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ALE > ALE Doctrine pt. 2 > Flashcards

ALE Doctrine pt. 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the tasks of an ASB?

A
  • Ground vehicle and aviation maintenance and recovery operations.
  • Signal and network support to the CAB for C2.
  • Conducts sustainment as a warfighting function for the CAB when functioning as an organic CAB.
  • Provides deployment support to the CAB during embarkation and debarkation.
  • Distribution management operations within the aviation brigade.
  • Role 1 Army HSS for the aviation brigade.
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2
Q

How many people can sit in a chinook?

A
  • 32
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3
Q

What is an SP?

A
  • Standardization Pilot
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4
Q

What aspect of the operational environment is of concern to the commander and extends into enemy territory?

A
  • Area of Interest.
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5
Q

Would you consider reconnaissance the primary mission of the Blackhawk?

A
  • NO
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6
Q

What directly accomplishes the mission and commanders intent and is the focal point around the commanders design for a mission?

A
  • Decisive Operations.
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7
Q

What directly accomplishes the mission and commanders intent?

A
  • Decisive Operations.
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8
Q

What are the three dimensions of the operational environment?

A
  • Physical
  • Human
  • Information
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9
Q

What are the tasks of the GSAB?

A
  • Air Movement
  • Aerial FARP Support
  • Air Assault
  • Personnel Recovery
  • Aerial Mission Command
  • Aeromedical Evacuation
  • CASEVAC
  • ATS
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10
Q

What is the definition of Multi-Domain Operations (MDO)?

A
  • The combined arms employment of joint and Army capabilities to create and exploit relative advantages that achieve objectives, defeat enemy forces, and consolidate gains on behalf of joint force commanders.
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11
Q

What boundaries are in Zone Recon?

A
  • Restrictive Boundaries
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12
Q

What boundaries are in Area Recon?

A
  • Permissive Boundaries.
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13
Q

What are the techniques of Recon?

A
  • Recon Push - relative understanding of enemy situation; deliberate
  • Recon Pull - uncertain of composition; vague; time limited.
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14
Q

What are the fundamentals of RECON?

A
  • Gain and maintain enemy contact
  • Orient yourself on the objective
  • Report rapidly and accurately
  • Retain freedom of maneuver
  • Develop the situation
  • Don’t leave recon assets in the rear
  • Ensure continuous recon
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15
Q

What are the 4 different sections of commanders recon guidance?

A
  • Focus
  • Tempo
  • Engagement / Disengagement Criteria
  • Bypass displacement criteria
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16
Q

Which UAS platform is organic to the division and is capable of carrying armament?

A
  • Gray Eagle
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17
Q

Which type of recon management utilizes two or more like assests?

A
  • Redundancy
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18
Q

What are the 3 types of recon management?

A
  • Cueing: one or more types collecting more detailed info.
  • Mixing: two or more different assets collecting.
  • Redundancy: two or more like assets collecting.
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19
Q

The RQ-7 is organic to which battalion?

A
  • The Air Calvary Squadron and the Military Intelligence company in a BCT.
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20
Q

Where can you find the commander’s critical information requirements?

A
  • In the coordinating instructions of the OPORD.
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21
Q

What is a geographical area that is linked directly to a PIR?

A
  • NAI (Named Area of Interest)
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22
Q

How many MEDEVAC in a Charlie company, in a GSAB, in Brigade?

A
  • 15
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23
Q

How many lines do you need to launch a MEDEVAC?

A
  • 5
24
Q

What is an Air Assault?

A
  • Movement of ground forces by rotary wing aircraft to destroy an enemy or seize terrain.
25
Q

What is an Air Movement?

A
  • Air transport of units, personnel, supplies, and equipment.
26
Q

How is an Air Assault different from an Air Movement?

A
  • Air Assault links a specific ground tactical plan to the movement of an assault force.
27
Q

Who are the key leaders of an Air Assault?

A
  • Air Assault Task Force Commander
  • Aviation Task Force Commander
  • Air Assault Task Force S-3
  • Ground Tactical Commander
  • Air Mission Commander
  • Flight Leads
28
Q

What are the five steps of the reverse planning process?

