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APS126- Animal physiology, reproduction, development > all > Flashcards

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1
Q

what is development?

A

series of progressive changes in form and function usually in early part of organisms life cycle

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2
Q

what is cleavage?

A

division of cells to form blastula

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3
Q

what is gastrulation?

A

formation of tissue layer and axis

blastula transformed into embryo with 3 tissue layers

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4
Q

what is organogenesis?

A

formation of organs

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5
Q

what is morphogenesis?

A

mechanism of body shape formation

cell differentiation and growth to form complex adult shape

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6
Q

what is fertilisation?

A

maternal and paternal genetic material fuse forming diploid

rapid divisions producing a multicellular embryo

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7
Q

in the zygote where is the nucleus of egg and nutrients located?

A

nucleus- animal hemisphere

nutrients- vegetal hemisphere

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8
Q

in amphibians what happens what happens once the sperm enters the animal hemisphere?

A

cortex rotates exposing the grey crescent- the proteins here control what form the cells will take

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9
Q

at each cleavage what happens?

A

cells double in number and divide at the cleavage furrow

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10
Q

what do the 3 cleavage patterns depend on?

A

amount of yolk and spindle formation

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11
Q

what are the 3 cleavage patterns?

A

complete
- can be no yolk and cells are equal in size
- yolk cn impede/obstruct cleaving furrow so cells divide asymmetrically
incomplete discoidal
- birds
- lots of yolk
- cleavage furrows don’t penetrate yolk
- blastodisc forms on top of yolk
incomplete superficial
- insects
- nuclei migrate to edge and membrane grows inwards

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12
Q

what happens if the insects yolk is in the middle of the egg

A

there is no cytokinesis

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13
Q

what is radial cleavage?

A

mitotic spindles form at high angles parallel to animal vegetal axis

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14
Q

what is spiral cleavage?

A

mitotic spindles form at oblique angles to a-v axis

spiral cell pattern

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15
Q

what is rotational cleavage?

A

first division parallel to a-v xis

second division at right angles

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16
Q

what happens at determination?

A

cells fate becomes fixed

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17
Q

what is the endoderm of mammals?

A

inner layer

digestive tract, circulatory tract, respiratory tract

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18
Q

what is the ectoderm of mammals?

A

outer layer

epidermis, nervous system

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19
Q

what is the mesoderm of mammals?

A

middle layer

bone, muscle, liver, heart, blood vessels

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20
Q

what 2 things does the blastodisc in birds contain and what are they and which one is at the top of the blastocyst?

A
  • epiblast (embryo)
  • hypoblast (extraembryonic membranes)
    epiblast t top
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21
Q

in gastrulation in mammals what 2 things can the blastula become?

A
  • trophoblast (placenta)

- inner cell mass (epiblast and hypoblast)

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22
Q

what is neurulation?

A

occurs early in organogenesis

begins formation of nervous system in vertebrates

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23
Q

what are somites?

A

blocks of mesoderm

produce vertebrae, ribs, muscles

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24
Q

what do neural crest cells produce?

A

peripheral nerves

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25
Q

in an egg what is at the top, below it and to the right and what is directly around the 3 structures?

A

top: amnion
below: yolk sac
right: allantois
surrounded by chorion

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26
Q

what are the 3 extraembryonic membranes supporting the embryo and what do each of these do?

A
  1. yolk sac- nutrient transfer
  2. amnion- protection
  3. chorion- gas/water exchange
  4. allantois- waste storage
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27
Q

where is the allantois in mammals?

A

incorporated into the umbilical cord

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28
Q

what 3 epigenetic factors control development?

A
  1. cytoplasm
  2. genes
  3. external environment
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29
Q

what controls early embryonic development and does transcription occur at this point?

A

nuclear DNA

no transcription

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30
Q

in embryos what does the cytoplasm provide/control?

A

provide enzymes and proteins

controls metabolic cycles and instructions for cell division and the fate of the nucleus

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31
Q

what is genomic activation?

A

transition from maternal control to embryo control

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32
Q

why does cell division slow down in embryos and what can this help us work out?

A

slows down due to transcription and protein production taking time
helps work out timing of genomic activation

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33
Q

what does differentiation result from?

A

differential gene expression

influenced by extracellular environment

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34
Q

describe the stages of the frog experiment for developmental control

A
  1. dissociate and culture in medium adult skin cells from epidermis
  2. obtain the nucleus from these cells
  3. activate and enucleate a frog egg cell
  4. combine nucleus and enucleated egg
  5. cleavage
  6. clone (genetic info- nucleus, cytoplasm- egg)
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35
Q

what in the gray crescent is needed for development?

A

cytoplasmic factors

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36
Q

a) what are cytoplasmic factors?

b) what are the 2 main types?

A

a) chemical signals involved in cell differentiation
b) cytoplasmic segregation
induction

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37
Q

what is cytoplasmic segregation?

A
  • factor unequally distributed in cytoplasm in zygote so ends up in some daughter cells but not others
  • differences in cytoplasmic makeup cause differentiation of cells
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38
Q

what is primary induction in amphibians and birds?

A

amphibians: cells move over dorsal lip of blastopore which induces ectoderm to form neural tissue
birds: cells moving under hensons node are induced to form CNS

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39
Q

what is secondary induction in the vertebrate eye?

A

lens placode tissue induces optical vesicles to form a cup shape this induces surface tissue to form lens

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40
Q

how can cells interpret positional information?

A

positional information is given by conc gradient of a morphogen
amount of morphogen determines signal

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41
Q

when is a cell considered to be a morphogen?

A
  • if directly affects target cells

- if different conc. cause different effects

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42
Q

in terms of morphogens how is the hand formed?

A

cells at base of bud make a morphogen (BMP2) whos gradient determines anterior-posterior axis of limb
highest dose= thumb
lowest dose= little finger

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43
Q

what is genomic imprinting?

