Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AMK style questions > AKT mock 1 > Flashcards

AKT mock 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What organisms are capable of causing post splenectomy sepsis?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Meningococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the thrombylitic window for ischaemic stroke and what medication should be delivered within this?

A

4.5 hrs - should be given alteplase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What medication should be given if someone is identified to have an ischaemic stroke and is outside the thombolysis window?

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does obstructive lung disease show on lung function tests?

A

FEV1 - significantly reduced
FVC - reduced or normal
FEV1/FVC ratio - reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does restrictive lung disease show on lung function tests?

A

FEV1 - reduced
FVC - significantly reduced
FEV1/FVC ratio - normal or increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some examples of obstructive lung disease?

A

Asthma
COPD
Bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some examples of restrictive lung disease?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis
Asbestosis
Sarcoidosis
ARDS
Neuromuscular disorders
Severe obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What scoring system is used to identify patients at risk of pressure sores?

A

Waterlow score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Damage to the temporal lobe causes what visual field defect?

A

Contralateral superior homonymous quadrantanopia

(Temporal on Top)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Damage to the parietal lobe causes which visual field defect?

A

Contralateral inferior homonymous quadrantanopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Damage to the occipital lobe causes which visual field defect?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

if asthma is not controlled by a SABA (salbutamol) what is the appropriate next step in management?

A

Add low dose ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What has features of sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy?

A

Occlusion of the central retinal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What presents with microaneurysms, dot and blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, and cotton wool spots?

A

Diabetic retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What presents with sudden painless vision loss and a pale retina with a cherry-red spot at the fovea on examination?

A

Occlusion of the central retinal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the mechanism of action of memantine?

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If a patient presents with a fever on alternate days after having travelled abroad, what are they likely to have contracted?

A

Malaria

(will also see headache, myalgia, hepatomegaly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which disease presents with a febrile phase, a critical phase (including abdominal pain, vomiting and tachypnoea) and then finally a recovery phase?

A

Dengue fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What symptoms would an acute hep B infection present with?

A

Anorexia, nausea and right upper quadrant pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does typhoid fever initially present?

A

Starting with week one the patient will have a dry cough, fever, epistaxis and malaise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What drug from the following can cause hyponatraemia?

A. Tolvaptan
B. Omeprazole
C. Ranitidine
D. Metformin
E. Phenytoin

A

Omeprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How would you differentiate meningitis and encephalitis?

A

Cerebral function usually remains normal in a patient with meningitis while in encephalitis, however, abnormalities in brain function are a differentiating feature, including altered mental status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is encephalitis managed?

A

prompt treatment with aciclovir by intravenous infusion should be started to cover herpes simplex virus (HSV) -1 infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When using an inhaler, for a second dose how long should you wait before repeating?

A

30 secs

25
Q

Which type of dementia demonstrates a stepwise progression?

A

Vascular dementia

26
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice in a patient with cellulitis who is penicillin allergic?

A

Clarithromycin

27
Q

What is the first line antibiotic of choice in patients with mild to moderate cellulitis?

A

Flucloxacillin

28
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for patients with severe cellulitis?

A

IV ceftriaxone

29
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for patients with cellulitis who are pregnant?

A

Erythromycin

30
Q

A 28-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a right red eye and sensitivity to light that started 1 hour ago. Examination of the right eye reveals a painful, red eye, with a small and irregularly-shaped pupil. Examination of the left eye is unremarkable. The patient is referred to ophthalmology.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Anterior Uveitis

31
Q

How is anterior uveitis managed?

A

steroid + cycloplegic (mydriatic) drops

32
Q

What lab results are suggestive of a transudative pleural effusion?

A

Protein = low
LDH = low

33
Q

What lab results are suggestive of an exudative pleural effusion?

A

Protein = high
LDH = high

34
Q

What causes a transudative pleural effusion?

A

CHF, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, PE, hypoalbuminemia

35
Q

What causes an exudative pleural effusion?

A

Pneumonia, cancer, TB, viral infection, PE, autoimmune

36
Q

In combined folate and B12 deficiency, which should be replaced first?

A

Replace B12 then folate

37
Q

What is the mainstay management of severe alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Steroids eg prednisolone

38
Q

What is the appropriate management for a tachyarrythmia where the patient is haemodynamically unstable (systolic less than 90)?

A

DC cardiovert

39
Q

At what rate should potassium be replaced when prescribing fluids?

A

1mg/kg/hr

40
Q

What is the diagnostic test used for guillan barre syndrome?

A

LP - shows elevated protein and normal WCC

41
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for both human and animal bites?

A

Co-amoxiclav

42
Q

Which medication commonly exacerbates plaque psoriasis?

A

Beta blockers

43
Q

Where is brocas area?

A

Frontal lobe

44
Q

Where is wernike’s area?

A

Temporal lobe

45
Q

What are the features of brocas aphasia?

A

Speech generation impaired but comprehension in tact

46
Q

What are the features of wernike’s aphasia?

A

Speech generation in tact but comprehension impaired

47
Q

What is the initial emergency management of acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

Direct parasympathomimetic and beta-blocker eye drops

48
Q

What class of drugs should be avoided in myasthenia gravis?

A

Beta blockers

49
Q

What is the most common cause of peritonitis secondary to peritoneal dialysis?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

50
Q

What medications should you give for secondary prevention following an ACS?

A

A - ace inhibitor
B - beta blocker
C - cholesterol (statin)
D - dual antiplatelet (aspirin + another)

51
Q

What is the appropriate management for a patient with SVT who is in shock?

A

DC cardiovert

52
Q

What medication is used as first line to prevent angina attacks?

A

Beta blocker or CCB eg verapamil

53
Q

What is the next appropriate management step for patients with asthma who aren’t responding to medical treatment and are becoming acidotic?

A

Intubate and ventilate

54
Q

What is the appropriate antibiotic regime for patients with life threatening c.diff?

A

IV metronidazole and oral vancomycin

55
Q

After a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, if brain imaging and EEG are normal, how long should the patient abstain from driving?

A

6mths

56
Q

How long can finasteride for BPH take to produce results?

A

6mths

57
Q

In patients with T2DM, what medication should be prescribed if they develop CVD or chronic HF?

A

Dapagliflozin

58
Q

How long do patients need to eat gluten for before testing for coeliac disease?

A

6 weeks

AMK style questions (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions