Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Artha > AKT COPY > Flashcards

AKT COPY Flashcards

1
Q

Pharm for reducing ETOH effects

A

Naltrexone or Disulfiram (makes you feel worse/crap with ETOH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pharm to reduce ETOH cravings

A

Acamprosate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Post viral URTI with vertigo, hearing loss and tinnitus

A

Labyrinthitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Post viral URTI with vertigo, NO hearing loss and tinnitus

A

vestibular neuronitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Investigation for accoustic neuroma

A

MRI with gadolinium contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

“What bld test to test annually in Down’s?”

A

TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How long to avoid sexual intercourse post AMI?

A

8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

COCP medication components

A

ethinyloestradiol 30mcg levonorgesterol 150mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mirena IUD medication component

A

Levonorgesterol 52mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

“3 Cx’s of haemachromatosis (systems)”

A
  • CLD
  • Heart failure (restrictive)
  • Arthritis (hands)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gonorrhoea pharm Mx

A

500mg ceftriaxone IM + 1g azithromycin PO stat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gonorrhoea contact tracing

A

2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Chlamydia test of re-infection

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chlamydia test of cure

A

4 weeks - pregnant or rectal chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Chlamydia pharm Rx

A

100mg doxycycline bd 7 days OR

1g azithromycin stat (pregnant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Chlamydia contact tracing

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which anti-HTN can inc risk of T2DM

A

Thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which anti HTN causes HIGH calcium

A

Thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which anti HTN causes LOW calcium

A

Loop diuretics (Frusemide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ICS example name and dose

A

Fluticasone proprionate 50mcg - child

125mcg - adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

SABA name and dose

A

salbutamol 100mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ICS/LABA name + dose

A

fluticasone proprionate 50 - 250mcg

salmeterol 25mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

LAMA name + dose

A

tiotropium 5mcg (respimat) daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Metformin eGFR contraindication

A

<30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

SGLT2 eGFR contraindication

A

<45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

DPP4 eGFR contraindication

A

NONE, just dose adjustment (except linagliptin - no change)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Sulphonylureas eGFR contraindication

A

<30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Metformin eGFR reduce dose to 1g?

A

30-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

GLP1 agonist dose

A

dulaglutide 1.5mg weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Sulphonylurea + dose

A

Gliclazide 40mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

DPP4-i dose

A

Linagliptin 5mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

SGLT2 and dose

A

Empagliflozin 10mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Shockable rhythms

A

V Fib, V tach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Shockable rhythms pharmacology

A

Adrenaline 1mg after 2nd shock

Amiodarone 300mg after 3rd shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Non-Shockable rhythms pharmacology

A

Adrenaline 1mg now, and then every 2nd cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

“4 H’s of collapse”

A

Hypoxia
Hypovolaemia
Hyper/hypokalaemia/metabolic disorders
Hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

“4 T’s of collapse”

A

Toxins
Tension pneumothorax
Thrombosis
Tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

AMI - GTN dose

A

300-600mcg sublingual every 5mins

Always check BP and avoid in inferior AMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Indications for warfarin for AF Mx

A

eGFR <30
Valvular AF
(moderate-severe mitral stenosis or mechanical valve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

NOAC dose for AF

A

Apixaban 5mg bd

2.5mg if

At least 2 of:

  • 80+ years old
  • Weight under 60kg
  • Creatine over 133
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Contraindications to NOAC and warfarin (3)

A
  • Previous intracranial bleed
  • Recent GI bleed
  • Pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Heart rate aim in AF

A

<80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Beta blocker dose in AF

A

Atenolol 25mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Post AMI driving abstinence duration

A

2 weeks (private licence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Post TIA driving abstinence duration

A

2 weeks (private licence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Post CABG driving abstinence duration

A

4 weeks (private)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Post stroke driving abstinence duration

A

4 weeks (private)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

2nd degree Type I ECG

A

Gradually elongating PR until drop (Wenkebach)

not serious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

2nd degree Type II ECG

A

PR interval is normal Sudden drop in QRS

Urgent cardio referral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

CCF - Moderate on exertion (Class)?

A

Clas III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

CCF - Mild on exertion (Class)?

A

Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

CCF - Symptoms at rest (Class)?

A

Class IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

CCF - No symptoms (Class)?

A

Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

BNP level for CCF

A

BNP >1800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

LVEF <35% medication

A

Ivabradine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

LVEF <40% medication

A

ANRI - Entresto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Heart Failure Medications + Dose (3)

A
  1. Perindopril 2.5mg daily
  2. Spironolactone 25mg daily
  3. Bisoprolol 1.25mg daily (2nd line if euvolaemic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

HOCM ECG criteria

A

Deep R waves anterior leads

Tall Q waves lateral leads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Diabetic retinopathy medication and dose

A

Fenofibrate 145mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Tamponade triad

A

“Beck’s”

  • Low BP
  • Muffled heart sounds, Jugular venous distension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Pericarditis meds + dose

A

Colchicine 500mcg

(bd if >70kg, daily if <70kg) for 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Acute Rheumatic Fever Rx immediate (2)

A

Benzathine benzylpenicillin IM as a single dose 1.2 million units (adults)
NSAIDs/aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Groin Rash DDx (4)

A

Candida Intertrigo
Tinea Cruris
Flexural Psoriasis
Erythrasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

PMHX Melanoma skin checks frequency

A
  • 3 monthly for 2 years
  • 6 monthly for 2 years
  • 12 monthly for lifetime
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Cat Scratch Disease Rx

A

Azithromycin 500mg 1st day, 250mg daily for next 4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Chickenpox Rx - adults

A

Adults - Valaciclovir 1g tds 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Chilblains Rx

A

Keep warm
DO NOT RUB/MASSAGE

If extensive or painful:
- Strong topical steroid +/- occlusive dressing (betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% ointment bd)

OR

Severe/recurrent:

  • GTN spray
  • Nifedipine MR 20mg daily
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which infection is linked with Erythema Multiforme?

A

Herpes Simplex Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Commonest KNOWN cause of Erythema Nodusum

A

Sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

4 causes of LVH

A
  • HOCM
  • HTN
  • Atrial regurg
  • Mitral regurg
  • Coarctation aorta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Actinic/Solar Keratosis Mx

A

Spot area = Cryotherapy or Shave + curettage

Large area = Imiquimod 5% 3xweekly for 4 weeks or Fluorouracil 5% daily for 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Keratocanthoma Rx

A

3-5 excisional biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

SCC Ix

A

Punch biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

BCC Ix

A

Punch biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

SCC Rx

A

Superficial = Cryotherapy, shave+curettage, Imiquimod 5% 5xweekly for 6 weeks
Fluorouracil 5% daily for 4 weeks
3D = surgical excision 3-5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Melanoma Ix

A

Excisional biopsy 2mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Melanoma Rx

A

WLE + melanoma unit referral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

BCC Rx

A

Superficial = Cryotherapy - double freeze thaw, shave+curettage, Imiquimod 5% 5xweekly for 6 weeks
Fluorouracil 5% daily for 4 weeks
3D = surgical excision 3-5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

BCC typical spread

A

Locally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

SCC typical spread

A

Lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Causes of acne flares (4)

A
  • PCOS
  • Humidity
  • Occlusive cosmetics
  • Drugs - steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What features to examine when assessing for a burn? (4)

A

Colour
Blisters
Sensation
Cap Refill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Deep dermal burn signs?

