AKT mock 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What organisms are capable of causing post splenectomy sepsis?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Meningococci

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2
Q

What is the thrombylitic window for ischaemic stroke and what medication should be delivered within this?

A

4.5 hrs - should be given alteplase

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3
Q

What medication should be given if someone is identified to have an ischaemic stroke and is outside the thombolysis window?

A

Aspirin

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4
Q

What does obstructive lung disease show on lung function tests?

A

FEV1 - significantly reduced
FVC - reduced or normal
FEV1/FVC ratio - reduced

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5
Q

What does restrictive lung disease show on lung function tests?

A

FEV1 - reduced
FVC - significantly reduced
FEV1/FVC ratio - normal or increased

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6
Q

What are some examples of obstructive lung disease?

A

Asthma
COPD
Bronchiectasis

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7
Q

What are some examples of restrictive lung disease?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis
Asbestosis
Sarcoidosis
ARDS
Neuromuscular disorders
Severe obesity

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8
Q

What scoring system is used to identify patients at risk of pressure sores?

A

Waterlow score

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9
Q

Damage to the temporal lobe causes what visual field defect?

A

Contralateral superior homonymous quadrantanopia

(Temporal on Top)

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10
Q

Damage to the parietal lobe causes which visual field defect?

A

Contralateral inferior homonymous quadrantanopia

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11
Q

Damage to the occipital lobe causes which visual field defect?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

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12
Q

if asthma is not controlled by a SABA (salbutamol) what is the appropriate next step in management?

A

Add low dose ICS

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13
Q

What has features of sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy?

A

Occlusion of the central retinal vein

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14
Q

What presents with microaneurysms, dot and blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, and cotton wool spots?

A

Diabetic retinopathy

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15
Q

What presents with sudden painless vision loss and a pale retina with a cherry-red spot at the fovea on examination?

A

Occlusion of the central retinal artery

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of action of memantine?

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

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17
Q

If a patient presents with a fever on alternate days after having travelled abroad, what are they likely to have contracted?

A

Malaria

(will also see headache, myalgia, hepatomegaly)

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18
Q

Which disease presents with a febrile phase, a critical phase (including abdominal pain, vomiting and tachypnoea) and then finally a recovery phase?

A

Dengue fever

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19
Q

What symptoms would an acute hep B infection present with?

A

Anorexia, nausea and right upper quadrant pain

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20
Q

How does typhoid fever initially present?

A

Starting with week one the patient will have a dry cough, fever, epistaxis and malaise.

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21
Q

What drug from the following can cause hyponatraemia?

A. Tolvaptan
B. Omeprazole
C. Ranitidine
D. Metformin
E. Phenytoin

A

Omeprazole

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22
Q

How would you differentiate meningitis and encephalitis?

A

Cerebral function usually remains normal in a patient with meningitis while in encephalitis, however, abnormalities in brain function are a differentiating feature, including altered mental status.

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23
Q

How is encephalitis managed?

A

prompt treatment with aciclovir by intravenous infusion should be started to cover herpes simplex virus (HSV) -1 infection.

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24
Q

When using an inhaler, for a second dose how long should you wait before repeating?

25
Which type of dementia demonstrates a stepwise progression?
Vascular dementia
26
What is the antibiotic of choice in a patient with cellulitis who is penicillin allergic?
Clarithromycin
27
What is the first line antibiotic of choice in patients with mild to moderate cellulitis?
Flucloxacillin
28
What is the antibiotic of choice for patients with severe cellulitis?
IV ceftriaxone
29
What is the antibiotic of choice for patients with cellulitis who are pregnant?
Erythromycin
30
A 28-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a right red eye and sensitivity to light that started 1 hour ago. Examination of the right eye reveals a painful, red eye, with a small and irregularly-shaped pupil. Examination of the left eye is unremarkable. The patient is referred to ophthalmology. What is the likely diagnosis?
Anterior Uveitis
31
How is anterior uveitis managed?
steroid + cycloplegic (mydriatic) drops
32
What lab results are suggestive of a transudative pleural effusion?
Protein = low LDH = low
33
What lab results are suggestive of an exudative pleural effusion?
Protein = high LDH = high
34
What causes a transudative pleural effusion?
CHF, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, PE, hypoalbuminemia
35
What causes an exudative pleural effusion?
Pneumonia, cancer, TB, viral infection, PE, autoimmune
36
In combined folate and B12 deficiency, which should be replaced first?
Replace B12 then folate
37
What is the mainstay management of severe alcoholic hepatitis?
Steroids eg prednisolone
38
What is the appropriate management for a tachyarrythmia where the patient is haemodynamically unstable (systolic less than 90)?
DC cardiovert
39
At what rate should potassium be replaced when prescribing fluids?
1mg/kg/hr
40
What is the diagnostic test used for guillan barre syndrome?
LP - shows elevated protein and normal WCC
41
What is the antibiotic of choice for both human and animal bites?
Co-amoxiclav
42
Which medication commonly exacerbates plaque psoriasis?
Beta blockers
43
Where is brocas area?
Frontal lobe
44
Where is wernike's area?
Temporal lobe
45
What are the features of brocas aphasia?
Speech generation impaired but comprehension in tact
46
What are the features of wernike's aphasia?
Speech generation in tact but comprehension impaired
47
What is the initial emergency management of acute angle closure glaucoma?
Direct parasympathomimetic and beta-blocker eye drops
48
What class of drugs should be avoided in myasthenia gravis?
Beta blockers
49
What is the most common cause of peritonitis secondary to peritoneal dialysis?
Staphylococcus epidermidis
50
What medications should you give for secondary prevention following an ACS?
A - ace inhibitor B - beta blocker C - cholesterol (statin) D - dual antiplatelet (aspirin + another)
51
What is the appropriate management for a patient with SVT who is in shock?
DC cardiovert
52
What medication is used as first line to prevent angina attacks?
Beta blocker or CCB eg verapamil
53
What is the next appropriate management step for patients with asthma who aren’t responding to medical treatment and are becoming acidotic?
Intubate and ventilate
54
What is the appropriate antibiotic regime for patients with life threatening c.diff?
IV metronidazole and oral vancomycin
55
After a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, if brain imaging and EEG are normal, how long should the patient abstain from driving?
6mths
56
How long can finasteride for BPH take to produce results?
6mths
57
In patients with T2DM, what medication should be prescribed if they develop CVD or chronic HF?
Dapagliflozin
58
How long do patients need to eat gluten for before testing for coeliac disease?
6 weeks