A

genes only active if specifically from a male or a female

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44
Q

is the development of internal cell mass controlled by maternal or paternal genes?

A

maternal

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45
Q

is the trophoblast that is part of the placenta controlled by maternal or paternal genes?

A

paternal

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46
Q

what are the 4 types of segmentation genes?

A
  1. gap genes- organise areas along anterior-posterior axis
  2. pair rule genes- divide embryo into units of 2 segments each
  3. segment polarity genes- determine segment boundaries
  4. homeotic genes- along length of body and determine what segments will become
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47
Q

in mice where will the first and last hox genes on the chromosome be expressed?

A

first: head
last: tail

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48
Q

what does a mutation in homeotic genes mean?

A

there is a change in the identity of the segement

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49
Q

in fruit flies what do the mutant homeotic genes do?

a) antennapedia
b) bithorax

A

a) legs grow instead of antennae

b) an extra thorax

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50
Q

what is apoptosis?

A

programmed cell death caused by activation of ‘death’ genes

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51
Q

in humans which enzyme stimulates apoptosis for webbed feet and toes?

A

caspase

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52
Q

what do mice raised in microbe free environments lack and what does this result in?

A

lack gut bacteria
gut bacteria needed as it induces gene expression in intestine which is needed for capillary development
so normal capillaries dont develop

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53
Q

in the human neural tube what is it known as if there is a failure to close at the posterior end?

A

spina bifida

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54
Q

in the human neural tube what is it known as if there is a failure to close at the anterior end?

A

anencephaly

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55
Q

in tibetans what does a lack of iodine result in for adults and babies?

A

adults: goitre
babies: cretinism

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56
Q

what does cyclopamine in corn lily plants do?

A

causes birth defects in lambs

inhibits action of sonic hedgehog protein and so neural system may not form properly

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57
Q

what is a clone and what are the 4 main types of cloning mechanisms?

A

an individual that is genetically identical to another

  • natural
  • embryo splitting
  • reprogramming somatic cells
  • nuclear transfer
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58
Q

if splitting occurs too late in embryo formation what can result?

A

conjoined twins

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59
Q

how are monozygotic twins formed and what do they have?

A

blastomeres in 2 cell embryo separate naturally early on

have their own nutrients (no competition)

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60
Q

can differentiation be reversible?

A

yes

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61
Q

why is cloning by somatic cell nuclear transfer controversial?

A
  • invasive technique
  • technical problems
  • ethical dilemma
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62
Q

what 2 features allow SCNT to occur?

A
  1. nucleus of every somatic cell has a complete copy of the individuals genome
  2. fertilised egg is totipotent
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63
Q

what are megan and morag and what happened in 1995?

A

first mammals cloned from cultured differential embryo cells

  • wilmut and campbell
  • sheep embryo cells deprived of growth factor
  • DNA transferred to cytoplasts (enucleated eggs) stimulated to develop
  • embryos placed in surrogate
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64
Q

what was dolly and what happened in 1996?

A

first mammal cloned from adult cells

  • wilmut and cambell
  • deprived adult mammary glands of growth factor
  • cells fused with enucleated egg, stimulated
  • placed into surrogate
  • dolly genetically identical to mammary gland sheep
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65
Q

what was polly and why was she created?

A

first transgenic mammal clone
aim to produce a flock of transgenic sheep that could produce therapeutically useful proteins (such as human gene for clotting factor 1X in milk used to treat haemophilia

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66
Q

give 5 potential uses of cloning

A
  • developmental research
  • conservation
  • cloning elite livestock
  • disease resistant farming
  • therapeutic cloning
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67
Q

what is pharming and xenotransplantation?

A

pharming: G.M farm animals produce pharmaceuticals in milk
xenotransplantation: using animal organs for transplant

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68
Q

what are 7 issues with cloning?

A
  • who decides what species should be cloned?
  • wont bring back a loved one
  • aging (telomeres shorten, age quickly)
  • low success rate
  • large foetus syndrome
  • prolonged gestation
  • lack of genetic variation so disease vulnerability
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69
Q

a) what are stem cells?
b) what do they produce?
c) what are fibroblasts?

A

a) undifferentiated cells capable of extensive proliferation
b) other stem cells, differentiated progeny cells
d) feeder cells on which cells are grown in vitro

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70
Q

what forms when stem cells are given vitamin A derivatives?

A

nerve cells

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71
Q

what happens in the brain of people with parkinsons?

A

dopamine producing cells slowly die

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72
Q

what does phenotype result from?

A

interaction of genes, gene products, environment

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73
Q

what are these due to:

a) similarities
b) differences

A

a) due to having a common ancestor

b) due to natural selection, adapting them to different environments

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74
Q

what did Darwin recognise relationships in organisms could be deduced from?

A

similarities among embryos

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75
Q

what will changes in developmental processes do over evolutionary time?

A

modify form of adult organism

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76
Q

a) what is evolutionary developmental biology a combo of?

b) what does it study?

A

a) genetics and embryology
b) - how changes in genes regulating development affect adult forms of organisms
- how these genes have changed over evolution
- how these changes have influenced evolution

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77
Q

if a mouse pax6 gene is expressed in a fruit fly what happens?

A

an eye will develop instead of a leg

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78
Q

in which 2 groups does the same set of hox genes provide anterior-posterior info?

A

mammals and insects

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79
Q

where are drosophila gap genes and homologous vertebrate genes expressed?

A

in anterior region of the brain

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80
Q

what 3 things can morphological changes result from?

A
  1. mutation in genes regulating development
  2. changes in spatial (where) expression of developmental genes
  3. changes in temporal (when) expression of developmental genes
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81
Q

what does modularity mean?

A

developing embryos are modular- have self contained units that can be changed independently of each other

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82
Q

what happens if there is a mutation in the ubx gene in insects?