A
  1. Ground tactical plan
  2. Landing plan
  3. Air movement plan
  4. Loading plan
  5. Staging plan
29
Q

What is the Air Assault planning meeting / brief sequence?

A
  1. Initial planning conference - first meeting; ensure parallel planning; establish common constraints.
  2. Air mission coordination meeting - conducted after ground tactical plan is complete, blending assets into ground tactical plan.
  3. Air mission brief - NOT A WORKING MEETING; brief to the AATFC
  4. Air crew brief - brief to flight
  5. Aviation task force rehearsal
30
Q

What is the difference between CASEVAC and MEDEVAC?

A
  • CASEVAC can be any platform used for casualty evac
  • MEDEVAC is a dedicated marked platform with medical personnel.
31
Q

What are the two types of offensive operations that army aviation conducts?

A
  • Movement to contact.
  • Attack
32
Q

What are the two types of attack missions?

A
  • Hasty
  • Deliberate
33
Q

Where do we intend to track and destroy an enemy with all mass of fires available?

A
  • Engagement area
34
Q

What are the attack formations?

A
  • Combat cruise
  • Wedge
  • Line
35
Q

What are the three employment methods for an attack?

A
  • Continuous
  • Phased
  • Maximum Destruction
36
Q

What are the four engagement area development steps?

A
  1. Conduct IPB - S-2
  2. Select the ground for the attack - BN CDR
  3. Integrate the EA - S-2 / S-3 / FSO
  4. Direct fire planning - CO / TRP
37
Q

What is the first step of executing a movement to contact?

A
  • Crossing the line of departure.
38
Q

What are the characteristics of the offense?

A
  • CATS Concentration
  • Audacity
  • Tempo
  • Surprise
39
Q

What are the options if you make contact with the enemy during a movement to contact?

A
  • Attack
  • Defend
  • Bypass
  • Delay
  • Withdraw
40
Q

What is the difference between a high value and a high pay-off target?

A
  • HV: assets required by the threat commander for the successful completion of his/her mission
  • HPO: a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly COA.
41
Q

What is the acronym for battle position selection?

A
  • NORMA
  • Nature of the Target
  • Obstacles
  • Range to Target
  • Maneuvering Area
  • Altitude above Target Area
42
Q

What are the 3 movement techniques?

A
  • Traveling: enemy contact unlikely
  • Traveling overwatch: enemy contact possible
  • Bounding overwatch: enemy contact likely
43
Q

How is security different from recon?

A
  • Security are primarily defensive in nature and orient on the protected force, area, or facility.
  • Recon orients on enemy or terrain.
44
Q

What are the fundamentals of security?

A
  • Maintain enemy contact.
  • Orient on the protected area, force, or facility to be secured.
  • Provide early and accurate warning.
  • Provide reaction time maneuver space.
  • Provide continuous recon.
45
Q

What is the purpose of a screen?

A
  • Early warning to protective force.
46
Q

What are the four forms of security?

A
  • Screen
  • Guard
  • Cover
  • Area
47
Q

Is local a form of security?

A
  • NO
48
Q

What are the types of area security?

A
  • Route
  • Convoy
  • Aerial
49
Q

Commander gives guidance to leave the engagement area if there are six T-80s of more, this is an example of what?

A
  • Disengagement or Displacement
50
Q

Active and passive are two measures to conduct what?

A
  • Local security
51
Q

What criteria drives displacement?

A
  • Event (PIR met)
  • Time
  • Enemy (OP compromised)
52
Q

What is an air corridor?

A
  • Restricted air route to prevent friendly aircraft from being fired on by friendly forces.
53
Q

What echelon of ground force is required for ground or cover?

A
  • Guard: squadron or higher
  • Cover: brigade or higher
54
Q

If a ground force is asking for protection from indirect fires, what is he asking for?

A
  • Cover
55
Q

What is the only security mission we can conduct independently?

A
  • Screen
56
Q

What is considered a long duration tempo under commanders’ guidance?

A
  • 12 hours or more (short is 12 hours or less)
57
Q

Is a battle position restrictive or permissive?

A
  • Restrictive in nature

ALE (3 decks)

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