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Comprehensive Exam > All anderson reviews combined and shuffled > Flashcards

All anderson reviews combined and shuffled Flashcards

1
Q

which of the following types of neurons would transmit an action potential the fastest? A. small diameter, non-myelinated B. small diameter, myelinated C. large diameter, myelinated D. large diameter, non-myelinated

A

C. large diameter, myelinated

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2
Q

hypocalcemia usually becomes lethal at which of the following levels? A. 12 mg/dl B. 9.5 mg/dl C. 6 mg/dl D. 4 mg/dl

A

D. 4 mg/dl

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3
Q

The human central nervous system develops from a midline tube. The cranial end of the tube is formed into five subdivisions arranged in a linear sequence. The cerebellum of the adult brain is derived from which of the following subdivisions? A. metencephalon B. diencephalon C. telencephalon D. myencephalon

A

A. metencephalon

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4
Q

which of the following cell types respond to rapid changes in the visual image? A. bipolar cells B. amacrine cells C. X type ganglion cells D. Y type ganglion cells E. Z type ganglion cells

A

D. Y type ganglion cells

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5
Q

almost 90 percent of glucose reabsorption occurs in the early proximal tubule. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for moving glucose from the tubular lumen intoo the cytoplasmic compartment? A. primary active transport via a glucose ATPase pump B. secodary active transport via a sodium/glucose cotransporter C. secondary active transport via a sodium/glucose antiporter D. diffusion due to concentration differences between tubular fluid and cytoplasm

A

B. secondary active transport via a sodium/glucose cotransporter

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6
Q

Which of the following forms a muscular sling at the anorectal junction? A. puborectalis B. pubococcygeus C. coccygeus D. iliococcygeus

A

A. puborectalis

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7
Q

identify tissue

A

adipose tissue

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8
Q

identify the following type of tissue A. dense irregular connective tissue B. fibrous connective tissue C. cardiac muscle D. smooth muscle

A

D. smooth muscle

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9
Q

Coordination of skilled movement and speech is primarily associated with which of the following divisions of the cerebellum? A. vestibulocerecellum B. spinocereceullum C. cerecrocerecellum D. vermis

A

C. cerevrocerebellum

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10
Q

two dogs are used in a study to test the effects of a drug that causes hypertension as a possible side effect. In one of the dogs the baroreceptor feedback system has been inactivated. in the dog with the intact feedback system the arterial pressure increased from 100 to 110. in the animal with the inactivated control system, the pressure increases from 100 to 160. what is the effectiveness with which the baroreceptor system controls increase in blood pressure? A. -1 B. -2 C. -4 D. -5

A

D. -5

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11
Q

approximately what percent of the body’s calcium is stored in extracellular fluids? A. less than 1 percent B. 25 percent C. 50 percent D. more than 75 percent

A

A. less than 1 percent

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12
Q

GFR (glomerular filtration rate) is determined by the net filtration pressure and the glomerular capillary filtration coefficient. which of the following factors has the greatest effect on increasing GFR? A. glomerular capillary colloid osmotic pressure B. BOwman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure C. BOwman’s capsule colloid osmotic pressure D. glomerular hydrostatic pressure

A

D. glomerular hydrostatic pressure

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13
Q

identify the structure indicated by the arrow A. Bowman’s membrane B. Decemet’s membrane C. Bruch’s membrane D. pigmented later

A

A. Bowman’s membrane

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14
Q

which of the following sarcomeric bands does not undergo a change in length during the contraction of a skeletal muscle? A. A band B. H band C. I band D. J band E. sgt. pepper’s lonely hearts club band

A

A. A band

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15
Q

which of the following is the fontanelle located at the junction of the sagittal and lamboidal structures? A. anterior B. posterior C. anterolateral D. posterolateral

A

D. posterolateral

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16
Q

approximately what percentage of total cardiac output is received by the kidneys? A. 15% B. 22% C. 34% D. 47%

A

B. 22%

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17
Q

fructose, which provides energy for sperm, is secreted by which of the following? A. seminal vesicles B. prostate gland C. cells of leydig D. sertoli cells

A

A. seminal vesicles

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18
Q

which of the following is the direction of bipolar lead III? A. 0 degrees B. 60 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 120 degrees

A

D. 120 degrees

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19
Q

identify the layer indicated by the arrow A. inner plexiform layer B. outer nuclear layer C. outer plexiform layer D. ganglion nuclear layer

A

B. outer nuclear layer

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20
Q

muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs are types of tonic receptors. Which of the following characteristics applies to tonic receptors? A. rapidly adapting B. transmit information regarding rate of change C. stimulated only when stimulus strength changes D. detects continuous stimulus strength

A

D. detects continuous stimulus strength

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21
Q

while standing in the anatomical position, the palms of the hand are supinated A. true B. false

A

A. true

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22
Q

the muscle of the suboccipital triangle are innervated by which of the following nerves? A. occipital nerve B. cervical nerve 1 C. cervical nerve 2 D. cervical nerve 3

A

B. cervical nerve 1

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23
Q

identify the type of cell shown in this slide A. lymphocyte B. neutrophil C. monocyte D. basophil E. eosinophil

A

B. neutrophil

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24
Q

Of the following ions, which is the most concentrated in the extracellular environment? A. sodium B. potassium C. choride D. calcium

A

A. sodium

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25
Q

identify the type of tissue shown in the photomicrograph below A. pancreas B. lymph node C. spleen D. liver

A

D. liver

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26
Q

glands characterized by sebaceous glands in which the entire secretory cell is lost as part of the secretion are classified as which of the following? A. merocrine B. serous C. eccrine D. apocrine E. holocrine

A

E. holocrine

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27
Q

the small intestine is approximately 21 feet in length. which of the following is the longest of the three subdivisions of the small intestine? A. jejunum B. duodenum C. ileum D. rectum

A

C. ileum

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28
Q

about two-thirds of filtered electrolytes are reabsorbed in which part of the kidney tubule? A. proximal convoluted tubule B. thin descending loop of Henle C. thick ascending loop of Henle D. distal convoluted tubule

A

A. proximal convoluted tubule

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29
Q

identify type of duct shown by arrow A. interlobar B. intterlobular C. intralobular D. main duct

A

B. interlobular

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30
Q

The three capsular ligaments of the hip limit which of the following motions? A. lateral thigh rotation B. hip hyperextension C. hip flexion D. medial thigh rotation

A

B. hyperextension

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31
Q

Which of the following represents the spinal cord levels of origin for the phrenic nerve? A. C1-4 B. C2-5 C. C3-5 D. C3-7

A

C. C3-5

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32
Q

Cranial nerve nuclei V, VI, VII are found in which of the following subdivisions of the brain? A. medulla B. pons C. midbrain D. diencephalon

A

B. pons

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33
Q

during arm (humerus)abduction, the serratus anterior clamps the scapula against the thoracic wall, thereby providing a stable base for the movement of the glenohumeral joint. While engaged in this activity, the serratus anterior muscle would best be described by which of the following terms? A. agonsit B. antagonist C. fixator D. synergist

A

C. fixator

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34
Q

Which of the following features marks the boundary between the false (greater) pelvis and the true (lesser) pelvis? A. pelvic brim B. pelvic diaphragm C. perineum D. iliac crests

A

A. pelvic brim

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35
Q

Remnants of the umbilical arteries are associated with which of the following landmarks on the posterior aspect of the anterior abdominal wall? A. falciform ligament B. medial umbilical folds C. median umbilical folds D. lateral umbilical folds E. ligamentum teres

A

B. medial umbilical folds

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36
Q

cranial nerves characterized by the special visceral motor modality supply which of the following? A. smooth muscles of the gut tract B. skeletal muscles C. muscles derived from pharyngeal arches D. autonomic motor muscles

A

C. muscles derived from pharyngeal arches

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37
Q

in a diarthrosis, which component is more vascularized than the others? A. outer fibrous capsule B. articular cartilage C. ligaments D. synovial membrane

A

D. synovial membrane

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38
Q

Which of the following is secreted by duodenal and upper jejunal cells in response to the presence of acidic foods in the upper intestine? It stimulates the release of large amounts of pancreatic sodium bicarbonate and inhibits gastric acid secretion. A. secretin B. CCK C. gastrin D. motilin

A

A. secretin

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39
Q

which of the following is not found in the popliteal fossa? A. popliteal nerve B. tibial nerve C. poplital artery D. popliteal vein

A

A. popliteal nerve

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40
Q

the mean circulatory filling pressure is 0 under which of the following conditions? A. when blood volume is 5 liters B. when blood volume is 4 liters C. when blood volume is 6.5 liters D. when blood volume is 5.5 liters

A

B. when blood volume is 4 liters

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41
Q

Which of the following nerves wraps around the neck of the radius? A. ulnar B. median C. radial D. musculocutaneous E. axillary

A

C. radial

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42
Q

which of the following scalene muscles attaches to the second rib? A. anterior B. middle C. posterior D. all attach to the first rib

A

C. posterior

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43
Q

which of the following characteristics would be true of cardiac muscle cells but not skeletal muscle fibers? A. cells have the sarcomeric banded pattern B. cells utilize T tubules C. cells are mononucleated D. cells utilize ryanodine

A

C. cells are mononucleated

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44
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are present in the human vertebral column? A. five B. sixe C. seven D. eight E. nine

A

C. seven

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45
Q

which of the following histological staining techniques would be most useful in diagnosing glycogen storage diseases? A. toludine blue B. H&E C. PAS D. fuelgen

A

C. PAS

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46
Q

in the photomicrograph below, identify the group of cells A. juxtaglomerular apparatus B. collecting duct C. ascending loop of Henle D. macula densa

A

D. macula densa

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47
Q

which of the following structures/spaces is associated with the spinal cord but not the brain? A. arachnoid membrane B. pia mater C. subdural space D. epidural space

A

D. epidural space

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48
Q

Which of the following arteries supplies the medial compartment of the thigh? A. femoral B. obturator C. deep femoral D. saphenous

A

B. obtruator

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49
Q

Which of the following scalene muscles attaches to the second rib? A. anterior B. middle C. posterior D. all attach to the first rib

A

C. posterior

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50
Q

Which of the following buffer systems is most important in buffering renal tubular fluid? A. phosphate buffer system B. carbonate buffer system C. bicarbonate buffer system D. hemoglobin buffer system

A

A. phosphate buffer system

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51
Q

which of the following kinds of cells is unique to the pancreas and is associated with the intercalated ducts? A. alpha cells B. paneth ells C. centroacinar cells D. acinar cells

A

C. centroacinar cells

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52
Q

The Va/Q ratio is zero (0) under which of the following conditions? A. Va= infinity, but Q = 0 B. Va=infinity, but Q=1 C. Va= 0, but perfusion > 0 D. Va>0, but Q = 0

