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ALE > ALE Doctrine CoL > Flashcards

ALE Doctrine CoL Flashcards

1
Q

Name two of the seven core competencies of Army Aviation?

A
  1. Provide accurate and timely information collection.
  2. Provide reaction time and maneuver space.
  3. Destroy, defeat, disrupt, divert, or delay enemy forces.
  4. Air assault ground maneuver forces.
  5. Air Movement of personnel, equipment, and supplies.
  6. Evacuate wounded or recover isolated personnel.
  7. Enable command and control over extended ranges and complex terrain.
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2
Q

What are multidomain operations?

A

The combined arms employment of joint and Army capabilities to create and exploit relative advantages that achieve objectives, defeat enemy forces, and consolidate gains on behalf of joint force commanders.

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3
Q

What are the TENETS of multidomain operations?

A
  1. Agility
  2. Convergence
  3. Endurance
  4. Depth
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4
Q

An operational environment is composed of what five domains? The domains are understood through what three dimensions?

A
  1. Land
  2. Maritime
  3. Air
  4. Space
  5. Cyberspace
  6. Physical
  7. Information
  8. Human
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5
Q

What are the three types of assigned areas that a land component or ARFOR commander uses? What are the other aspects?

A
  1. Area of operations
  2. Zone
  3. Sector
  4. Area of Influence
  5. Area of Interest
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6
Q

What is a Decisive Operation?

A

Operations that directly accomplish the mission and commander’s intent. The focal point around which commanders design an entire operation.

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7
Q

Name one task of an AHB (Assault Helicopter Battalion).

A
  1. Air assault
  2. Air movement
  3. CASEVAC
  4. Aerial C2 (Command and Control)
  5. Personnel Recovery
  6. Reconnaissance
  7. Aerial-delivered mine operations
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8
Q

What is the UH-60L/M Blackhawk capable of carrying?

A

Capable of carrying 11 combat loaded air assault troops (seats in) or light field artillery pieces.

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9
Q

How many passengers can a CH-47F Chinook carry?

A

32 passengers (seats in)

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10
Q

What are the additional tasks of an AB (Attack Battalion)?

A

Provides staff planning, integration, and coordination for joint and combined arms operations for the Gray Eagle UAS company.

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11
Q

The Gray Eagle company equipped with 12 MQ-1C unmanned aircraft is a ___.

A

Division asset.

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12
Q

Which Battalion is tasked to support areas such as ground vehicle and aviation maintenance, Signal and Network Support, Aviation and ground sustainment operations for the aviation brigade, and distribution management operations within the aviation brigade?

A

ASB (Aviation Support Battalion)

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13
Q

Name and explain the last phase of the Pilot in Command Program.

A
  1. Designation Board and Designation.
  2. Board is conducted at the discretion of the battalion/squadron commander and members may include SP/ASO/ME (Standardization Pilot / Aviation Safety Officer / Maintenance Examiner).
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14
Q

What are the two types of AMCs (Air Mission Commander)?

A
  1. Mixed MDS (Mission Data Sets)
  2. Aircraft Only.
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15
Q

What is the purpose of reconaissance?

A

To provide the commander with situational awareness.

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16
Q

How do we maintain contact once we are BINGO fuel?

A

Handover the recon objective to another unit.

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17
Q

What are the sub-components of CCIR (Commander’s Critical Information Requirements)? Where can they be found on the OPORD?

A
  1. PIR (Priority Intelligence Requirements) - questions about the threat or operational environment.
  2. FFIR (Friendly Forces Information Requirements) - requests for updates on friendly situation.
  3. Can be found in the coordinating instructions
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18
Q

What is a Named Area of Interest (NAI)?

A
  1. Geographical areas with information that will satisfy specific information requirements, such as PIR, can be collected.
  2. Typically chosen by comparing the most likely and most dangerous enemy courses of action.
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19
Q

What is an indicator?

A

Information which reflects the intention or capability of an adversary to adopt or reject a specific course of action.

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20
Q

What are the three types of management for reconnaissance missions?

