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ALE > ALE Doctrine pt. 1 > Flashcards

ALE Doctrine pt. 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Name two of the seven core competencies of Army Aviation?

A
  1. Provide accurate and timely information collection.
  2. Provide reaction time and maneuver space.
  3. Destroy, defeat, disrupt, divert, or delay enemy forces.
  4. Air Assault ground maneuver forces.
  5. Air Movement of personnel, equipment, and supplies.
  6. Evacuate wounded or recover isolated personnel.
  7. Enable command and control over extended ranges and complex terrain.
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2
Q

What is a Decisive Operation?

A
  • Operations that directly accomplish the mission and commander’s intent. The focal point around which commanders design an entire operation.
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3
Q

Name one task of an AHB.

A
  • Air Assault
  • Air Movement
  • CASEVAC
  • Aerial C2
  • Personnel Recovery
  • Reconnaissance
  • Aerial-delivered mine operations
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4
Q

Which Battalion is tasked to support in areas such as ground vehicle and aviation maintenance, Signal and Network Support, Aviation and ground sustainment operations for the aviation brigade, and distribution management operations within the aviation brigade?

A
  • ASB (Aviation Support Battalion)
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5
Q

Name and explain the last phase of the Pilot in Command Program.

A
  • Designation Board and Designation.
  • Board is conducted at the discretion of the battalion/squadron commander and members may include SP/ASO/ME.
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6
Q

What are the two types of AMCs?

A
  • Mixed Mission Data Set and Aircraft Only
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7
Q

What is the purpose of Security?

A
  • To provide the supported unit with early warning of enemy operations, time and space to react, and options to develop the situation.
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8
Q

What are the fundamentals of security?

A
  • Maintain enemy contact.
  • Orient on the protected force, area, or facility.
  • Provide early and accurate warning.
  • Provide reaction time and maneuver space.
  • Perform continuous reconnaissance.
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9
Q

What are the forms of Security?

A
  • Screen
  • Guard
  • Cover
  • Area
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10
Q

What is the difference between a screen and a cover?

A
  • A screen provides early warning.
  • A cover provides early warning, protection from enemy observation, protection from enemy direct fires, and protection from enemy indirect fires.
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11
Q

What are the elements of Commander’s Guidance?

A
  • Focus
  • Duration / Tempo
  • Engagement / Disengagement Criteria
  • Bypass / Displacement Criteria
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12
Q

What length of time is a long duration tempo?

A
  • More than 12 hours.
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13
Q

What is the purpose of a contact point?

A
  • It serves as a reminder for the Air Mission Commander to contact a unit that the flight will overfly
  • Used in conjunction with a Passage Point.
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14
Q

What is an air corridor?

A
  • A restricted air route for friendly aircraft.
  • Prevents friendly fire upon aircraft.
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15
Q

What is the purpose of Reconnaissance?

A
  • To provide the supported commander with situational awareness.
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16
Q

What are the subcomponents of CCIR?

A
  • PIR: questions about Threat and Operational Environment
  • FFIR: requests for updates on friendly situation.
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17
Q

What is an indicator?

A
  • Information which reflects the intention or capability of an adversary to adopt or reject a specific course of action.
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18
Q

Which form of reconnaissance is usually the most time intensive?

A
  • Zone Reconnaissance
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19
Q

How is a Reconnaissance in Force different from a Movement to Contact?

A
  • Reconnaissance in Force is focused on answering a PIR.
  • Movement to Contact is focused on gaining contact with the enemy.
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20
Q

Which form of reconnaissance does aviation NOT perform?

A
  • Special Reconnaissance.
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21
Q

What are the subcomponents of Tempo?

A
  • Level of Aggressiveness
  • Level of Detail
22
Q

What is Displacement Criteria?

A
  • Specifies conditions in which the unit will CHANGE MISSION.
23
Q

What does the reconnaissance OP symbol look like?

A
  • Triangle with slash in it.
24
Q

What is the role of reconnaissance handover line?

A
  • Ensures effective cueing, mixing, and redundancy to maintain contact.
25
Q

How many categories does the Department of Defense group UAS into?

A
  • Five
26
Q

What tow UAS are organic to the Combat Aviation Brigade?

A
  • MQ-1C Gray Eagle
  • RQ-7B Shadow
27
Q

Which UAS discussed can carry armament?