A

mutated gene expressed in abdomen represses d11 gene for leg formation
so legs dont form on abdomens

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83
Q

a) what does BMP4 do in birds?
b) what is gremlin?
c) what kind of expression change is this?

A

a) expressed between developing toes instructs cells to undergo apoptosis
b) inhibits apoptosis on toes not webs which protects them
c) spatial

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84
Q

what is heterochrony ?

A

that modularity allows the timing of developmental processes to shift independently causing changes in size and shape

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85
Q

what is an example of a temporal expression change?

A

if expression of genes dissolving webs delayed digits dont grow
juvenile webbed feet form with suction cups for arboreal way of life

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86
Q

what 2 environmental cues determine development?

A
  1. cues necessary for normal development

2. signals closely correlated with future conditions

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87
Q

in mosquitos after a blood meal how is egg production stimulated?

A

prior to meal no vitellogenin yolk protein made
after meal brain stimulated to secrete egg development hormones stimulating ovaries to produce compounds stimulating fat body cells to release an egg

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88
Q

what is the symbiotic relationship between grasshoppers and bacteria?

A

bacteria live in egg cytoplasm and can only multiply here

hosts embryogenesis dependent on them

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89
Q

in W.african butterfly whats the difference between dry and wet season forms?

A

dry: <20c, less distal, darker
wet: >24c, more distal, lighter

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90
Q

what is polyphenism?

A

2 different forms depending on phylogenetic path animal follows

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91
Q

how do the larvae of N.arizonaria differ between spring and summer?

A

spring: feed on oak flowers
summer: feed on oak leaves

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92
Q

in daphnia what do they do when they encounter predator chaoborus but what is a drawback?

A

increase helmet size

produce fewer eggs

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93
Q

in spadefoot toads what happens to the tadpoles if the ponds dry up?

A
  • develop a wider mouth, powerful jaw, modified intestine

- eat other tadpoles to develop quicker (transition to carnivorous diet)

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94
Q

whats the difference between sex and reproduction?

A

reproduction: offspring production
sex: fusion of genetic material from 2 different parents

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95
Q

give 5 features of asexual reproduction in general

A
  1. all genes from 1 parent
  2. all offspring genetically identical
  3. easy, cheap, straightforward
  4. transmits intact parental genome successfully
  5. mutations transmitted
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96
Q

in what way do strawberries reproduce asexually and sexually?

A

asexual: runners
sexual: seeds on outside, flowers, pollen exchange

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97
Q

describe the 4 asexual reproduction types

A
  1. fragmentation/regeneration
    - body broken into pieces, can develop into adults
    - body parts can regrow
  2. binary fission
    - single cells divide in 2
  3. budding
    - offspring grow from body of parent
    - masses from parents can become offspring
  4. parthenogenesis
    - unfertilised eggs develop into offspring
    - not haploid
    - not in mammals (genomic imprinting)
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98
Q

in which stress condition os asexual or sexual more likely?

A

low stress: asexual

high stress: sexual

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99
Q

give 4 features of sexual reproduction in general

A
  • union of 2 parental genomes
  • 1.5-2 bn years
  • 2 gamete and 2 mating types
  • meiosis, recombination, segregation
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100
Q

what are the 3 main fundamental processes of sexual reproduction

A
  1. gametogenesis
  2. mating (gamete transfer)
  3. fertilisation
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101
Q

describe external fertilisation and the problems with it

A 
eggs and sperm mix and fuse in aquatic environment (requires water)
issues:
- cant control delivery
- lots of gametes needed
- egg predation
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102
Q

what are the 2 types of internal fertilisation?

A

indirect- spermatophore deposited for femle

direct- sperm directly transferred into female

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103
Q

explain the 4 min issues with copulation (direct)

A
  1. damage
    - bean weevils wound females internally killing them
  2. traumatic insemination
    - bed bug females have no opening so male pierces membrane to place sperm
  3. sexual cannibalism
    - females kill mate
    - nutrition, prevent paternity monopolisation
  4. sexual reproduction hijacked
    - can leave individuals vulnerable to sexually transmissible patterns
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104
Q

what are gonads?

A

specialised organs producing gametes

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105
Q

describe the general process of spermatogenesis

A
  1. sperm produced from spermatogonial stem cells
  2. cells divide by mitosis producing diploid spermatocytes
  3. meiosis 1 occurs producing diploid secondary spermatocytes
  4. meiosis 2 occurs producing haploid spermatids and them 4 sperm cells
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106
Q

give 7 features of spermatogenesis in fruit flies (insects)

A
  • in cysts
  • distal to proximal
  • larval stage
  • sperm produced in a few days
  • <10,000 sperm per day
  • stored in seminal vesicle
  • semen from accessory glands
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107
Q

give 7 features of spermatogenesis in humans (mammal0

A
  • in seminiferous tubules
  • periphery to lumen
  • puberty
  • produced 74 days
  • 300 million sperm per day
  • stored in epididymis
  • semen from seminal vesicles and prostate gland
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108
Q

what is sperm a) gigantism and b) heteromorphism

A

a) varying lengths

b) varying shapes and sizes

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109
Q

how does oogenesis differ from spermatogenesis?

A

oogenesis has placement of metaphase plate

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110
Q

explain the general process of oogenesis

A
  1. in meiosis 1 diploid primary oocyte splits into secondary oocyte and polar body
  2. in meiosis 2 it is split into an ovum and polar bodies and then a haploid ovum
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111
Q

give 5 features of oogenesis in fruit flies (insects)

A
  • distal to proximal
  • larval
  • eggs produced in a few days
  • <100 per day
  • released into uterus
  • oviparous (no pregnancy)
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112
Q

give 6 features of oogenesis in humans (mammals)

A
  • within follicle
  • 400,00 follicles at birth
  • starts at population
  • 1 per month
  • follicle ruptures, oocyte into fallopian tube
  • if not fertilised uterus lining degenerates
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113
Q

at puberty what does the hypothalamus secrete and what does this stimulate?