A
  1. Cueing
  2. Mixing - 2 or more different assets to collect on the same PIR
  3. Redundancy - 2 or more similar assets to collect on the same PIR
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21
Q

Commanders employ two reconnaissance techniques to answer information requirements: Reconnaissance Push and Reconnaissance Pull. How do they differ?

A

Reconnaissance Push - relatively thorough understanding of the operational environment

Reconnaissance Pull - understanding of the environment or threat is vague, or if time is limited.

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22
Q

What are the fundamentals of reconnaissance?

A
  1. Gain and maintain enemy contact
  2. Orient on the reconnaissance objective
  3. Do not keep reconnaissance assets in reserve
  4. Report all information rapidly and accurately
  5. Develop the situation rapidly
  6. Retain freedom of maneuver
  7. Ensure continuous reconnaissance
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23
Q

Which form of reconnaissance is usually the most time intensive?

A

Zone Reconnaissance

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24
Q

The boundaries of a zone reconnaissance are ___.

The boundaries on an area reconnaissance are ___.

A

restrictive in nature.

permissive.

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25
Q

How is a Reconnaissance in Force different from a Movement to Contact?

A
  1. Reconnaissance in Force is focused on answering a PIR (priority intelligence requirements).
  2. Movement to Contact is focused on gaining and maintaining contact.
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26
Q

Which form of reconnaissance does aviation NOT perform?

A

Special Reconnaissance

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27
Q

What are the elements of Commander’s Reconnaissance Guidance (What are the four components of Commander’s Reconnaissance Guidance)?

A
  1. Focus
  2. Tempo
  3. Engagement / Disengagement Criteria
  4. Bypass / Displacement Criteria
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28
Q
  1. The engagement / disengagement criteria specify the conditions ___.
  2. Bypass criteria are the conditions ___.
  3. Displacement criteria specifies the conditions ___.
A
  1. in which the unit will engage or break contact with the enemy.
  2. under which units may avoid contact.
  3. under which the unit will change mission.
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29
Q

What are the subcomponents of Tempo?

A
  1. Level of aggressiveness
  2. Level of detail
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30
Q

What are displacement criteria?

A

Specifies the conditions in which the unit will CHANGE MISSION.

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31
Q

What does the reconnaissance OP symbol look like?

A

Triangle with a diagonal line going through it.

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32
Q

What is the role of reconnaissance handover line?

A

Ensures effective cueing, mixing, and redundancy to maintain contact with the enemy.

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33
Q

What is a phase line?

A

An easily identifiable feature on the ground that is used for control and coordination of military operations. (U.S. States used for naming)

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34
Q

How many categories does the DoD group UAS (Unmanned Aerial Systems) into?

A

Five

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35
Q

What two UAS (Unmanned Aerial Systems) are organic to the Combat Aviation Brigade?

A
  1. MQ-1C Gray Eagle
  2. RQ-7B Shadow
36
Q

The RQ-7B Shadow belongs to who?

A

Organic to the ACS (Air Cavalry Squadron) in the CAB and the Military Intelligence Company in a BCT (Brigade Combat Team).

37
Q

Which UAS (Unmanned Aerial System) discussed can carry armament?

A

MQ-1C Gray Eagle can carry up to 4xAGM-114 Hellfire Missiles.

38
Q

What UAS (Unmanned Aerial System) role is similar to Pilot in Command?

A

Aircraft Commander

39
Q

Manned - Unmanned Teaming (MUM-T) provides ___.

A

Reduced risked to manned operations.

40
Q

What are the five mission sets for UAS (Unmanned Aerial Systems)?

A
  1. Reconnaissance
  2. Attack
  3. Surveillance
  4. Security
  5. Command and Control Support
41
Q

What is the purpose of security?

A

To provide the supported unit with early warning of enemy operations, time and space to react, and options to develop the situation.

42
Q

What are the fundamentals of security?

A

MOPPP
1. Maintain enemy contact
2. Orient on the protected force, area, or facility
3. Provide early and accurate warning
4. Provide reaction time and maneuver space
5. Perform continuous reconnaissance

43
Q

What are the forms of security?

A
  1. Screen
  2. Guard
  3. Cover (brigade sized element)
  4. Area
44
Q

What is the difference between a screen and a cover?

