Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

passmed incorrect > ALL > Flashcards

ALL Flashcards

1
Q

what angina medication can exacerbate GI ulceration?

A

nicorandil
- Patients with diverticular disease are at particular risk of bowel perforation during nicorandil treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what pattern of intake of angina meds impacts their effectiveness?

A

Continuous treatment with nitrates (such as isosorbide mononitrate) is associated with the development of tolerance, which results in reduced therapeutic effects.

it is recommended that a nitrate-free interval each day (lasting at least 4 hours) should be ensured to maintain sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is this: A 67-year-old female undergoes an oesophagogastrectomy for carcinoma of the distal oesophagus. She complains of chest pain. The following day there is brisk bubbling into the chest drain when suction is applied.

A

air leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is this: A 20-year-old man has a protracted stay on ITU following a difficult appendicectomy for perforated appendicitis with pelvic and sub phrenic abscesses. He has now deteriorated further and developed deranged liver function tests.

A

portal vein thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is this: A 63-year-old man undergoes an Ivor - Lewis oesophagogastrectomy for carcinoma of the distal oesophagus. The following day a pale opalescent liquid is noted to be draining from the right chest drain.

A

chyle leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is Gastroschisis?

A

Gastroschisis describes a congenital defect in the anterior abdominal wall just lateral to the umbilical cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is omphalocele?

A

the abdominal contents protrude through the anterior abdominal wall but are covered in an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what condition is this?

A

patau syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when should you omit sulfonyureas before surgery?

A

take med on day prior to surgery + omit on the day of surgery
exception is morning surgery in patients who take BD - they can have the afternoon dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which medical conditions means HbA1c would under-estimate her blood sugar levels?

A

Sickle-cell anaemia
GP6D deficiency
Hereditary spherocytosis
Haemodialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which medical conditions means HbA1c would over-estimate her blood sugar levels?

A

Vitamin B12/folic acid deficiency
Iron-deficiency anaemia
Splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how do you distinguish between primary adrenal failure and secondary adrenal insufficiency?

A

skin hyperpigmentation

ACTH secreted in primary adrenal failure which causes pigmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

A solitary parathyroid adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the most likely explanation for these results?

A

Raised total T3 and T4 but normal fT3 and fT4 suggest high concentrations of thyroid binding globulin, which can be seen during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how does loperamide (anti-diarrhoea) work?

A

Loperamide is a µ-opioid receptor agonist which does not have systemic effects as it is not absorbed through the gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are features of atypical UTI in under 6m old?

A

Seriously ill
Poor urine flow
Abdominal or bladder mass
Raised creatinine
Septicaemia
Failure to respond to treatment with suitable antibiotics within 48 hours
Infection with non-E. coli organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are symptoms of acute digoxin toxicity?

A

Symptoms of acute digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal disturbance (nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain), dizziness, confusion, blurry or yellow vision, and arrhythmias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which antipsychotic is associated with increased VTE risk?

A

olanzapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when should you be cautious of prescribing cyclizine

A

HF - can cause drop in CO and raise HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what causes kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

HHV8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is a key histological finding in multiple myeloma?

A

Increased concentrations of free light chains in serum and urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is a key histological finding in minimal change?

A

Podocyte effacement found on biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is a key finding in pre-renal causes of decreased eGFR

A

Increased specific gravity of urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is a key biopsy finding in diabetic nephropathy?

A

Mesangial expansion,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is a key finding in diabetic nephropahty?

A

Enlarged kidneys on USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how do you work out type of hearing loss on the audiogram?

A
  1. is there anything below 20dB
    yes = move to step 2
    no = normal hearing
  2. is there a gap? (b/w air and bone conduction)
    yes = conductive or mixed hearing loss
    no = sensorineural hearing loss
  3. is one below or both below the 20dB line
    one = conductive
    both = mixed
26
Q

how do you rate motor in GCS?

A
  1. Obeys commands
  2. Localises to pain
  3. Withdraws from pain
  4. Abnormal flexion to pain (decorticate posture)
  5. Extending to pain
  6. None
27
Q

how do you rate eyes in GCS?

A
  1. Spontaneous
  2. To speech
  3. To pain
  4. None
28
Q

how do you rate verbal in GCS?

A
  1. Orientated
  2. Confused
  3. Words
  4. Sounds
  5. None
29
Q

what is the characteristic CXR finding in aspergilloma?

A

a crescent of air that surrounds a radiopaque mass present in a lung cavity is visible.

30
Q

when should a baby be assessed for meconium aspiration syndrome?

A

respiratory rate above 60 per minute
the presence of grunting
heart rate below 100 or above 160 beats/minute
capillary refill time above 3 seconds
temperature of 38°C or above, or 37.5°C on 2 occasions 30 minutes apart
oxygen saturation below 95%
presence of central cyanosis

31
Q

mania vs hypomania?

A
32
Q

what cardiac abnormalities assoc with carcinoid syndrome?

A

right valve stenosis

33
Q

what is seen with spinal cord injuries above T6?

A

Autonomic dysreflexia can only occur if the spinal cord injury occurs above the T6 level

34
Q

ondansetron:
MOA and s/e

A

5-HT3 antagonist

headache, constipation and, importantly, QTc prolongation

35
Q
A
36
Q

which med has been shown to reduce the rate of CKD progression in ADPKD?

A

tolvaptan

a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist to reduce the rate of cyst development and renal insufficiency

37
Q

what smoking cessation medication cannot be used in epileptics?

A

Bupropion should not be used in a patient with epilepsy as it reduces seizure threshold

38
Q

MOA of varenicline (smoking cessation)

A

a nicotinic receptor partial agonist

39
Q

what ix should be done before giving flecanide in AF?

A

look for signs of structural heart disease before the use of flecainide in AF - do echocardiogram

40
Q

what are the doses of adrenaline given in cardiac arrest?

A

cardiac arrest: 1mg - 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1ml of 1:1000 IV

41
Q

what electrolyte abnormality is MDMA (ecstasy) associated with?

A

hyponatreamia

42
Q

what form of HRT can be used in women with hx of DVT?

A

Transdermal HRT should be used in women at risk of venous thromboembolism

43
Q

what oral diabetic medication can cause pancreatitis?

A

DPP4-inhibitors (rare S/E)

44
Q

what abc might lower seizure threshold?

A

quinolones eg ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin

45
Q

how do you convert oral codeine/tramadol dose to oral morphine?

A

divide by 10

46
Q

how do you convert oral morphine to oral oxycodone?

A

divide by 1.5-2x

47
Q

how do you convert oral morphine to s/c?

A

divide by 2

48
Q

how do you convert oral morphine to s/c diamorphine?

A

divide by 3

49
Q

how do you convert oral oxycodone to s/c diamorphine?

A

divide by 1.5

50
Q

what determines prognosis in pancreatitis?

A

The Modified-Glasgow Score can be used to stratify patients by risk of severe pancreatitis. A score of ≥3 suggests a significant increase in likelihood of severe pancreatitis. These patients may benefit from intensive care.

51
Q

following a diagnosis of asbestosis, what malignancy is the patient at risk of?

A

the risk of bronchogenic carcinoma is actually greater than the risk of mesothelioma

52
Q

what can OSA cause?

A

hypertension

53
Q

what can be sued to lower phosphate levels in pts with CKD + mineral bone disease?

A

Sevelamer is a non-calcium based phosphate binder that treats hyperphosphataemia in patients with CKD mineral bone disease

54
Q

what is Uhthoff’s phenomenon?

A

This describes an exacerbation of neurological symptoms and signs linked with a rise in core body temperature, often affecting the eyes of multiple sclerosis (MS) patients. Patients commonly report symptoms following exercise or hot showers/baths, which last for under 24 hours, unlike a relapse of MS.

55
Q

what is Lhermitte’s sign?

A

describes the shooting pain some patients experience while in neck extension.

56
Q

what medication can cause hypomagnesaemia?

A

PPIs

57
Q

risk factors for regintopathy of prematurity?

A

born before 32 weeks and receiving oxygen treatment. Over-oxygenation can cause retinal vessel proliferation which can lead to a loss of the red reflex and neovascularisation seen in the examination.

loss of red reflex bilaterally + retinal neovascularisation

58
Q

what kidney condition is HIV assoc with?

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

59
Q

who should be referred for same day cardiac specialist assessment?

A

patients with a new blood pressure of >180/120 mmHg and confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Other findings which may warrant a same-day specialist referral in the setting of severe hypertension include retinal haemorrhages, papilloedema (signs of accelerated hypertension) or suspected phaeochromocytoma.

60
Q

indications for corticosteroid treatment in sarcoidosis?

A

parenchymal lung disease, uveitis, hypercalcaemia and neurological or cardiac involvement

61
Q

ECG change for tricyclic overdose?

A

QRS complex widening, due to sodium channel blockade

prolong the QT interval

tachyarrhythmias due to their anticholinergic effects

62
Q

management of new-onset atrial fibrillation

A

flecainide or amiodarone if there is no evidence of structural or ischaemic heart disease or
amiodarone if there is evidence of structural heart disease.’

passmed incorrect (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions