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1
Q

methenamine silver stain is used primarily to visualize

A

pneumocystic carinii

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2
Q

elevated cold agglutinins are associated with

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

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3
Q

Positive Quellung reaction and optochin-sensitive organism?

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

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4
Q

The most common agent causing pneumonia and bronchitis in children < 1yr is

A

RSV

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5
Q

The appropriate treatment for RSV is

A

ribaviron

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6
Q

Skin test positive reactions are mediated by _______, and are a

A

T cells (CD4+ Th cell, memory cell -> effector cell, release cytokine -> macrophage activation); delayed Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

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7
Q

CD4+ Th1 cells are important in directing the immune response against

A

fungi and intracellular pathogens

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8
Q

CD4+ Th1 cells release ___________ which causes

A

IFN-gamma; macrophage activation

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9
Q

alpha-hemolytic agent of LRTI

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

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10
Q

cause of a widened mediastinum

A

bacillus anthracis

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11
Q

the only human pathogen with a polypeptide capsule

A

bacillus anthracis

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12
Q

Facultative intracellular AFB`

A

nocardiae, mycobacterium

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13
Q

cell wall-less and lack peptidoglycan

A

mycoplasma and ureaplasma

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14
Q

Most common cause of croup

A

Parainfluenza virus

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15
Q

Most common cause of bronchitis in neonates

A

bacterial - streptococcus agalctiae

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16
Q

Most common cause of adult acute bronchitis

A

viral - influenza virus

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17
Q

Most common cause of acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis

A

Haemophilus influenza (NTHi), followed by moraxella and s. pneumoniae

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18
Q

Guillain Barre syndrome may result from a complication due to what agent/s

A

influenza virus, chlamydia

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19
Q

Chlamydia psittaci exposure is associated with

A

poultry exposure

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20
Q

In tuberculosis infections, the principle form of defense to fight off infection is

A

CMI, leading to a granuloma formation

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21
Q

Fever, SOB, bilateral infiltrates, and “hat-shaped” organisms visible on silver stain within the foamy alveolar exudate, this patient most likely has

A

pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

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22
Q

Agent with GPC, encapsulated, lancet-shaped, diplococci

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

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23
Q

Agent described by budding yeast and pseudohyphae

A

candida albicans

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24
Q

Agent described as mold with nonseptate hyphae

A

Mucor

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25
Q

Uncontrolled diabetic with chronic sinusitis, a likely agent is

A

Mucor

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26
Q

Agent describe as mold with septate hyphae

A

Aspergillosis

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27
Q

Alcohol, ARD, lobar consolidation of left lower lung, a likely agent is

A

klebsiella pneumoniae

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28
Q

Alcoholic, exposure to contaminated air conditioner

A

legionella

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29
Q

Most common cause of pneumonia in young adults

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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30
Q

What agent is associated with empyema formation

A

staphylococcus aureus

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31
Q

Barking cough with hoarseness in a young child, the likely agent is

A

Croup - parainfluenza virus (paramyxovirus family)

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32
Q

Common agent of STDs

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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33
Q

Agents that are OBLIGATE aerobes

A

MTB, Nocardia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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34
Q

Agents that are OBLIGATE anaerobes

A

Actinomyces

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35
Q

Encapsulated agents of LRTI

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, HiB, Klebsiella

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36
Q

Catalase positive agents of LRTI

A

Staph aureus, pseudomonas aeruginosa, aspergillus

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37
Q

Prevnar vs pneumovax

A 
Pneumovax: 23-valent polysaccharide vaccine, no class switching or memory
Prevnar: 7/13-valent, conjugated vaccine for memory and Ig switching
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38
Q