A

C. Va=0, but perfusion >0

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53
Q

in a typical ECG, which of the following waves occurs at the beginning of the contraction of the atria? A. T B. S C. P D. Q

A

C. P

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54
Q

a person on serotonin reuptake inhibitors may experience decreased GI motility. The reason for this is primarily due to which of the following reasons? A. secretory neurons of the submucosal plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter B. motor neurons of the myentric plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter C. interneurons of the myenteric plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter D. sensory neurons of the submucosal plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter

A

C. interneurons of the myenteric plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter

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55
Q

The pressure difference between pleural pressure and alveolar pressure is referred to as: A. atmospheric pressure B. compliance C. thoracic pressure D. transpulmonary pressure

A

D. transpulmonary pressure

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56
Q

Significant reduction in ECF and blood volume, diminished cardiac output, and hyperkalemia are characteristic of lack of which of the following? A. aldosterone B. estrogen C. cortisol D. DHEA

A

A. aldosterone

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57
Q

The inguinal ligament attaches to which of the following pairs of structures? A. ASIS and AIIS B. AIIS and ischial spine C. ASIS and pubic tubercle D. ASIS and inferior pubic ramus

A

C. ASIS and pubic tubercle

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58
Q

Which of the following muscles consists of two bellies, originating from the body of the hyoid and the superior border of the scapula? A. omohyoid B. digastric C. geniohyoid D. cervicohyoid

A

A. omohyoid

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59
Q

identify layer indicated by arrow A. tunica media B. external elastic lamina C. internal elastic lamina D. tunica adventitia

A

C. internal elastic lamina

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60
Q

Which of the following structures does not exit the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen? A. superior gluteal artery B. inferior gluteal artery C. sciatic nerve D. obtutrator nerve E. inferior gluteal nerve

A

D. obturator nerve

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61
Q

Which of the following represents the spinal cord levels of origin for the phrenic nerve? A. C1-4 B. C2-5 C. C3-5 D.C3-7

A

C. C3-5

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62
Q

for each molecule of glucosse that is hydrolyzed in glycolysis what is the net gain in ATPs? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

A

A. 2

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63
Q

the male and female external gentialia are derived from homologous embryonic primordia. The genital swellings of the embryo form which of the following adult structures? A. scrotum B. labia minora C. clitoris D. shaft of the penis

A

A. scrotum

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64
Q

alsosterone is an important regulator of sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion; one of its main targets is…? A. podocytes B. principal cells C. intercalated cells D. cells of macula densa

A

B. principal cells

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65
Q

which is the predominant type of tissue seen in the photomicrograph below? A. loose areolar connective tissue B. brown (multilocular)adipose tissue C. reticular connective tissue D. white (uniocular) adipose tissue

A

D. white (unilocular) adipose tissue

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66
Q

the cardiac muscle fast action potential occurs inthe atria, ventricles and conduction system. it is typically divided into five phases, numbered from 0 to 4. the resting potential of -85 mV is characteristic of which of the following phases? A. phase 0 B. phase 1 C. phase 2 D. phase 3 E. phase 4

A

E. phase 4

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67
Q

the tendon of which of the following muscles passes between two sesamoid bones located at the base of the first metatarsus? A. adductor hallucis B. peroneus longus C. flexor hallucis longus D. abductor hallucis

A

C. flexor hallucis longus

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68
Q

vital capacity does not include which of the following volumes? A. inspiratory reserve B. expiratory reserve C. residual D. tidal

A

C. residual

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69
Q

which of the following extrinsic muscles of the eye is not supplied by the oculomotor nerve? A. lateral rectus B. inferior oblique C. medial rectus D. inferior rectus

A

A. lateral rectus

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70
Q

the sodium-potassium ATPase pump is an example if which of the following kinds of transport? A. diffusion B. primary active transport C. secondary active transport D. facilitated dffusion

A

B primary active transport

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71
Q

Floccular lobes in the cerebellum of reptiles may correspond to restiform bodies in cartilaginous fishes. This function is most likely related to which of the following? A. taste B. sight C. memory D. equilibrium

A

D. equilibrium

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72
Q

The rate and depth of breathing is mainly controlled through which of the following brain centers? A. dorsal respiratory group B. pneumotaxic center C. ventral respiratory center D. carotid body

A

B. pneumotaxic center

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73
Q

Which of the following represents the lateral boundary of the femoral triangle? A. adductor magnus B. adductor longus C. sartorius D. pectineus

A

C. sartorius

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74
Q

in the photomicrograph below, the arrow is pointing to which of the following layers? A. stratum basale (germinativum) B. stratus spinosum C. stratum granulosum D. stratum corneum

A

A. stratum basale (germinativum)

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75
Q

respiratory alkalosis due to a decrease in carbon dioxide concentration caused by hyperventilation is compensated for by which of the following mechanisms? A. increased ventilation rate B. decreased ventilation rate C. renal excretion of bicarbonate ion D. renal addition of new bicarbonate ion to extracellular fluid (this is a phys I question)

A

C. renal excretion of bicarbonate ion

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76
Q

which of the following landmakrs demarcates the sensory cortex from the motor cortex? A. lateral sulcus B. central sulcus C. insala D. angular gyrus

A

B. central sulcus

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77
Q

which of the following statements is true? A. the liver has a low blood flow and high vascular resistance B. the liver has a low blood flow and low vascular resistance C. the liver has a high blood flow and high vascular resistance D. the liver has a high blood flow and a low vascular resistance