A

Painless
Non-blanching
White/mottled skin
Prolonged cap refill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Satellite lesions in skin folds

A

Candida Intertrigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Candida intertrigo Rx

A

Clotrimazole 1% cream daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Erysipelas pathogen

A

strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Chondrodermatitis nodularis Rx

A

Nitroglycerin ointment bd (1–2% glyceryl trinitrate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

1st line pharm to increase breastmilk supply

A

Domperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Compression mmHg to bandage ulcers

A

40mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Secondary causes of hyperlipidemia (4)

A

CKD
Hypothyroidism
T2DM
CLD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

4 contraindications to stress echo

A

Unstable angina
Severe aortic stenosis
New LBBB
Uncontrolled arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Lateral STEMI leads + supply

A

I, AVL, V5, V6

Left Circumflex artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Inferior STEMI leads + supply

A

II, III, AVF

Right Coronary Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Anterior STEMI leads + supply

A

V3-V4

Left Anterior Descending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Septal STEMI leads + supply

A

V1-V2

Left Anterior Descending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Posterior STEMI leads + supply

A

V7-V9

Right Coronary Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Contraindications to performing Valsalva’s for SVT (4)

A

AMI
Haemodynamic instability
Aortic stenosis
Glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy Rx

A

ACEi or beta blockers until resolved systolic dysfunction ~ 1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Dandruff 1st line Rx

A

Selenium sulphide shampoo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Discoid Eczema Rx

A

Strong steroid (betamethasone diproprionate 0.05% daily for 2 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What disease is dermatitis herpetiformis linked with?

A

Coeliac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Dermatofibroma distinctive features (2)

A 
Pale centre
Pinch sign (central dimple)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Rash with target lesions

A

Erythema Multiforme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Treatment of Erythema Multiforme

A

Treat Cause, but otherwise self resolves

  • Aciclovir for HSV
  • ABx for mycoplasma pneumoniae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

ASTI smoking screening age

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

ATSI fasting T2DM check age

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

ATSI BP, UEC check age

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Coral pink fluorescence under wood lamp

A

Erythrasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Erythrasma Rx

A

Fusidate sodium 2% ointment bd for 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Red swollen fingers+toes, linked with T2DM

A

Erythromelalgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Itch/pain/burning rash in sun-exposed skin

A

Exercise-induced vasculitis or Golfer’s vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Exercise-induced vasculitis or Golfer’s vasculitis Rx

A

Self-resolving in 3-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Folliculitis causative pathogens

A

Bacterial - Staph aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Folliculitis Rx

A

Treat according to swab MCS

- commonly - flucloxacillin or cephalexin 500mg QID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Rash with firm papules “string of pearls” ring

A

Granuloma Annulare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Granuloma Annulare associated conditions (3)

A

T2DM
Hyperlipidemia
Autoimmune Thyroiditis (children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Granuloma Annulare Rx

A

Strong steroid (betamethasone diproprionate 0.05% daily for 2 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Grover’s Disease Rx

A

Strong steroid (betamethasone diproprionate 0.05% daily for 2 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Spotty itchy rash in children (trunk) sparing hands/feet?

A

Guttate psoriasis

- linked with strep infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Telogen Effluvium triad

A
  • Stressful event
  • 2-3 months to diffuse hair loss
  • white bulbs

(Pull test = hair coming out)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Hair loss with chemo/radiotherapy

A

Anagen Effluvium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Exclamation mark hairs

A

Alopecia Areata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Androgenetic Alopecia Rx

A
  • Minoxidil to dry scalp - for 12+ months (not for females)

- Finasteride for 2+ years - halts balding process (SE gynaecomastia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What virus is associated with Hand, Foot & Mouth Disease?

A

Coxsackie virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Management of Hand Foot & Mouth (2)

A
  • Supportive, fluids (can become dehydrated)

- Keep home until blistered have dried/crusted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Herpes Simplex Virus Type I management?

A

First sensation - Aciclovir 5% cream 5 times daily for 5 days
Severe - Aciclovir 400mg tds for 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Post-herpetic Neuralgia Rx (3)

A
  1. Simple analgesia/Ice massage
  2. Lidocaine 5% patch,
  3. Amitriptyline 10–25 mg nocte
    Gabapentin 300 mg nocte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Shingles Rx

A

Valaciclovir 1g tds for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Impetigo NON-PHARM Rx

A
  • Keep away until 24hrs after starting Abx

- Cover wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Impetigo Rx (non-endemic) + multiple sores

A
  • Flucloxacillin 12.5 mg/kg up to 500mg QID 7 days.