A
  1. A screen provides early warning.
  2. A cover provides early warning, protection from enemy observation, protection from enemy direct fires, and protection from enemy indirect fires.
45
Q

What are the components of Commander’s Security Guidance?

A
  1. Focus
  2. Duration
  3. Engagement / Disengagement Criteria
  4. Displacement Criteria (change mission based on event, time, or enemy)
46
Q

What length of time is a long duration tempo?

A

More than 12 hours

47
Q

What is the purpose of a contact point?

A
  1. It serves as a reminder for the air mission commander to contact a unit that the flight will overly.
  2. Often used in conjunction with a passage point.
48
Q

What is an air corridor?

A
  1. A restricted air route for friendly aircraft.
  2. Prevents friendly fire upon friendly aircraft.
49
Q

What are Offensive Operations?

A

It is the decisive form of war.

50
Q

Name two reasons why we conduct Offensive Operations?

A
  1. To defeat and destroy enemy forces.
  2. Gain control of terrain, resources, and population centers.
  3. Secure decisive terrain.
  4. Deprive the enemy of resources.
  5. Gain information.
  6. Deceive and divert an enemy force.
  7. Fix an enemy force in position.
  8. Disrupt an enemy force’s attack.
  9. Set the conditions for successful future operations.
51
Q

What are the characteristics of Offensive Operations?

A

CATS
1. Concentration
2. Audacity
3. Tempo
4. Surprise

52
Q

What are the 4 types of Offensive Operations? Which do Aviators do?

A
  1. Movement to Contact
  2. Attack
  3. Exploitation
  4. Pursuit

Aviation performs Movement to Contact and Attack.

53
Q

When do you conduct a movement to contact?

A

The enemy situation is vague or enemy situation is not specific enough to conduct and attack.

54
Q

What is the first step of a movement to contact?

A

Cross the line of departure (LD) (this is a control measure).

55
Q

If friendly forces DO make contact with an enemy force, what are the five options they have to proceed?

A
  1. Attack
  2. Defend
  3. Bypass
  4. Delay
  5. Withdraw
56
Q

What are the two special types of movement to contact?

A
  1. Search and attack
  2. Cordon and search
57
Q

What are the two types of Attacks?

A
  1. Hasty
  2. Deliberate
58
Q

What is an Engagement Area (EA)?

A

An area in which the commander intends to trap and destroy an enemy force with the massed fires of all available weapons and supporting systems.

59
Q

What is the difference between a High-Value target and a High-Payoff target?

A
  1. HVT - (determined by S2) is a target the enemy commander requires for the successful completion of the mission.
  2. HPT - (determined by S3) is a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly course of action.
60
Q

What is the acronym to ABF/SBF/BP (Attack by Fire / Support by Fire / Battle Position) selection? Who uses this acronym?

A

NORMA
1. Nature of Target
2. Obstacles
3. Range to Target
4. Maneuver Area
5. Altitude above target area

Battalion.

61
Q

How do you determine Firing Position Selection and who uses this?

A

BRASSCRAFO
1. Background
2. Range
3. Altitude of the target
4. Sun or full moon
5. Shadow
6. Concealment
7. Rotor wash
8. Area to maneuver
9. Fields of fire
10. Obstacles

Troop / Company uses this.

62
Q

What are the Company and Platoon formation techniques?

A
  1. Combat Cruise
  2. Wedge
  3. Line
63
Q

What are the different Terrain Flight Modes?

A
  1. Low level (80 - 200 ft AHO)
  2. Contour (25 - 80 ft AHO)
  3. Nap-of-the-Earth (NOE) (<25 ft AHO)
64
Q

What are the different Techniques of Movement and how are they dictated?

A
  1. Traveling - enemy contact is unlikely
  2. Traveling Overwatch - enemy contact is possible
  3. Bounding Overwatch - enemy contact is likely.
65
Q

What are the Attack employment methods?

A
  1. Continuous Attack
  2. Phased Attack
  3. Maximum Destruction
66
Q

What are forms of Control Measures?

A
  1. Passage of Lines (Forward and Rearward)
  2. Passage Point
  3. Contact Point
67
Q

What is Step 1 of the Engagement Area Development Process; who conducts this?