A

D. the liver has a high blood flow and low vascular resistance

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78
Q

melanin-containing, dopaminergic neurons and iron-containing cells that secrete sertonin and GABA are major components of which of the following? A. substantia nigra B. thalamus C. RAS D. superior colliculi

A

A. Substantia nigra

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79
Q

which of the following muscle groups is part of the intrinsic musculature of the back? A. trapezius B. erector spinae group C. latissimus D. serratus posterior group

A

B. erector spinae group

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80
Q

Which of the following is the newest addition to the telencephalon in mammals? A. pallium B. mid-ventricular ridge C. neocortex D. palocortex

A

C. neocortex

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81
Q

saltatory conduction is characteristic of which part of a typical neuron? A. dendrite B. nerve cell body C. axon hilock D. axon

A

D. axon

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82
Q

respiratory alkalosis due to a decrease in carbon dioxide concentration caused by hyperventilation is compensated for by which of the following mechanisms? A. increased ventilation rate B. decreased ventilation rate C. renal excretion of bicarbonate ion D. renal addition of new bicarbonate ion to extracellular fluid

A

C. renal excretion of bicarbonate ion

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83
Q

which of the following is not part of a portal triad? A. hepatic arterial branch B. portal venule C. hepatic sinusoid D. bile duct

A

C. hepatic sinusoid

84
Q

the cerebral cortex is divided into many areas with specific sets of functions. Which of the following areas of the cerebral cortex would have direct connections with specific muscles? A. primary motor areas B. secondary motor areas C. primary sensory areas D. secondary sensory areas

A

A. primary motor areas

85
Q

identify specific structure

A

lacuna

86
Q

approximately what percentage of carbon dioxide is carried as bicarbonate? A. 5% B. 25% C. 30% D. 70%

A

D. 70%

87
Q

which center is primarily responsible for establishing the ramp signal during normal breathing? A. dorsal respiratory center B. pneumotaxic center C. ventral respiratory center D. carotid body

A

A. dorsal respiratory center

88
Q

Hassall’s corpuscles are characteristic only of which of the following areas? A. cortex of lymph nodes B. medulla of lymph nodes C. cortex of the thymu D. medulla of the thymus

A

D. medulla of the thymus

89
Q

the anterior compartment of the brachium (arm) contains the biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, and brachialis muscles. which of the following nerves suppolies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the brachium? A. ulnar nerve B. median nerve C. radial nerve D. musculocutaneous nerve E. axillary nerve

A

D. musculocutaneous nerve

90
Q

the heart is found in which of the following locations? A. anterior superior mediastinum B. middle superior mediastinum C. anterior inferior mediastinum D. middle inferior mediastinum E. posterior inferior mediastinum

A

D. middle inferior mediastinum

91
Q

Phase 4 of the cardiac muscle action potential is the resting phase. Which of the following cardiac tissues will depolarize fastest during this phase and eventually reach threshold? A. SA node B. AV node C. purkinje fibers D. ventricular myocytes

A

A. SA node

92
Q

the madibular branch of the trigeminal nerve exits the cranial cavity through which of the following foramina? A. foramen ovale B. foramen spinosum C. foramen rotundum D. foramen lacerum

A

A. foramen ovale

93
Q

identify type of gland shown in the photomicrograph below A. submandibular B. sebaceous C. parotid D. Bowman’s

A

B. sebaceous

94
Q

In the photomicrograph below, identify the muscle that attaches to the large red area (1) A. supraspinatus B. subscapularis C. infraspinatus D. teres major E. teres minor

A

C. infraspinatus

95
Q

identify the muscle indicated by the arrow A. latissimus dorsi B. trapezius C. thomboid major D. rhomboid minor

A

B. trapezius

96
Q

Which part of the cerebral cortex develops a “motor image” of the total muscle movement that is to be performed? A. primary motor cortex B. supplemental motor cortex C. premotor cortex D. supplemental sensory cortex

A

C. premotor cortex

97
Q

Which of the following in liters/day represents the GFR in the average adult human? A. 3 B. 125 C. 180 D. 360

A

C. 180

98
Q

identify structure

A

stria vascularis

99
Q

The major constituent of the pelvic diaphragm is the levator ani complex. Which of the following is NOT part of the levator ani complex?\ A. puborectalis B. pubococcygeus C. coccygeus D. iliococcygeus

A

D. iliococcygeus

100
Q

identify the reddish hollow structure in the center of the attached photomicrograph A. vein B. trachea C. bronchiole D. alveolar duct

A

C. bronchiole

101
Q

in typical sensory pathways, decussation occurs at what level? A. primary (first order) neurons B. secondary (second order) neurons C. tertiary (third order) neurons D. none of these

A

B secondary (second order) neurons

102
Q

what would be the refractive power of a lense with a focal length of 50 cm A. 1 diopter B. 2 diopter C. 5 diopter D. 50 diopter

A

B. 2 diopter

103
Q

the output from the cerebellar cortex is from which of the following types of neurons? A. Golgi type I B. Purkinje C. Stellate D. Basket

A

B. Purkinje

104
Q

When hair cell sterocilia are bent, a tugging on the shorter sterocilia occurs such that ion channels open allowing which of the following to enter the hair cells? A. potassium B. sodium C. chloride D. calcium

A

A. potassium

105
Q

the axis of rotation for flexion and extension is…? A. longitudinal or cranial-caudal B. left-right or transverse C. anterior-posterior D. none of the above