- Keep away until 24hrs after starting Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Impetigo Rx (Endemic)

A
  • Benzathine benzylpenicillin IM 1.2 million units

- Keep away until 24hrs after starting Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Impetigo Rx (non-endemic) + localised sores

A
  • Mupirocin 2% ointment tds for 5 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Impetigo Rx (penicillin allergy)

A
  • Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole, bd for 3 days

- child 4/20mg/kg up to 160/800mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Bullous Impetigo pathogen

A

Staph aureus (infectious!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Bullous Impetigo Rx

A
  • Flucloxacillin 500mg QID for 7 days

- Do not share towels with other family members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Keratosis Pilaris Rx

A
  • Topical retinoids, salicyclic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Lichen Planus Rx

A
  • Symptomatic - potent steroid (beta. dip 0.05%)

- Otherwise resolves in a few months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Molluscum Contagiosum causative pathogen

A

Pox virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Nappy rash Rx

A

Dependent on cause

hydrocortisone 1% + nystatin 100 000 units BD or clotrimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Molluscum Contagiosum Rx

A

Self Resolves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Nappy rash causes (3)

A

Irritant dermatitis
Candida
Seborrheic dermatitis
Psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Nappy rash Rx

A

Dependent on cause

hydrocortisone 1% + nystatin 100 000 units BD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Lump with buttonhold invagination when pressed?

A

Neurofibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Perioral dermatitis Rx

A

Doxycycline 100mg daily for 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Tiny black pits in soles of feet (Pitted Keratolysis) Rx?

A

Clindamycin 1% bd for 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Pityriasis Rosacea Rx?

A
  • Self-limiting - 6-8 weeks

- Use corticosteroid cream for itch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Pityriasis Versicolor Rx (2)

A

selenium sulfide shampoo 2.5% for 10 days
OR antifungal creams

Apply to wet skin and leave on for 10 mins

If ineffective, flucanozole 400mg oral stat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Pyogenic Granuloma Rx (1)

A

Imiquimod 5% 5xweekly for 6 weeks vs excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Rosacea Non-pharm Rx (4)

A

Cleanser + moisturising routine
SPF 30+
Trigger avoidance
Avoid perfumes/colognes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Rosacea Pharm Rx (3)

A
  1. Topical metronidazole
  2. Azelaic acid
  3. Doxy 100mg daily 8 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Scabies Rx

A

Permethrin 5% cream from jawline downwards overnight

Repeat in 1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Scarlet fever causative pathogen

A

Strep Pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Lace-like/sandpaper rash

A

Scarlet Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Scarlet Fever Rx

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin 500mg bd for 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Seborrhoeic Dermatitis (infants) Rx

A

Salicylic acid 2% + LPC (liquor picis carbonis = coal tar solution) 2% + sulfur 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Which tinea locations need oral terbinafine?

What dose?

A

Scalp, nails or widespread

250mg oral terbinafine daily
Toenails = 12 weeks
Fingernails = 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Which tinea locations need topical terbinafine?

A

Everywhere except scalp/nails

1% terbinafine cream bd 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Venous Ulcer appearance

A

Ragged edge, slight pain, slough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Arterial Ulcer Appearance

A

Punched out, Pain +++, Cold. Relieved by hanging out of bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Lump with buttonhold invagination when pressed?

A

Neurofibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Diabetic/Pressure Ulcer Mx (3)

A

Clean base with saline
Relief of friction
Iodosorb ointment/Foam dressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Pityriasis Rosacea Rx?

A
  • Self-limiting - 6-8 weeks

- Use corticosteroid cream for itch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Pityriasis Versicolor Rx

A

selenium sulfide 2.5% for 10 days

Apply to wet skin and leave on for 10 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Rosacea Non-pharm Rx (4)

A

Cleanser + moisturising routine
SPF 30+
Trigger avoidance
Avoid perfumes/colognes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Rosacea Pharm Rx

A
  1. Topical metronidazole

2. Doxy 100mg daily 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

T2DM assessment for low risk asymptomatic patients.

