium
58
Q

What 3 systems are responsible for regulation of electrolytes?

A
  • Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
  • ADH
  • SNS
59
Q

______ is the most abundant mineral

60
Q

Absorption of calcium requires adequate amounts of ______

61
Q

Calcium has an inverse relationship with ______

A

Phosphorus

62
Q

What are the indications of calcium carbonate? (2)

A
  • Dyspepsia
  • Postmenopausal osteoporosis prevention
63
Q

What is the primary side effect of calcium carbonate?

A

Nephrolithiasis

64
Q

What can occur as a result of calcium carbonate toxicity? (3)

A
  • Cardiac irregularities
  • Coma
  • Delirium
65
Q

______ is the most plentiful cation of intracellular fluid

66
Q

What is the primary indication of magnesium sulfate?

A

Ventricular arrhythmias

67
Q

What are the side effects of magnesium sulfate? (3)

A
  • Decreased reflexes
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hyperkalemia
68
Q

What can occur as a result of magnesium sulfate toxicity? (2)

A
  • Deep tendon reflex loss
  • CNS depression
69
Q

How is magnesium sulfate toxicity treated? (2)

A
  • IV calcium
  • Furosemide
70
Q

What results from the interaction of K+ sparing diuretics and ACE inhibitors?

A

Hyperkalemia

71
Q

What results from the interaction of diuretics and mineralocorticoids?

A

Hypokelmia

72
Q

Hyperkalemia is caused by a shift of K+ …

A

Out of the cell

73
Q

What are the manifestations of hyperkalemia? (3)

A
  • Muscle weakness
  • Palpitations
  • EKG changes
74
Q

Low K+ can increase digoxin toxicity and cause ______

A

Ventricular dysrhthmias

75
Q

Parenteral infusions of ______ must be monitored closely

76
Q

IV potassium must NOT be administered at a rate faster than ______ to patients on cardiac monitors

A

10 mEq / hr

77
Q

______ give potassium as an IV bolus or undiluted

78
Q

What are the side effects of sodium? (2)

A
  • Cramps
  • Venous phlebitis
79
Q

Aldosterone can ______ Na+ and Cl-

80
Q

Aldosterone can cause ______ of potassium

81
Q

What are the manifestations of hypernatremia? (3)

A
  • Anorexia
  • Restlessness
  • Lethargy
82
Q

What are the manifestations of hyponatremia? (2)

A
  • Stomach cramps
  • Seizures
83
Q

Hyponatremia can be …

A

Absolute or relative

84
Q

What are the 3 types of micro-nutrients?

A
  • Iodine
  • Iron
  • Zinc
85
Q

______ is an essential component of T3 and T4 synthesis

86
Q

______ increases thyroid uptake of iodine for T3 and T4 production

87
Q

______ causes increased TSH

A

Low iodine

88
Q

Low iodine results in ______

89
Q

______ is an oxygen carrier in hemoglobin and myoglobin

A

Iron ferrous sulfate

90
Q

Where is iron ferrous sulfate stored? (3)

A
  • Liver
  • Spleen
  • Bone marrow
91
Q

The following foods ______ iron absorption:

  • Organice juice
  • Veal
  • Fish
  • Ascorbic acid
92
Q

The following foods ______ iron absorption:

  • Eggs
  • Corn
  • Beans
  • Phytates
93
Q

______ is important in wound healing and tissue growth

NURS 305 - Exam 2 (4 decks)

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