A

GnRH

stimulates FSH and LH from anterior pituitary gland

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114
Q

in spermatogenesis what do these stimulate?

a) LH
b) FSH

A

a) stimulates development of seminiferous tubules and sertoli cells
b) stimulates leydig cells to secrete testosterone

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115
Q

in oogenesis what do these stimulate?

a) FSH
b) LH

A

a) stimulates follicle development and estrogen secretion

b) stimulates follicles maturation and ova release

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116
Q

what does estrogen do?

A

enhances follicle and endometrium growth

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117
Q

what does progesterone do?

A

grows and maintains endometrium, secretes nutrients for embryo

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118
Q

what are the stages of the female reproductive cycle beginning with the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus ?

A
  1. FSH and LH released from anterior pituitary gland
  2. these stimulate follicle to grow
  3. estrogen secreted by growing follicle
  4. progesterone and estrogen secreted by corpus luteum
  5. peak causes LH surge
  6. surge triggers ovulation
  7. transition from follicular phase to luteal
  8. progesterone and estrogen promote thickening of endometrium
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119
Q

in the whole menstrual cycle what are the 3 main stages?

A

menstrual
proliferative
secretory

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120
Q

how do birth control pills work?

A

by negative feedback of FSH and LH

  • synthetic estrogen and progesterone
  • body doesn’t experience a sudden rise of estrogen so no ovulation or egg release
  • cervical mucus altered
  • uterus lining inhospitable
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121
Q

beginning at the centre and working outwards what are all the layers of the egg?

A 
germinal spot
germinal vesicle
ooplasm
vitelline membrane
zona pellucida
corona radiata
122
Q

what is the corona radiata of the egg?

A

layer of follicle cells

123
Q

what is the zona pellucida?

A

protects egg

extracellular matrix with glycoproteins

124
Q

what is the vitteline membrane?

A

cell membrane surrounding ooplasm

125
Q

what is the germinal vesicle and germinal spot?

A

vesicle- nucleus with DNA

spot- proteins and RNA concentrated nucleolus

126
Q

what are the 4 main structures of a sperm cell and what does each do?

A

head:
-nucleus with DNA capped with acrosome with enzymes to penetrate egg
neck:
- centriole for tail formation and embryo development
mid-piece:
- mitochondria providing energy for movement
tail

127
Q

what are the stages of sperm penetration of the ovum?

A
  1. sperm binds to zona pellucida and penetrates cumulus cell layer, using vigorous movements to burrow through follicle cells
  2. acrosome reaction to penetrate z. pellucida
  3. sperm and oocyte p.membranes fuse
  4. sperm nucleus enters ovum
128
Q

describe sperm penetration in sea urchins

A
  • protective jelly coat with chemoattractive properties so sperm migrate to signals
  • the chemoattractants attract mates with compatible nuclear and mitochondrial genes
129
Q

in sea urchin sperm penetration what does the sea urchin have and what contacts with this?

A

egg plasma membrane with microvilli with protein receptors

acrosomal process contacts, its binding proteins are detected by protein receptors on the egg

130
Q

what is lysin?

A

sperm protein that dissolves egg envelope

131
Q

what % of bird species eggs fail to hatch?

132
Q

why do eggs fail to hatch?

A 
fertilisation failure
- sperm may not reach egg
- sperm or ovum dysfunction 
embryo death
- male or female factors
- incompatibility 
- external factors
133
Q

what must sperm be to be successful?

A

motile to make it through vagina

134
Q

what is the fastest shaped sperm?

A

short mid piece and long tail

135
Q

in mammals what happens if polyspermy occurs?

A

could destroy egg

136
Q

what is an adaptation?

A

trait that increases fitness of an organism in its environment

137
Q

what is hibernation?

A

extended period of sleep allowing for survival in winter extremes
metabolic rate and body temp decrease

138
Q

what is acclimation?

A

physiological response to experimental environmental change

  • short term
  • not heritable
139
Q

what is acclimatisation?

A

physiological response to natural environmental change

140
Q

what is plasticity?

A

ability of organisms to change their state in response to stimuli

141
Q

at high altitudes what is the barometric pressure and atmospheric O2 like?

A

low barometric pressure

low atmospheric O2

142
Q

how is O2 transported around the body?

A

red blood cells transport it in the form of haemoglobin
O2 from lungs binds to haem group
O2 bonded with haemoglobin
O2 released fro it into tissues that need it

143
Q

what is O2 saturation?

A

% haemoglobin binding sites that carry O2

144
Q

whats the difference between lungs and tissues on the O2 saturation curve?

A

lungs: high pO2, high Hb affinity, O2 readily binds
tissues: low pO2, low Hb affinity, O2 released

145
Q

what is hypoxia?

A

deficiency of O2 reaching tissues

146
Q

in terms of haemoglobin concentration and O2 saturation describe what was found for the Tibetan and Andean populations?

A

andeans:

  • higher [Hb] the ancestors
  • higher [Hb] than lowlanders
  • low O2 sat. higher than tibetans (less stressed by hypoxia) (not heritable)

tibetans

  • no difference in [Hb] between them and ancestors
  • similar [Hb] to lowlanders
  • low O2 sat. lower than andeans (heritable)
  • dominant autosomal gene for O2 saturation
147
Q

what do [Hb] and O2 sat determine?

A

determine arterial O2 content

148
Q

what are the downstream consequences of an increases in [Hb]?

A

increase [Hb] –> viscous blood –> strains heart –> better to deal with hypoxia but is a trade off

149
Q

for the Tibetan and Andean populations were any associations found between female fertility and O2 saturation and [Hb]?

A
  • none for O2 sat gene and no. of births
  • homozygous recessive mothers had lower curving children than mothers with O2 sat gene
  • more infant mortality in homozygous recessive
150
Q

what is homeostasis?