A
  • AUSDRISK >40yo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Scarlet fever causative pathogen

A

Strep Pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Lace-like scarlet rash

A

Scarlet Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Scarlet Fever Rx

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin 500mg bd for 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Seborrhoeic Dermatitis (infants) Rx

A

Salicylic acid 2% + LPC (liquor picis carbonis = coal tar solution) 2% + sulfur 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Which tinea locations need oral terbinafine?

What dose?

A

Scalp, nails or widespread

250mg oral terbinafine daily
Toenails = 12 weeks
Fingernails = 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Requirements for HbA1c to diagnose T2DM

A

> 6.5% on TWO occasions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Causes of low HbA1c

A

Anaemia
Haemoglobinopathies
CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Requirements for OGTT to diagnose T2DM

A

(EITHER)
Fasting >7
2 hours >11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Neuropathic Ulcer Location

A

Plantar surface (pressure areas), well demarcated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What to examine for with foot ulcers (3)

A
  • Sensation with 10gm monofilament
  • Ankle Brachial Index Measurement
  • Dorsalis Pedis/Posterior Tibialis pulse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

T2DM Driving license with insulin

A

2 yearly license review +/- conditional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Arterial Ulcer Mx

A

Urgent vascular surgeon review for reperfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Diabetic/Pressure Ulcer Mx (3)

A

Clean base with saline
Relief of friction
Iodosorb ointment/Foam dressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Urticaria Rx

A

Loratadine 10mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Who needs annual screening for T2DM? (FBGL) (2)

A

Prediabetes

ATSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

T2DM assessment for low risk asymptomatic patients.

A
  • AUSDRISK >40yo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

FBGL intermediate range

A

5.5-6.9

Mx = perform HbA1c or OGTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

HbA1c intermediate range

A

6.0-6.4%

Mx = retest in one year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

OGTT results for Impaired glucose tolerance

A

Fasting: <7 mmol/L

2 hour : 7.8 - 11 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

OGTT results for Impaired fasting glycaemia

A

Fasting glucose: 6.1-6.9

2 hour glucose < 7.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Addison’s Ix

A

Short Synacthen test
○ Gives synthetic ACTH, should normally increase cortisol
○ In Addison’s (underfunctioning adrenal), there is no increased cortisol - positive test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Requirements for HbA1c to diagnose T2DM

A

> 6.5% on TWO occasions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Causes of low HbA1c

A

Anaemia
Haemoglobinopathies
CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Requirements for OGTT to diagnose T2DM

A

(EITHER)
Fasting >7
2 hours >11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

OGTT results to Dx GDM

A

Fasting glucose >5.5 (reduce by 1.5)

Two hour glucose >8.0 (reduce by 3.0)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

T2DM Driving license with OHA’s

A

5 yearly license review +/- conditional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

T2DM Driving license with insulin

A

2 yearly license review +/- conditional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Which diabetic patients need conditional licenses (4)

A
  • Severe hypoglycaemia
  • Acute hyperglycaemia
  • End-organ damage
  • Commercial drivers on OHA’s/insulin - specialist review
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Pre-exercise BGL range for T2DM

A

5 - 13.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

How often to check BGL during exercise if on insulin or sulfonylureas

A

30-45 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

How long after exercise can you get hypoglycaemia with SU’s/insulin?

A

48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Fasting BGL aim in T2DM

A

4-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

2 hour post-prandial BGL aim in T2DM

A

5-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Severe hypoglycaemia event, driving restriction

A

6 weeks until stabilised by specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Late Onset Autoimmune Diabetes Ix (4)

A
  • glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) antibodies
  • insulinoma antigen-2 (IA2) antibodies
  • islet cell antibodies
  • Insulin antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

How often to get eye Ax with T2DM?