A

B. left-right or transverse

106
Q

which of the following organs would not be seen in a mid-sagital section of the human body? A. heart B. lungs C. intestines D. transverse colon E. brain

A

B. lungs

107
Q

which of the following represents the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity? A. infraglottic cavity B. rima glottidis C. rima vestibuli D. space between the vestibular folds

A

B. rima glottidis

108
Q

baroreceptors are a type of stretch receptor located in the arterial walls of the carotid system. They sense an increase in arterial pressure. Which of the following statements might best describe the purpose of these receptors? A. they act as part of a positive feedback system that results in blood vessels dilation and an increase in heart pumping capacity B. they act as part of a negative feedback system that results in blood vessel dilation and a decrease in heart pumping capacity C. they act as part of a positive feedback system that results in blood vessel constriction and a decrease in heart pumping capactiy D. they act as part of a negative feedback system that results in blood vessel constriction and an increase in heart pumping capacity

A

B. they act as part of a negative feedback system that results in blood vessel dilation and a decrease in heart pumping capacity

109
Q

the posterior compartment of the brachium (arm) contains the triceps complex. which of the following nerves supplies the muscles of the posterior compartment of the brachium? A. ulnar nerve B. median nerve C. radial nerve D. musculocutaneous nerve E. axillary nerve

A

C. radial nerve

110
Q

in the photomicrograph below, identify the structure indicated by the red star. A. trochlea B. lateral supracondylar ridge C. medial supracondylar ridge D. capitulum E. olecranon fossa

A

A. trochlea

111
Q

identify type of gland A. parotid gland B. sublingual gland C. submandibular gland D. thyroid gland E. liver

A

B. sublingual gland

112
Q

the anterior belly of the diagastric muscle is derived from the first pharyngeal arch is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. facial B. trigeminal C. glossopharyngeal D. hypoglossal

A

B. trigeminal

113
Q

identify type of epithelium A. transitional B. stratified cuboidal C. simple columnar D. stratified squamous keratinized E. stratified squamous non-keratinized

A

C. simple columnar

114
Q

identify cell

A

monocyte 1000x

115
Q

which of the following inhibits secretion of insulin, glucagon, and gastrin; decreases motility of the stomach and duodenum , and decreases secretion and absorption of the GI tract? A. glucokinase B. carnitine C. somatostatin D. acetoacetic acids

A

C. somatostatin

116
Q

cells that initially lay down cartilage matrix are best identified as which of the following? A. chondroblasts B. osteoclasts C. chondroblasts D. chondrocytes E. fibroblasts

A

C. chondroblasts

117
Q

Which of the following dural sinuses does not connect directly with the confluence of sinuses? A. straight sinus B. transverse sinuses C. superior sagittal sinus D. inferior sagittal sinus

A

D. inferior sagittal sinus

118
Q

Which of the following is part of the pyramidal system of motor pathways? A. rubrospinal tract B. vestibulospinal tract C. corticospinal tract D. reticulospinal tract

A

C. corticospinal tract

119
Q

what is the volume of venous return when he mean systemic filling pressure is 7 mm Hg, and the right arterial pressure is 0 mm Hg, and the resistance to venous return is 1.4 mm Hg/L/min? A. 4 liters/min B. 5 liters/min C. 9.8 liters/min D. 7 liters/min

A

B 5 liters/min

120
Q

name the boundaries of the anatomical snuff box

A
  1. extensor pollicis longus 2. extensor pollicis brevis 3. abductor pollicis brevis hint: he said imagine this one as a which of the following are not part of the anatomical snuff box
121
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves supplies extrinsic and intrinsic muscle of the tongue? A. cranial nerve IX B. cranial nerve X C. cranial nerve XI D. cranial nerve XII

A

D. cranial nerve XII

122
Q

which of the following cranial nerves supplies motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles? A. IX B. X C. XI D. XII

A

C. XI

123
Q

extrensive bilateral lessions involving the mid-pons and the midbrain reticular formation are associated with which of the following conditions? A. consciousness of quadriplegic B. coma C. hypotonia D. unconscious regulation and coordination of motor activities

A

B. coma

124
Q

Which of the following muscles is necessary to “unlock” the knee from its extended position? A. plantaris B. popliteus C. soleus D. lateral head of the gastrocnemius

A

B. popliteus

125
Q

identify large cell in the center of the photomicroraph A. motor neuron n anterior horn of spinal cord B. astrocyte in cerebral cortex C. olifodendrocyte in paravertebral ganglion D. pseudounipolar neuron in dorsal root ganglion

A

D. pseudounipolar neuron in dorsal root ganglion

126
Q

Increase in sexual activity, compulsive tendency to place objects in mouth, decreased emotionality, changes in eating behavior and visual agnosia are characteristics of the Kluver-Bucy syndrome. This results when which of the following is/are bilaterally destroyed? A. substantia nigra B. red nucleus C. amygdala D. thalamus

A

C. amygdala

127
Q

The Trendelenburg test is used to evaluate which of the following muscles? A. pectineus B. gluteus medius C. gluteus maximus D. quadriceps femoris

A

B. gluteus medius

128
Q

the magnocellular zone of the RAS is characterized by a specific type of neuron with long radiating dendrites spread out in a plane perpendicular to the long axis of the brain stem. It has been suggested that the function of this area of the brain stem may be associated with which of the following? A. carrying information from the pineal body to the RAS B. connecting the superior and inferior colliculi C. picking up information from a variety of sources D. linking olfactory and taste sensations to the autonomic nervous system