A

self regulating proceed where biological systems maintain stability and adjust to varying environmental conditions

151
Q

a) what does having a steady set mean?

b) and why maintain it?

A

a) stable internal environment, dynamic equilibrium, usually uniform conditions
b) enzymes usually heat activated, chemical reactions temp dependent, proteins denature at high temp

152
Q

what do each of these control mechanisms do?

a) receptor
b) control centre
c) effector

A

a) monitors internal environment
b) sends message to effector via nervous/ endocrine system
c) re-establishes internal environment

153
Q

give 2 examples of positive feedback

A
  • blood clotting

- birth in mammals

154
Q

what do hummingbirds do to conserve energy?

A
  • at night/ in the cold enter torpor
  • body temp drops from 38-40c to 18-20c
  • heart rate drops from 1200 to 50 bpm
155
Q

a) what is doping

b) give 5 reasons why people may do it

A

a) the use of banned performance enhancing drugs
b)
- build muscle mass and strength
- increase O2 delivery to exercising tissue
- mask pain/ injury
- decrease weight
- hide use of other drugs

156
Q

a) what can EPO (erythropoietin) be used for?
b) whats the cycle it goes through?
c) whats the stimuli for it?
d) what can it increase O2 supply by?
e) what are 3 side effects from it?

A

a) to dope
b) fall in blood O2 levels –>kidney releases EPO –> stimulates red bone marrow –> increases in red blood cell count
c) low atmospheric O2, increase in red blood cell count
d) 7-10%
e) blood thickens, heart works harder, increased risk of heart attack and stroke

157
Q

what are the medical uses of meldonium?

A
  • treat corona artery disease
  • increases blood flow
  • increases flow of O2
158
Q

what do larger animals tend to be/do?

A
  • move slowly
  • slower digestion
  • slower respiration
  • lose heat and water to environment slower
159
Q

a) what is allometry?

b) what are the 3 types?

A

a) study of how biological traits scale with body size
study of differential growth
b) ontogenetic, static, evolutionary

160
Q

what is ontogenetic allometry?

A

compares relative size of body parts of an organism over its lifespan

161
Q

what is isometric scaling?

A

everything grows in proportion

b=1

162
Q

what is static allometry?

A

between different individuals at same development

163
Q

what is evolutionary allometry?

A

between individuals of different species

164
Q

what do each of the parts mean in the equation?

y= ax^b

A 
y= size of body part 
x= measure of whole body size
a= initial growth index when x=1
b= scaling exponent proportional change
165
Q

what is the value of b in +ve allometry and -ve ?

A

+ve: b>1

-ve: b<1

166
Q

what are larger individuals skeletons like?

A

more robust and larger

167
Q

with an isometric doubling what happens to SA and length?

A

X4 SA

X8 V

168
Q

order in terms of metabolic rate:

a) unicellular, endotherm, ectotherm
b) terrestrial mammals, marsupials, marine mammals

A

a) endotherm (highest) , ectotherm, unicellular

b) marine mammals, terrestrial mammals, marsupials

169
Q

how do you calculate metabolic rate and how else can this be written?

A

body weight (W)
= W^0.75
= W^ -0.25

170
Q

if body temp too low what 4 things happen?

A
  • slow metabolism
  • molecules have less kinetic energy
  • cells freeze
  • inadequate O2 supply
171
Q

if body temp too high what 4 things happen?

A
  • vibrating molecules, H bonds break
  • proteins denature
  • inadequate O2 supply
  • membrane structure alterations
172
Q

in what 4 ways can heat be exchanged and in what % is heat lost from each?

A
  1. radiation- transfer of heat via electromagnetic waves
    - 60% heat loss
  2. conduction- direct contact
    - 3%
  3. convection- movement of air/ fluid over body surface
    - 15%
  4. evaporation- water from body surface
    - 22%
173
Q

what kind of conductivity do insulators have and does water or air have a higher conductivity?

A

low thermal conductivity

water higher than air

174
Q

what are ectotherms?

A

conformers
heat derived from environment
body temp fluctuates with environment

175
Q

what are endotherms?

A

regulators
constant body temp
heat from metabolism

176
Q

give 4 +ves of ectotherms?

A
  • metabolic rate 5X slower than endotherms
  • less energy= less food= less H2O
  • lots of energy into reproduction
  • colonise poor/arid environments
177
Q

give 4 +ves of endotherms?

A
  • high activity bursts
  • nocturnal activity
  • can exploit colder environments
  • migrate over long distances
178
Q

give 4 -ves of ectotherms?

A
  • no nocturnal niches
  • can’t sustain high activity bursts
  • anaerobic so rapid fatigue
  • susceptible to sustained predation
179
Q

give 4 -ves of endotherms?

A
  • large body size with low SA:V
  • metabolic rate 5X faster
  • more energy= more food= more H2O
  • little energy in reproduction
180
Q

what is the thermoneutral zone?

A

range of temps where animal doesn’t expend energy to maintain temp, restricted by upper and lower critical limits

181
Q

what is vasoconstriction?

A
  • diameter of blood vessel decreases
  • less blood flow to skin
  • skin cools
  • less heat lost to environment
182
Q

what is shivering?

A

rapid contraction of skeletal muscles
consumes ATP
increases heat production by 500%
when glycogen runs out proteins and lipids used

183
Q

what does thyroxine do?

A

increases basal metabolic rate

184
Q

explain the 3 types of insulation

A
  1. brown fat
    - -> brown adipose tissue
    - mitochondria breakdown fuel into heat
    - rich blood supply
    - rapid heat production
    - -> white adipose tissue
    - little blood supply
  2. blubber
    - thick layer of vascularised adipose tissue
    - low thermal conductivity
  3. fur/hair/feathers
    - reduces convection
    - traps warm air
185
Q

what is vasodilation?

A
  • diameter of blood vessels increases
  • blood flow increases
  • skin heats up
  • more heat lost to environment by radiation, conduction, convection
186
Q

what is perspiration?