A

24 monthly

12 monthly if - ATSI, systemic disease, >15 years Dx, poor control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What T2DM meds to cease on sick days or if BGL >15 on two occasions

A

Metformin, SLGT2 (dehydration risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Acromegaly Ix

A

IGF-1 - insulin-like growth factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Carcinoid Syndrome Ix

A

24 hr urine 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Conn’s syndrome Ix

A

Plasma aldosterone-renin ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Cushing’s Syndrome Ix (3)

A
  • Overnight 1mg dexamethasone suppression test
  • 2 measurements of late night salivary cortisol
  • 2 measurements of 24 hour urinary - free cortisol excretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Diabetes Insipidus triad

A

Weakness + Massive Polyuria + Polydipsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Diabetes Insipidus Rx

A

desmopressin intranasally bd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

DKA BGL and ketones diagnosis

A

BGL>11mmol/L and ketones > 0.6mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State BGL and ketones diagnosis

A

BGL >30mmol/L and ketones anything

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Mild hypoglycaemia Mx (BGL <4.0)

A

15 rule

  • 15g of sugar (half fruit juice glass)
  • Recheck in 15 mins
  • Test every hour for next 4 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Severe hypoglycaemia Mx (reduced GCS)

A

Glucagon 1g IM stat
OR
Dextrose 50% 20mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Severe hypoglycaemia event, driving restriction

A

6 weeks until stabilised by specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

When to assess risk for OP

A
  • Annually in post-menopausal women or men >50yo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

T1DM Ix (2)

A
  • Glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD)

- Insulinoma antigen-2 (IA-2) antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Osteopenia Dx

A

-1 to -2.5 T score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Osteoporosis Dx

A

Less than -2.5 T score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What Z score to be concerned for secondary causes

A

Less than -2.0 score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

After starting carbimazole, when to recheck TFT’s and adjust dose?

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Bisphosphonate dose

A

Alendronate 70mg oral weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Denosumab dose

A

60mg subcut 6 monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

When to stop osteoporosis Rx?

A

5-10 years of Rx without any fractures and BMD >-2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Osteoporosis new medication. When to review?

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Osteoporosis pt monitoring. When to review?

A

12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Osteoporosis pt monitoring. When to DEXA?

A

2 yearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Non-osteoporotic, high-risk pt. When to review?

A

2-5 years (including DEXA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Which medication to use in CKD + osteoporosis

A

Denosumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Phaeochromocytoma Ix

A

24 hour urine metanephrines/catecholamines test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

SIADH Ix (3)

A
  • Urine osmolality >100
  • High urinary sodium
  • Low blood sodium (dilution)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

SIADH Mx (1)

A

Fluid restriction <800mL/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

T1DM Ix (2)

A
  • Glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD)

- Insulinoma antigen-2 (IA-2) antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Imaging of choice for goitre with Hyperthyroidism (uptake)

A

Thyroid Scintigraphy scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Imaging for goitre with Hypothyroidism

A

Trial levothyroxine and check if nodule regresses first

If not, consider ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Drugs that can cause hypothyroidism (2)

A

Lithium, amiodarone (also hyper)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Graves Ix

A

Anti TSH Receptor Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis Ix

A

anti-TPO (anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies)

also elevated in thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Hyperthyroidism Rx

A

Carbimazole 10-15mg bd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

After starting carbimazole, when to recheck TFT’s and adjust dose?

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

When to use PTU instead of carbimazole?

A

Pregnancy, Thyroid storm, Preconception

Multiply CBZ dose by 10 to get PTU dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Most important SE of carbimazole/PTU?

A

Agranulocytosis

Cease if febrile or pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Subclinical asymptomatic hypothyroidism Mx

A

Repeat TFT’s in 6 weeks. Commence thyroxine if:

  1. TSH >10

OR

  1. Thyroid peroxidase antibody
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

When to consider partial hypothyroid replacement?