A
  • The MQ-1C Gray Eagle can carry up to four AGM-114 Hellfire Missiles.
28
Q

What UAS role is similar to a Pilot-in-Command?

A
  • Aircraft Commander.
29
Q

What are the five mission sets for UAS?

A
  • Reconnaissance
  • Attack
  • Surveillance
  • Security
  • Command and Control Support
30
Q

Name two reasons why we conduct Offensive Operations?

A
  • To defeat and destroy enemy forces
  • Gain control of terrain, resources, and population centers.
  • Secure decisive terrain.
  • Deprive the enemy of resources.
  • Gain information.
  • Deceive and divert an enemy force.
  • Fix an enemy force in position.
  • Disrupt and enemy force’s attack.
  • Set the conditions for successful future operations.
31
Q

What are the characteristics of Offensive Operations?

A
  • Concentration
  • Audacity
  • Tempo
  • Surprise
32
Q

If friendly forces DO make contact with an enemy force, what are the five options they have to proceed?

A
  • Attack
  • Defend
  • Bypass
  • Delay
  • Withdraw
33
Q

What are the two special types of movement to contact?

A
  • Search and attack
  • Cordon and search
34
Q

What are the two types of Attacks?

A
  • Hasty
  • Deliberate
35
Q

What are the three techniques of movement?

A
  • Traveling
  • Traveling Overwatch
  • Bounding Overwatch
36
Q

What is the acronym to ABF/SBF/BP selection?

A
  • NORMA
37
Q

What is Step 1 of the Engagement Area Development Process?

A
  • Conduct intelligence preparation of the battlefield (IPB)
38
Q

What are the Fire Distribution Techniques?

A
  • Closest TRP
  • Quadrants
  • Target Array
  • Sectors
  • Priority Fire Zones
39
Q

Which airframes can be utilized during an Air Assault?

A
  • All Army Aviation airframes can conduct or assist in an Air Assault.
40
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating and managing the Air Mission Coordination Meeting and the Air Mission Brief?

A
  • The Air Assault Task Force (AATF) S3
41
Q

What is the difference between the Air Assault Task Force Commander and the Aviation Task Force Commander?

A
  • The Air Assault Task Force Commander is normally the senior maneuver commander with overall mission approval authority.
  • The Aviation Task Force Commander is in charge of the aviation units providing assets to the ground force. This individual commands all Aviation assets through all phases of the operation.
42
Q

When does the Air Assault Planning Process begin?

A
  • Upon receipt of the higher headquarters’ Warning Order.
43
Q

What are the first two meetings between the ground force and the supporting aviation unit?

A
  • Initial Planning Conference.
  • Air Mission Coordination Meeting.
44
Q

What is the purpose of the Aircrew Operations Order?

A
  • To provide aircrews that are executing the Air Assault with all the information they need to successfully execute the Air Assault.
45
Q
  • What are the steps of the Air Assault Reverse Planning Sequence?
A
  • Ground Tactical Plan
  • Landing Plan
  • Air Movement Plan
  • Loading Plan
  • Staging Plan
46
Q

What is the most important step in the revers planning sequence?

A
  • Ground Tactical Plan.
  • It is the mission the ground force needs to accomplish and is the basis for planning all other steps.
47
Q

What are some considerations when selecting a Helicopter Landing Zone?

A
  • Location
  • Capacity
  • Enemy Disposition
  • Unit Tactical Integrity
  • Supporting Fires
  • Obstacles
  • Identifiable by Air
  • Orientation
  • Single vs Multiple
48
Q

What is the difference between CASEVAC and MEDEVAC?

A
  • MEDEVAC is conducted using properly marked medical transports (ambulances) that are dedicated to evacuation and staffed with medical providers who provide care to stabilize and maintain the patients medical condition en route to medical treatment facilities.
49
Q

Who provides Medical mission approval? Who provides Launch approval?

A
  • Medical officer provides approval for use of MEDEVAC aircraft.
  • IAW AR 95-1, launch requires appropriate Aviation Command level approval based upon risk level (Low - Company, Moderate - BN, High - CAB, Ex-High - First GO). For Urgent and Urgent Surgical MEDEVAC missions, MEDEVAC company commanders ‘may’ be delegated Moderate risk approval Authority.
50
Q

How many lines of a 9-line medevac are required to have air assets launch?

A
  • 5
51
Q

How many HH-60s are in a CAB?

A
  • 15

ALE (3 decks)

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