A

skin glands secrete sweat for evaporative cooling

- water absorbs heat and releases it through evaporation

187
Q

what is panting?

A

evaporation of water from mouth and tongue

hot air in lungs exchanged with cool external air

188
Q

explain each mechanism of how birds stay cool as they can’t sweat:

a) gular flutter
b) urohidrosis

A

a) rapidly flap membrane in throat to increase evaporation

b) defecate on legs for evaporative cooling

189
Q

if metabolic heat production can’t compensate for heat loss what occurs?

A

hypothermia

190
Q

if evaporative cooling can’t counteract heat gain what occurs?

A

hyperthermia

191
Q

if there is a decrease in the conc. of water molecules in external environment what happens to the cell?

A

net movement of water moves out of cells so cells shrivel and can’t function

192
Q

if there is a increase in the conc. of water molecules in external environment what happens to the cell?

A

net movement of water into cells so cells expand and may burst

193
Q

is the movement active or passive?

a) solutes
b) water

A

a) either

b) passive

194
Q

what is osmoregulation?

A

process balancing uptake and loss of water

195
Q

what 4 things influence the passive rate?

A
  • temp (higher= higher rate)
  • electric ion charge may prevent passage
  • particle size (smaller= faster rate)
  • conc gradient (higher gradient= higher rate)
196
Q

a) what is osmolarity?

b) whats the equation?

A

a) measure of osmotic pressure exerted by a solution across semi permeable membrane compared to pure water
b) (no. of particles/ molecule of solute) X (moles/litre)

197
Q

if 2 solutions have equal osmolarity what are they?

A

iso-osmotic

198
Q

mr NaCl = 58.44

if dissolve 58.44g in 1L water, what is the osmolarity?

A 
58.44 in 1L= 1 mole
dissociates into Na+ and Cl-
no. of particles/ molecule= 2
2 X 1mole= 2
so osmolarity= 2 osm/L
199
Q

what is tonicity and what 2 things does it depend on?

A

effect of a solution on cell volume

  • membrane permeability
  • solutes
200
Q

when hypertonic what happens

when hypotonic what happens

A

hyper: solution has higher solute conc so water leaves and cell shrivels
hypo: water moves into cell

201
Q

whats the difference between tonicity and osmolarity?

A

osmolarity- measure of solute conc

tonicity- effect of solution on cell volume

202
Q

is it osmoconformer, osmoregulator?

  • graph with diagonal line (proportional)
  • graph with straight horizontal line
A
  • osmoconformer

- osmoregulator

203
Q

which species group have limited osmoregulation?

A

amphibians

204
Q

if osmolarity of freshwater is lower than body fluid what is is?

A

freshwater is hypo-osmotic to the organisms body fluid

205
Q

what is a teleost?

206
Q

a) in a marine environment with low water conc and high sat conc, is the fish hyper or hypo osmotic?
b) how are salts and water gained/ lost?
c) what is the urine like?
d) how is salt gotten rid of, in terms of pumps?

A

a) hypo osmotic
b) salt:
- diffuses in through gills and in sea water and food
- is actively extruded
water:
- lost by osmosis through gills and skin
- in through sea water and food
c) little and concentrated
d)
- Na/K ATPase provides Na gradient in chloride cell and pumps Na out of cell
- Cl transported due to Na gradient, by Cl/ Na symporters
- Cl diffuses out as it builds up in the cell
- Na can sneak out through leaky cell junctions

207
Q

a) in a freshwater environment with high water conc and low sat conc, is the fish hyper or hypo osmotic?
b) how are salts and water gained/ lost?
c) whats the urine like?
d) how is salt gotten rid of, in terms of pumps?

A

a) hyper
b) salt:
- lost by gill diffusion and in faeces
- in via active transport at gills and by food
water:
- lost in faeces
- in via food and osmosis at the gills
c) lots and dilute
d)
- apical membranes have ion pumps to pump ions in
- cell cytoplasm low in Na and Cl
- lots of mitochondria
- tight cell junctions so no ion leaks

208
Q

what generates nitrogenous waste and in what 3 ways does this occur?

A

breakdown of proteins and nucleic acids

  • digestive system
  • energy/ fat conversion
  • amino group removed
209
Q

what happens when proteins/ nucleic acids break down and the amino group is removed?

A

NH2 combines with hydrogen forming toxic ammonia

210
Q

why is ammonia considered toxic?

A

it raises ph of body fluids which inhibits key enzymes

211
Q

explain each of the 3 types of nitrogenous waste products and examples of each

A
  1. ammonia
    - bony fish, aquatic amphibians and invertebrates
    - toxic
    - no energy to produce
    - small so rapid diffusion
    - water soluble
  2. urea
    - mammals, amphibians, cartilaginous fish
    - in liver from ammonia and CO2
    - 1000X less toxic than ammonia
    - less water needed
    - energy needed
  3. uric acid
    - birds, insects, reptiles
    - insoluble
    - even less toxic than urea
    - 3X more energy than urea needed
    - egg development
212
Q

whats the difference between tadpoles and adult frogs in what they excrete?

A

tadpoles: ammonia
frogs: urea

213
Q

whats the difference between terrestrial and aquatic turtles in what they excrete?

A

terrestrial: uric acid
aquatic: urea and ammonia

214
Q

what does the west African lungfish excrete on land and on water?

A

land: urea
water: ammonia

215
Q

what structures do each of these have for excretion:

a) protozoa
b) annelids and molluscs
c) insects
d) vertebrates
e) fish
f) seabirds

A

a) contractile vacuole
b) nephridia
c) malpighian tubules
d) kidneys
e) gills
f) salt glands

216
Q

a) in insects what is excreted to conserve water?
b) what kind of circulatory system is it?
c) describe the process of the excretory system

A

a) uric acid
b) open
c) - salts and nitrogenous waste actively transported into gut lumen through tubules
- water by osmosis
- rectum reabsorbs
- salts and organic molecules back into haemlymph and water
- uric acid eliminated as dry matter with faeces

217
Q

what are Malpighian tubules?