25-50mcg daily

A
  • Elderly
  • High CVD risk
  • Subclinical (where TSH >10 on retesting)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Hypothyroidism Rx dose

A

levothyroxine 1.6mcg/kg daily (to nearest 25mcg, (50-100mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Thyroiditis Rx

A
  • propranolol 10mg bd if symptomatic
  • Repeat TFT’s in 6 weeks
  • If painful - NSAID’s too
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Allergic Rhinitis Examination signs (3)

A
  • turbinate hypertrophy
  • pale blue nasal mucousa
  • Suborbital oedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Oral thrush Rx

A

Under 2yo = 100 000 units nystatin 1mL QID for 1 week

Over 2yo = Micanozole 2% gel, 2.5mL QID 1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Imaging of choice for cholesteatoma

A

CT temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Examination findings of Infectious Mononucleosis (3)

A
  • Splenomegaly
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Jaundice
  • Rash
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Meniere’s Disease Triad

A

Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss - Unilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Meniere’s Disease Mx (3)

A
  • Limit salt <2g/day, ETOH, caffeine,
  • Vestibular rehab
  • Prochlorperazine 10mg daily
  • Hydrochlorothiazide 25mg daily
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

What age to refer Nasolacrimal duct obstruction to opththal

A

> 12 months of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Otitis Media risk factors (3)

A
  • Smoking exposure
  • Childcare
  • Down’s syndrome
  • Adenoid disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Otitis Media ABx

A

Amoxicillin 15mg/kg tds for 5 days

Review in 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Otitis Media ABx if not improving with amoxi

A

If not improving in 48 hours,

Augmentin DF 875/125 bd for 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Otitis Media ABx if allergic to penicillin

A

Cefuroxime 500mg bd for 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Recurrent AOM criteria and Rx

A

3+ episodes in 6 months and need to be <2yo

amoxicillin 25mg/kg bd for 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Glue ear (AOM with effusion) Mx?

A
  • Tend to self drain in 4 weeks

- Refer if >3 months, or if causing hearing issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media Dx criteria

A

> 6 weeks of perforated TM with discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media Mx (3)

A
  • Ear toileting (rolled tissue spear QID until ear dry)
  • Ciprofloxacin 0.3% ear drops (x5) bd until discharge free for 3 days
  • Refer to audiology for hearing assessment
  • ENT referral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

Grommets +/- adenoidectomy indications (2)

A
  • Chronic otitis media (>3 months) with effusion and hearing loss
  • Recurrent otitis media with effusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Otitis Externa Mx (3)

A
  • Sofradex ear drops - 3 drops tds for 7 days
  • Paracetamol 15mg/kg QID PRN
  • Dry aural toileting QID PRN until canal is dry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Otitis Externa prevention (2)

A
  • Aqua-Ear after water exposure

- Keep ear-dry, use earplugs or bathing cap during showering/swimming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Otosclerosis - what bone does it affect?

A

Stapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

Otosclerosis Mx (1)

A
  • Referral to ENT for stapedectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

Perforated TM broad causes (3)

A

Infection, trauma, growths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Safe perforated TM Mx (3)

A
  • Dry toileting with tissue spear
  • Self-resolving in 4 weeks
  • Amoxicillin 500mg tds for 5 days if infected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Antibiotic indications for rhinosinusitis (3)

A
  • Discoloured purulent discharge
  • 38oC
  • Severe localised pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Sialoliths Mx (2)

A
  • Conservative with massage and analgesia, warm liquids

- Infected = 7 days Flucloxacillin 500mg QID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

Tonsillectomy Indications

A

Tonsillectomy Indications (6-4-2, 1-2-3 rule)

  • 6+ episodes/year for more than 1 year
  • 4+ episodes/year for more than 2 years
  • 2+ episodes/year for more than 3 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

When to treat tonsillitis with ABx?