Blue-green sputum or colony

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

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39
Q

Protein A

A

staph. aureus; prevents opsonization and phagocytosis by binding Fc of IgG

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40
Q

Exotoxin A

A

C. diptheriae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa; inactivates elongation factor 2

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41
Q

Whooping cough agent

A

Bordetella pertussis

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42
Q

Green ring around colonies on blood agar indicates

A

alpha-hemolytic bacteria, streptococcus pneumoniae

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43
Q

Clear ring around colonies on blood agar likely indicates

A

beta-hemolytic bacteria, staphylococcus aureus

44
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of

A

MOPS: Meningitis, Otitis media, Pneumonia, Sinusitis

45
Q

“Rusty” sputum likely indicates

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

46
Q

Woolsorter’s disease

A

pulmonary anthrax

47
Q

Cord factor is associated with what agent

A

MTB

48
Q

Fermentors

A

Klebsiella

49
Q

Epiglottitis primary agent

A

Haemophilus influenzae

50
Q

Legionnaires Disease

A

severe pneumonia, GI, and CNS symptoms

51
Q

Charcoal yeast extract culture, think

A

Legionella

52
Q

Agent associated with burn wounds

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

53
Q

Pneumonia in Cystic Fibrosis patients is likely due to

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

54
Q

Red currant jelly sputum

A

Klebsiella

55
Q

Elementary Bodies and Reticulate Bodies

A

Reticulate bodies are actively replicating form in Chlamydia

56
Q

Cytoplasmic inclusions on Giemsa Stain

A

Chlamydia

57
Q

Outbreaks of pneumonia in military recruits

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

58
Q

Diabetic with pneumonia, likely agents

A

klebsiella or mucor

59
Q

Mississippi-Ohio river valley + bird/bat droppings

A

Histoplasa capsulatum

60
Q

Spherule is pathognomonic for

A

Coccidiodomycosis

61
Q

facultative intracellular Fungus

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

62
Q

thick-walled large yeast cells

A

Blastomycosis dermatiditis

63
Q

SW US, construction, summer

A

Coccidiodomycosis

64
Q

Central US (chicago) near lakes and rivers

A

Blastomycosis dermatiditis

65
Q

Hyphae with Acute angle branching

A

Aspergillosis

66
Q

Irregular, broad, nonseptate hyphae

A

Mucor

67
Q

History of Asthma or CF

A

Aspergillus -> allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

68
Q

History of properly treated TB

A

Aspergillomas -> fungal ball

69
Q

Immunocompromised + interstitial pneumonia with disc-shaped yeast

A

pneumocystis jiroveci

70
Q

Oval yeast in macrophages

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

71
Q

Ground glass attenuation or CT halo

A

invasive aspergillosis

72
Q

end stage AIDS patient with Tuberculosis like disease

A

MAC (mycobacterium avium complex)

73
Q

Severely neutropenic patient is likely to get

A

aspergillus, candida

74
Q

Mycolic acids

A

Mycobacterium (MTB), basis of INH therapy

75
Q

Amphotericin is a __________ and works by

A

anti-fungal, binds ergosterols -> leaky cell membrane -> cell death

76
Q

Influenza A and B treatment

A

zanamivir, oseltamivir

77
Q

CMV treatment

A

ganciclovir

78
Q

Top 5 agents causing VAP

A

S. aureus, s. pneumoniae, HiB, p. aeruginosa, acinetobacter

79
Q

Atelectasis, how can you tell on a Xray

A

loss of airspace, anatomy shift toward, crowding of ribs, elevated diaphragm

80
Q

Sputum sample requirements

A

> 25 neutrophils, <10-25 epithelial cells

81
Q

Staining for fungal agents involves

A

KOH

82
Q

Parasitic form of fungus

A

yeast or spherule

83
Q

Infectious form of fungus

A

generally mold -> spores

84
Q

What would be more effective in a flu outbreak?

A

not vaccine, since incubation is shorter than immune response; oseltamivir and zanamivir

85
Q

Pneumolysin

A

virulant factor of streptococcus pneumoniae

86
Q

bile/deoxycholate soluble

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

87
Q

Grows on MacConkey agar

A

acinetobacter baumanii

88
Q

abx resistant islands found in

A

acinetobacter baumanii

89
Q

Wounded soldiers

A

Acinetobacter baumanii

90
Q

Pyocyanin

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

91
Q

Abscesses on CT show clear

A

air-fluid level

92
Q

_____________ destroy conidia, __________ destroy hyphae

A

macrophages; PMN

93
Q

Fe overload state predisposes a pt to

A

aspergillosis and mucormycoses

94
Q

Histoplasmin

A

CF test with mycelial Ag

95
Q

Estrogen binding protein

A

Coccidioides

96
Q

unilateral abdominal LAD

A

DMAC in AIDS pt

97
Q

Common agent in AECB/COPD

A

Hib

98
Q

Common agent in secondary bacterial inf in fluenza

A

Hib

99
Q

Common bacterial agent found in tracheitis

A

Hib

100
Q

Primary agent of pharyngitis

A

ADV

101
Q

Top 3 most common causes of LRTI in children

A

RSV, PIV, and ADV

102
Q

Pharyngoconjunctival fever

A

pharyngitis in summer, + periauricular LAD + conjunctivitis

103
Q

Pertussis treatment

A

Macrolides

104
Q

Vaccines that reduce carriage for pneumonia

A

Prenvar, Hib, pertussis

105
Q

Hyperinflation, atelectasis, hilar adenopathy, parahilar peribronchial infiltrates are diagnostic for

A

viral pneumonia

Microbiology Exam 3 (5 decks)

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