A

blind ended tubules in insects
1 cell thick walls
between mid and hind gut
float in haemolymph

218
Q

which is on the ‘right’ the renal vein or artery?

219
Q

what are the 4 main stages of excretion in humans?

A
  • filtration
  • reabsorption
  • secretion
  • excretion of filtrate
220
Q

what happens in the medulla and what in the cortex?

A

medulla: regulates water and salt in blood
cortex: ultrafiltration

221
Q

what is the nephron known as and why?

A

countercurrent multiplier system

  • steep osmotic gradient created
  • tubule fluid in descending limb flows in opposite direction to ascending
222
Q

what is ultrafiltration in the nephron?

A

high blood pressure in glomerulus forces fluid into lumen of bowman capsule
non selective filtration
osmolarity of blood and filtrate the same

223
Q

what occurs at each stage in the nephron:

a) proximal tubule
b) descending limb
c) ascending limb
d) distal tubule

A

a) water and salt reabsorbed (no osmolarity change)
b) water leaves filtrate (filtrate osmolarity increases)
c) salt leaves filtrate, impermeable to water (filtrate osmolarity decreases)
d) salt conc, ph and water balance regulated

224
Q

what do the loops of henle increase?

A

increase solute potential of tissue fluid so conc gradient set up

225
Q

-
-

A
  • narrow/ broad
  • differ between and within population
  • differ between seasons. life stages
226
Q

what is the zone of tolerance?

A

where the organism is most comfortable and can survive for an indefinite period, bounded by upper and lower zones pf physiological stress

227
Q

what 2 things affect tolerance?

A
  • thermal history

- exposure to seasonal changes

228
Q

what are the 5 main functions of heat shock proteins?

A
  • promote proper folding/refolding of protein
  • prevent damaging interactions with proteins
  • aid in disassembly of protein aggregation formations
  • help to present antigens from diseased cells to T cells
  • act as a warning signal
229
Q

what are molecular chaperones?

A
  • stabilise other proteins
  • minimise probability of inappropriate interactions
  • successful folding, assembly, degradation
230
Q

what are 4 major stresses?

A
  • hypoxia
  • temp extremes
  • physical stress
  • pollution
231
Q

what are the 4 stages of how heat shock proteins work/ when they are needed?

A
  1. stressful conditions cause proteins to denature and unfold so can no longer function
  2. denatured proteins detected
  3. heat shock proteins produced
  4. heat shock proteins refold denatured proteins acting as a molecular chaperone
232
Q

why don’t heat shock proteins denature?

A
  • better H bonds

- better secondary structure

233
Q

what happens to cells when external fluid freezes?

A

solute conc of external fluid increases
water leaves cells by osmosis
cells shrinks

234
Q

whats the difference between slow and fast cooling?

A

slow; cellular death from dehydration

fast: cellular death from internal ice crystal damage

235
Q

describe the 3 ways freeze avoidance works

A
  1. select dry hibernation site where no ice nucleation
  2. physical barrier like wax cuticle to protect from external ice
  3. decrease temp that body temp freezes
    - super cooling
    - cryoprotectant synthesis
236
Q

what is supercooling?

A

freeze avoidance tactic

  • ice nucleating agents removed/ inactivated
  • water cools below freezing without changing phase as no nucleation source
  • can cool to -42c without freezing
237
Q

what is cryoprotectant synthesis?

A

freeze avoidance tactic

  • biochemistry alteration
  • increased solute conc
  • lower freezing point
  • glycerol
238
Q

what is freeze tolerance and what are the 3 types?

A

cope with damage caused by ice crystal formation

  1. limit supercooling, initiate freezing at higher temp
  2. ice structuring proteins produced (antifreeze) which bind/adsorb to small ice crystal to stop further growth
  3. ice nucleating proteins produced to control ice crystal formation, induce growth of single ice crystal
239
Q

how does the arctic woolly bear moth show freeze tolerance tactics?

A

accumulate cryoprotectants
form hibernaculum to emanate nucleators
can withstand -70c

240
Q

how does the golden rod gall moth larvae show freeze avoidance?

A

water content decreased
glycerol content increased
supercooling point to -38c

241
Q

how does the wood frog display a strategy combo for dealing with cold temps?

A

super cools to -3c

surveys at -8c with 48% body water as ice

242
Q

how does the red bark beetle display a strategy combo for dealing with cold temps?

A

ice structuring proteins
tissues dehydrate so glassy substance forms instead of freezing
glycerol
can withstand -150c

243
Q

aerobic respiration equation?

A

C6H1206 + 6O2 —> 6CO2 + 6H2O +ATP

244
Q

what 3 things does the rate of diffusion depend on?

A
  • SA of surface
  • thickness of surface
  • metabolic demands
245
Q

whats the equation for rate of diffusion ?

A

r= [(change in P) X (A)] / D

P- change in partial pressure
A- surface area
D- distance

246
Q

what 3 components are needed for a respiratory system?

A
  • gas exchange surface
  • circulatory mechanism
  • breathing mechanism
247
Q

how do insects respiratory systems work?

A
  • air enters through spiracles
  • diffuses into trachae and tracheoles
  • trachae inflate and deflate to pump air
  • tidal ventilation
248
Q

how do insects balance water loss and oxygen availability?

A
  • can close spiracles
  • hairs around spiracles trap air
  • air sacs store air
249
Q

what does increasing temp do to affinity for O2?

A

decreases affinity

250
Q

what does decreasing ph do to affinity for O2?

A

decreases affinity

251
Q

what happens when CO2 mixes with H2O?

A

carbonic acid forms which lowers ph

252
Q

does fetal haemoglobin have higher/ lower affinity for O2 than adults and why?