A

C. picking up information from a variety of sources

129
Q

a systemic vein is about eight times as distensible as its corresponding artery and has a volume about three times as great. How would its compliance compare to that of a corresponding artery? A. 8 times as compliant B. 3 times as compliant C. 24 times as compliant D. 2.6 times as compliant

A

C. 24 times as compliant

130
Q

What is the approximate angle of inclination in the average young adult? A. 175 B. 150 C. 125 D. 74 E. 15

A

C. 125

131
Q

cranial-caudal and left-right axes define which of the following kinds of planes? A. coronal B. sagital C. parasagital D. transverse

A

A. coronal

132
Q

postganglionic fibers from which of the following region of the sympathetic trunk supply all the smooth muscles and glands of the head? A. superior sympathetic ganglion B. middle sympathetic ganglion C. inferior sympathetic ganglion D. stellate ganglion

A

A. superior sympathetic ganglion

133
Q

if arterial blood carries 19.4 ml of oxygen per deciliter, and returning venous blood carries 14.4 ml of oxygen per deciliter, the utilization coefficient is approximately ..? A. 25% B. 40% C. 50% D. 75%

A

A. 25%

134
Q

The subtalar joint allows for inversion and eversion. Which of the following movements is associated with eversion? A. adduction B. supination C. dorsflexion D. plantarflexion

A

D. plantarflexion

135
Q

olfactory fibers making up the olfactory nerves pass from the olfactory mucosa to the olfactory bulbs through which of the following? A. sphenoethmoidal recess B. cribiform plate C. optic canals D. lateral pterygoid foraminae

A

B. cribiform plate

136
Q

a connexon is a structural component of the: A. adhesion belt B. macula adherens C. gap junction D. tight junction E. desmosome

A

C. gap junction

137
Q

what type of epithelium is shown here? A. simple cuboidal B. simple squamous C. stratified squamous D. simple columnar E. stratified columnar

A

A. simple cuboidal

138
Q

Which of the following areas of the brain is normally inhibitted by signals from the heat center but is activated by cold signals from the skin and spinal cord and is responsible for the activation of shivering responses? A. anterior hypothalamus B. preoptic area C. posterior hypothalamus D. thalamus

A

C. posterior hypothalamus

139
Q

The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial cavity via which of the following foramina? A. ovale B. rotundum C. spinosum D. lacerum

A

C. spinosum

140
Q

Which of the following areas of the brain stem is thought to be involved in pain supression? A. red nucleus B. restiform bodies C. periaquaductal gray D. vagal lobes

A

C. periaquaductal gray

141
Q

identify the structure/membrane indicated by the arrow in the photomicrograph A. scala tympani B. stria vascularis C. tectorial membrane D. vestibular membrane

A

D. vestibular membrane

142
Q

The medullary rhythmicity center is located in the same area of the brain as the caridac center and the vasomotor center. The pneumotaxic and apneustic centers are located in which of the following parts of the brain? A. pons B. medulla C. mesencephalon D. thalamus

A

A. pons

143
Q

The thalamus is a paired complex of many nucei, some of which are associated with relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex. Others relay motor information from the cerebral cortex, and some serve to integrate the others. Which of the following relay information to the primary auditory cortex of the cerebral cortex? A. medial geniculate B. lateral geniculate C. ventral posterior D. anterior

A

A. medial geniculate

144
Q

if the end-diastolic volume is 120 ml, and the end-systolic volume is 50 ml, what is the approximate ejection fraction? A. 42% B. 60% C. 214% D. 240%

A

B. 60%

145
Q

Surfactant is a lipoprotein essential to maintain alveolar function. In a healthy fetus, it is formed in the lungs at what time? A. 24 weeks gestation B. 28 weeks gestation C. 34 weeks gestation D. 38 weeks gestation

A

A. 24 weeks

146
Q

the main hormone responsible for controlling feedback of the duodenum is: A. CCK B. chyme C. motilin D. GIP

A

A. CCK

147
Q

How many pairs of cervical spinal nerves are present in the human? A. five B. six C. seven D. eight E. nine

A

D. eight

148
Q

the malleoli of the tibia and fibula form the mortise component of the ankle joint. Which of the following forms the tenon? A. calcaneus B. cuboid C. talus D. medial cuneiform

A

C. talus

149
Q

Which of the following lobes would not be found in the right lung? A. upper (superior) B. middle C. lower (inferior) D. lingula

A

D. lingula

150
Q

“Winging of the scapula” may be the result of injury to which of the following nerves? A. thoracodorsal B. axillary C. long thoracic D. thoracoacromial E. suprascapular

A

C. long thoracic

151
Q

identify the type of tissue shown in the following photomicrograph A. hyaline cartilage B. dense fibrous connective tissue C. areolar connective tissue D. compact bone E. spongy bone

A

D. compact bone

152
Q

The anterior belly of the digastic muscle is derived from the first pharyngeal arch and is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. facial B. trigeminal C. glossopharyngeal D. hypoglossal

A

B. tigeminal

153
Q

which muscle separates the exit of the superior and inferior gluteal arteries from the pelvic cavity? A. quadratus femoris B. obturator internus C. superior gemellus D. ingerior gemellus E. piriformis

A

E. piriformis

154
Q

Which of the following represents the first thing that happens after Ach binds to the ligand-gated channels on the sarcolemma? A. an action potential is created on the sarcolemma B. dihydropyridine channels allow entry of calcium ions C. an end-plate potential is created on the muscle fiber D. ryanodingaling channels is allow calcium to escape into the myoplasm