A
  1. Conduct IPB (Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield)
  2. S2
68
Q

What are the 4 steps of Engagement Area Development?

A
  1. Conduct IPB (S2)
  2. Select the ground for the attack (BN Commander)
  3. Integrate the Engagement Area (S3)
  4. Direct Fire Planning (Troop/Company)
69
Q

What are the Fire Distribution Techniques?

A
  1. Closest TRP (Target Reference Point)
  2. Quadrants
  3. Fire Patterns
  4. Target Array
  5. Sectors
  6. Priority fire zones
70
Q

Which airframes can be utilized during an Air Assault?

A

All Army Aviation airframes can conduct or assist an Air Assault.

71
Q

Define Air Assault.

A

The movement of friendly assault forces by rotary wing aircraft to engage and destroy enemy forces, or to seize and hold key terrain.

72
Q

What is the primary difference between and Air Movement and an Air Assault?

A
  1. Air movement is the air transport of units, personnel, supplies, and equipment; this includes airdrops and landings.
  2. Primary difference is that an air assault links a specific ground tactical plan to the aerial movement of the assault force.
73
Q

What are the two types of Air Movements?

A
  1. Non-Tactical - load efficiency is a priority over unit integrity or off-loading sequence.
  2. Tactical - arrangement of personnel, equipment, and supplies is prioritized over efficiency.
74
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating the Air Mission Coordination Meeting and the air mission brief?

A

The Air Assault Task Force Staff Officer (AATF S-3)

75
Q

Who is responsible for developing the ground tactical plan, the loading plan, and the staging plan (the commander of the largest ground maneuver force)?

A

Ground Tactical Commander

76
Q

What is the difference between the AATFC (Air Assault Task Force Commander) and the Aviation Task Force Commander?

A
  1. The AATFC is normally the senior maneuver commander with overall mission approval authority.
  2. The Aviation Task Force Commander is in charge of the aviation units providing assets to the ground force. This individual commands all Aviation assets through all phases of the operation.
77
Q

When does the Air Assault Planning Process begin?

A

Upon receipt of the higher headquarters’ WARNORD

78
Q

What are the first two meetings between the ground force and the supporting aviation unit?

A
  1. Initial Planning Conference
  2. Air Mission Coordination Meeting
79
Q

What is the purpose of the Aircrew Operations Order?

A
  1. To provide aircrews that are executing the Air Assault with all the information they need to successfully execute the Air Assault.
  2. By the end of the brief, all aircrew personnel will understand the mission
80
Q

What are the steps of the Air Assault Reverse Planning Sequence and which is the most important step?

A
  1. Ground Tactical Plan (most important step)
  2. Landing Plan
  3. Air Movement Plan
  4. Loading Plan
  5. Staging Plan
81
Q

Explain the brevity terms cherry and ice.

A
  1. Cherry indicates that there is enemy activity above a pre-briefed risk tolerance of the ground force commander.
  2. Ice indicates that enemy activity is below the pre-briefed tolerance level.
82
Q

What are some considerations when selecting a Helicopter Landing Zone (HLZ)?

A
  1. Location
  2. Capacity
  3. Enemy
  4. Unit Integrity
  5. Fires
  6. Obstacles
  7. Identifiable by Air
  8. Orientation
83
Q

What is the difference between CASEVAC and MEDEVAC?

A

MEDEVAC is conducted using properly marked medical transports (ambulances) that are dedicated to evacuation and staffed with medical providers who provide care to stabilize and maintain the patients medical condition en route to medical treatment facilities.

84
Q

Who provides Medical mission approval? Who provides Launch approval?

A
  1. Medical officer provides approval for use of MEDEVAC aircraft.
  2. IAW AR 95-1 launch requires appropriate Aviation Command level approval based upon risk level (Low-Company, Moderate-BN, High-CAB, Ex-High-First GO). For urgent and Urgent Surgical MEDEVAC missions, MEDEVAC company commanders ‘may’ be delegated Moderate risk approval Authority.
85
Q

How many lines of a 9 line MEDEVAC re required to have air assets launch?

A

5

86
Q

How many HH-60s are in a CAB?

A

15

ALE (3 decks)

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