A

fetal- higher

so can take O2 from mothers blood more efficiently

253
Q

what kind of flow of water is it over the gills in fish?

A

unidirectional flow

254
Q

what are the gills made up of and what are 3 features of these?

A

gill filaments

  • thin membranes for short diffusion distance
  • capillary network to take O2 away
  • large SA
255
Q

what are the inhales/ exhales like for birds and how many per breath?

A 
2 inhalations and exhalations per breath 
1st inhale: to posterior air sac
1st exhale: moves to lungs
2nd inhale: moves to anterior air sac
2nd exhale: out through trachea
256
Q

what kind of air flow do birds have?

A

cross current- blood flow perpendicular to air flow

257
Q

what enables birds to breathe at high altitudes?

A

low O2 partial pressure

258
Q

what are the steps of inhalation in mammals?

A

intercostal muscles contract
diaphragm contracts and moves down
pressure decreases

259
Q

as CO2 increases in atmosphere what happens to seawater CO2 levels and ph?

A

increased seawater CO2

decreases ph

260
Q

what are each of these on the thermal performance curve?

  • Topt
  • CTmin and CTmax
A
  • temp with highest performance

- breadth of temp organisms can tolerate

261
Q

do endotherms or ectotherms have a wider thermal tolerance range?

A

endotherms

262
Q

what % of species are experiencing max temp above upper tolerance and what will the % be by 2080 for:

a) birds
b) mammals

A

a) current: 15%
2080: 36%

b) current: 16%
2080: 47%

263
Q

where may species that can detect climate change go?

A

move pole-wards and to higher altitudes

264
Q

what is phenotypic plasticity?

A

ability of single genotype to produce different phenotypes when exposed to different environments

265
Q

in a study of physiology of those in water warmed by nuclear plant and those not what was found?

A

the increase in temp increases O2 consumption

but if under heat for a longer period, use less O2 than those immediately exposed, as have acclimatised

266
Q

what 4 reasons make it hard to predict future climates?

A
  1. depends on future emission rates
  2. depends on extreme climatic events
  3. depends on how close species are to their thermal tolerance limits
  4. depends on species interactions
267
Q

how may cell embryo for:

a) pigs and rats
b) humans and cattle
c) frog

A

a) 4-8
b) 8
c) 3,000-4,000

268
Q

what is genomic equivalence?

A

no info is lost in early stages of embryonic development

269
Q

what is induction?

A

factor is secreted by cells to induce other cells to differentiate

270
Q

what is the spemann organiser?

A

the dorsal lip of the blastopore

271
Q

where is the deletion for prayer will syndrome?

A

deletion on paternal chromosome

272
Q

where is the deletion for angel man syndrome?

A

on maternal chromosome

273
Q

how many c.elegans somatic cells re programmed to die?

274
Q

how can neural tube defects be reduced ?

A

if pregnant women receive adequate folic acid

275
Q

describe the example with mice and fruit flys for highly conserved genes

A

same genes drive development of fruit flys compound eye and house mouses camera like eye

276
Q

in the Euscelis leafhopper what is the gut bacteria necessary for?

A

normal abdomen development

277
Q

whats an example of a species that uses indirect transfer for reproduction?

A

springtails

278
Q

if fertilised what do embryonic placental cells do?

A

secrete Gn to rescue corpus leteum and maintain its function

279
Q

what are ovary and uterus coordinated by?

A

hormonal feedback

280
Q

what is another word for :

  • poikiotherms
  • homeotherms
A
  • ectotherms

- endotherms

281
Q

what is the metabolic regulation below LCT?

A

vasoconstriction

282
Q

how do hypo osmotic fish get rid of salt?

A

Na/K ATPase builds NA+ gradient
Cl- transported using this gradient
Cl- builds up and diffuses out
Na+ sneaks through leaky cell junctions

283
Q

at the proximal tubule what 5 things are reabsorbed and what 2 enter the tubule fluid?

A
  • HCO3- NaCl H2O K+ nutrients

- H+ K+

284
Q

at the distal tubule what 3 things are reabsorbed and what 2 enter the tubule fluid?

A
  • NaCl H2O HCO3

- H+ K+

285
Q

what kind of urine can be produced and whats the solute concentration like?

A

hyperosmotic

higher solute conc than body fluids

286
Q

what was the consequence of drosophila larvae with more hsp genes?

A

greater mortality and slower development

287
Q

whats the snow fleas way of dealing with colder temperatures and what can be synthetically made?

A

can synthesise antifreeze protein

can be synthetically made to extend storage life of donor organs

288
Q

what is the Bohr effect?

A

higher CO2 partial pressure decreases blood Ph which decreases Hb affinity for O2

289
Q

what 3 things are changes in space constrained by?

A

dispersal ability, habitat availability, connectivity

290
Q

what does increasing temp do to O2 levels In the ocean?

291
Q

in ectotherms what happens to metabolic rate as environmental temp increases?

292
Q

which group are closet to their thermal limit?

293
Q

briefly what is thermoregulation?

A

animals maintain body temp within normal range

294
Q

whats the integumentary system?

A

outer covering of the body

295
Q

why may oily substances be secreted?

A

to repel water and protect insulating capacity of fur/feathers

296
Q

what is metabolic rate definition?

A

sum of all energy an animal uses in a given interval

297
Q

as body size decreases what happens to energy cost of tissues?

298
Q

what 3 types of synchrony aren’t needed for asexual reproduction?

A

behavioural, ecological and physiological synchrony

299
Q

where is the zygote cytoplasm from?

A

mothers egg

300
Q

what do pharming and xenotransplantation need?

A

genetic modification

301
Q

what is double fertilisation in plants?

A

1 sperm nucleus with egg and the other with 2 poor nuclei and a diploid embryo forms

APS126- Animal physiology, reproduction, development (3 decks)

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