A

C. an end-plate potential is created on the muscle fiber

155
Q

The navicular bone is a component of which of the following subdivisions of the foot? A. hindfoot B. midfoot C. forefoot D. mortise and tenon joint

A

B midfoot

156
Q

Which of the following is the largest lobe of the liver? A. right B. left C. quadrate D. caudate E. median

A

A. right

157
Q

the thalamus is derived from which of the following brain divisions? A. telencephalon B. diencephalon C. mesencephalon D. metencephalon E. myelencephalon

A

B. diencephalon

158
Q

a higher than normal back pressure in hepatic veins may lead to the following condition? A. jaundice B. cirrhosis C. ascites D. diabetes

A

C. ascites

159
Q

The lesser and greater sciatic notches are separated by which of the followign landmarks? A. PSIS B. PIIS C. ischial tuberosity D. ischial spine

A

D. ischial spine

160
Q

the sacral promontory is formed by which of the following structures? A. the centrum of L1 B. the spinous process of L1 C. the centrum of S1 D. the spinous process of S2

A

C. the centrum of S1

161
Q

which of the following structures attach the menisci to the rims of the tibial plateaus? A. coronary B. cruciates C. collaterals D. fibular collateral ligament

A

A. coronary

162
Q

which of the following muscles is most important in rotating the great tubercle from under the acromion during full arm elevation? A. teres minor B. infraspinatus C. supraspinatus D. subscapularis E. pectoralis minor

A

B. infraspinatus

163
Q

the calcaneus transmits weight from the talus to metatarsals 4 and 5 via which of the following bones? A. cuboid B. middle cuneiform C. navicular D. lateral cuneiform E. medal cuneiform

A

A. cuboid

164
Q

a muscle contraction that results in the lengthening of a muscle would best be described as which of the following? A. concentric B. eccentric C. isometric D. both A and B E. both B and C

A

B. eccentric

165
Q

lateral cervical triangle and axila brachial plexus scapula humeral rythym anatomical snuff box: artery that can be damaged and boundries/floor carpal tunnel intercostal spaces frainage pattern of mammory glands meningeal covers of spinal cord: where is fluid thoracic aorta and main branches boundaries of abdominal cavity

A

this dr. anderson highlighted

166
Q

which of the following heart activities is represented in the attached ECG (lead I)? A. sinus tachycardia B. sinus bradycardia C. complete AV block D. incomplete second degree block with dropped beats

A

A. Suns tachycardia

167
Q

which of the following is found in the femoral triangle but not the femoral sheath? A. femoral artery B. femoral vein C. femoral nerve D. lymphatics

A

C. femoral nerve

168
Q

humidification of air in the alveoli has which of the following effects on the partial pressures of nitrogen and oxygen in the alveoli? A. it increased partial pressures of each of the other gasses B. it decreases the partial pressures of the each of the other gasses C. it has no effect on the partial pressures of each of the other gasses D. it increases the partial pressure of oxygen but decreases the partial pressure of nitrogen in alveolar air

A

B. it decreases the partial pressure of the each of the other gasses

169
Q

identify type of epithelium

A

stratified squamous non-keratinized

170
Q

special visceral motor (SVM) modality supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle via which of the following cranial nerves? A. cranial nerve IX B. cranial nerve X C. cranial nerve XI D. cranial nerve XII

A

A. cranial nerve IX

171
Q

all of the following features except one are characteristic of the male pelvis in comparison with the female pelvis. Which one is characteristic of the female pelvis? A. deeper greater pelvis B. round obturator foramen C. wide pubic arch D. large acetabulum

A

C. wide pubic arch

172
Q

Proper chewing (mastication) requires that the mandible be moved from side to side and to be retracted and protracted. Which of the following muscles of mastication functions to retract the mandible? A. temporalis B. lateral pterygoid C. medial pterygoid D. temporalis

A

D. temporalis

173
Q

which of the following cells play a major role in the secretion of potassium? A. intercalated cells B. principal cells C. chief cells D. podocytes

A

A. proximal convoluted tubule

174
Q

Which of the following is the longest and widest part of the uterine tube? A. isthmus B. ampulla C. intramural D. fimbriae

A

B, ampulla

175
Q

which of the following heart activities is represented in the attached ECG A. sinus tachycardia B. sinus bradycardia C. complete AV block D. incomplete second degree block with dropped beats

A

C. complete AV block

176
Q

Which of the following extrinsic muscles of the eye is not supplied by the oculomotor nerve? A. lateral rectus B. inferior obliques C. medial rectus D. inferior rectus

A

A. lateral rectus

177
Q

cell bodies of sensory neurons carrying general sensory information from the dura of the middle and anterior cranial fossae, the external surface of the ear drum, and the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are located in which of the following cranial ganglia? A. trigeminal (semilunar) B. geniculate C. superior salivatory nucleus D. inferior salivatory nucleus

A

B. geniculate

178
Q

the hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric vein and which of the following? A. inferior mesenteric vein B. splenic vein C. left gastropiploic vein D. right gastroepiploic vein E. gastroduodenal vein

A

B. splenic vein

179
Q

Which of the following structures would not be found in the superior mediastinum? A. esophagus B. azygos vein C. vagus nerves D. thymus E. trachea

A

B. azygos vein

180
Q

The abdominal aorta gives off three pairs of visceral branches. Which of the following would not be included in this group? A. renal B. gonadal C. middle suprarenal D. phrenic

A

D. phrenic

181
Q

which of the following plays a major role in stimulating potassium excretion by the kidney tubules? A. aldosterone B. angiotensin II C. sodium ion D. PTH

A

A. alodosterone

182
Q

84% of the blood volume is in the systemic circulation. Of this, 64% is in which of the following vessels? A. capillaries B. systemic arteries C. veins D. arterioles

A

C. veins

183
Q

the photomicrograph below is taken from which of the following organs? A. fundic stomach B. ureter C. renal crotex D. tongue

A

B. ureter

184
Q

What type of epithelium is shown here? A. simple cuboidal B. simple sqamous C. stratified squamous D. simple columnar E. stratified columnar

A

D. simple columnar

185
Q

The aortic opening fo the diaphragm is located at which vertebral level? A. T6 B. T8 C. T10 D. T12

A

D. T12

186
Q

during the menstrual cycle, the early growth of a follicle is primarily stimulated by which of the following? A. LH B. FSH C. estrogen D. progesterone

A

B. FSH

187
Q

a median-sagital plane is described by which of the following two intersecting axes? A. cranial caudal and the left-right axes B. cranial caudal and the anterior -posterior axes C. left-right and anterior-posterior axes D. none of the above

A

B. cranial caudal and the anterior-posterior axes

188
Q

the spinal cord proper ends at which of the following levels? A. L5/S1 B. S5 C. L2 D. L4

A

C. L2

189
Q

identify the structure seen in the photomicrograph shown below A. Meissner’s corpuscle B. Hassall’s corpuscle C. arteriole D. pacini corpuscle

A

D. pacini corpuscle

190
Q

the specific type of epithelium covering the true vocal folds is: A. stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelial tissue B. stratified squamous keratinized epithelial tissue C. respiratory epithelium D. olfactory epithelium E. simple low cuboidal epithelium

A

A. stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelial tissue

191
Q

sensory information entering the central nervous system typically decussates at some point in the spinal cord or brain. For visual information, this decussation occurs in the optic chiasma. HOw much decussation occurs in the optic chiasma? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

A

B. 50%

192
Q

which of the following would not be classified as a long bone? A. femur B. humerus C. ulna D. calcaneus E. radius

A

D. calcaneus

193
Q

almost all infrahyoid muscles are characterized by which of the following innervation patterns? A. hypoglossal nerve B. ansa cervicalis C. C2 D. C2-C3

A

B. ansa cervicalis

194
Q

fenestrated capillaries would not be characterized by which of the following? A. the endothelium has numerous openings (fenestrae) B. the fenestrae may have thin diaphragm C. the basal lamina is discontinuous D. they are associated with renal glomeruli

A

C. the basal lamina is discontinuous

195
Q

dihydropyridine (DHP) channels are part of which of the following structures? A. sarcoplasmic reticulum B. plasmalemma C. T tubules D. Z discs

A

C. T tubules

196
Q

which of the following groups of cells are capable of breaking down bone matrix? A. chondroclasts B. osteoclasts C. chondroblasts D. chondrocytes E. fibroblasts

A

B. osteoclasts

197
Q

in the typical (average) individual, arterial pressure drops by how much from the time it leaves the left ventricle until it reaches the venous system? A. 35 mm Hg B. 40 mm Hg C. 80 mm Hg D. 120 mm Hg

A

D. 120 mm Hg

198
Q

Which of the following ligaments is the primary support for the medial longitudinal arch of the foot? A. long plantar B. plantar calcaneonavicular C. plantar calcaneocubod D. deltoid

A

B. plantar calcaneonavicular

199
Q

The diagram below illustrates the lateral cervical triangle. The posterior border of the triangle is marked by the red star, which indicates which of the following muscle landmarks? A. anterior border of the trapezius B. posterior border of the trapezius C. anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid D. posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid E. anterior border of the anterior scalene

A

A. anterior border of the trapezius

200
Q

the patella is an example of which of the following types of bones? A. short B. long C. irregular D. sesamoid

A

D. sesamoid

201
Q

the vagus nerves pass through the diaphragm at which vertebral level? A. T6 B. T8 C. T10 D. T12

A

C. T10

202
Q

nerve supplhy to the latissimus dorsi is through which of the following nerves? A. lateral pectoral nerve B. medial pectoral nerve C. long thoracic nerve D. spinal accessory nerve E. thoracodorsal nerve

A

E. thoracodorsal nerve

203
Q

Which of the following layers of the uterus undergo most pronounced changes during the menstrual cycle? A. Endometrium B. myometrium C. perimetrium D. mensometrium

A

A. endometrium

204
Q

control functions for muscle movements of the axial body, neck, shoulders , and hips is located in which of the following areas of the cerebellum? A. vermis B. intermediate zone C. lateral zone D. cerebroverebellum

A

A. vermis

205
Q

which of the following structures is/are found in both the superior and the inferior mediastinum? A. thymus B. vagus nerves C. heart D. trachea E. phrenic nerves

A

A. thymus

206
Q

The gastrocolic reflex, enterogastric reflex, and colonoileal reflex are examples of which of the following categories of gastrointestinal reflexes? A. reflexes that are integrated entirely within the gut wall enteric nervous system B. reflexes from the gut to the prevertebral sympathetic ganglia and then back to the GI tract C. reflexes from the gut to the spinal cord or brain stem and then back to the GI tract D. none of the above is correct

A

B. reflexes from the gut to the prevertebral sympathetic ganglia and then back to the GI tract

Comprehensive Exam (8 decks)

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