A
  • Bacterial likely
  • Immunosuppressed
  • Previous complications
  • ATSI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Bacterial tonsillitis Rx

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin 500mg bd for 10 days

Penicillin allergy - azithromycin 500mg daily for 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Vestibular Neuronitis Rx (1)

A
  • Prednisolone 1mg/kg (up to 75mg) for 5 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

Anal fissure Mx? (4)

A
  • Topical lignocaine
  • Treat constipation - stool softeners, high fibre diet
  • Sitz bath
  • Topical GTN/diltiazem
  • Local injection of botox
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

Bowel cancer 4 flag criteria for moderate risk

A

First degree relative <55yo (4)
First degree relative >55yo (2)
Second degree relative any age (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

If moderate risk bowel cancer, screening?

A

FOBT every 2 years from 40-49
Colonoscopy every 5 years from 50-74
Aspirin 2.5 years from 50-74yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

If high risk bowel cancer, screening?

A

(Reduce age points by 5 years compared to mod risk)

Refer to family cancer clinic
FOBT every 2 years from 35yo
Colonoscopy every 5 years from 45-74yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

Medication for liver cirrhosis from portal HTN

A

carvedilol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

Risk factors for coeliac disease (3)

A

Hypothyroidism
T1DM Diabetes
Autoimmune thyroid disease
Down’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Diverticulitis non-severe attack Mx (3)

A
  • Clear liquids for 2-3 days
  • Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid 875/125mg bd for 5 days
  • Penicillin allergy = Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole 960mg bd AND metronidazole 600mg bd 5 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Gastro in nursing home. When to notify public health unit

A
  • 2+ more residents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

ABx indications for gastro (3)

A
  • Septic
  • Immunocompromised
  • Salmonella or severe C.Diff (all other bacterial causes don’t require Abx)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

When do you avoid loperamide for gastro? (3)

A

○ Children
○ Bloody diarrhoea
○ High fever
- Systemic symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

Lifestyle Mx for GORD (4)

A
  • Avoid spicy food
  • Remain upright after eating
  • Weight loss
  • Stop smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Urea Breath Test preparation advice (3)

A
  • No Abx for 4/52
  • No PPI for 2/52 before test
  • Nil water in morning
  • Nil brushing teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

H. Pylori Rx (3)

A

HP7 treatment. ACE - all given BD

  • Amoxicillin 1g (metronidazole 400mg bd if hypersensitive)
  • Clarithromycin 500mg
  • Esomeprazole 20mg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

When to repeat UBT post H.Pylori Rx

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

Haemochromatosis Ix

A

Elevated transferrin + ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

Typical arthritis region for haemochromatosis

A

MCPJ 2nd/3rd joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

Hep A Mx

A
  • Self limiting - 6 weeks
  • Avoid fats, ETOH, panadol and smoking
  • Wash hands, do not share cutlery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

surface antigen
surface antibody
core antibody

Acute Hep B

A

POSITIVE surface antigen
NEGATIVE surface antibody
POSITIVE core antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

surface antigen
surface antibody
core antibody

Chronic Hep B

A

POSITIVE surface antigen
NEGATIVE surface antibody
POSITIVE core antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

surface antigen
surface antibody
core antibody

Vaccinated Hep B

A

NEGATIVE surface antigen
POSITIVE surface antibody
NEGATIVE core antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

surface antigen
surface antibody
core antibody

Resolved Hep B

A

NEGATIVE surface antigen
POSITIVE surface antibody
POSITIVE core antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

When does Hep C Mx need referring to specialist? (2)

A
  • If HIV/HBV co-infection

- Cirrhosis present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

When does Hep C Mx need referring to specialist? (2)

A
  • If HIV/HBV co-infection

- Cirrhosis present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

Assessment of cure for Hep C

A
  • Hepatitis C RNA PCR and LFT’s at 12 weeks post treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

IBD - pain before defecation?

A

Crohn’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

IBD commonly blood and mucous stools

A

Crohn’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

IBS Mx (4)

A
  • Regular meal times
  • Avoid triggers
  • Low FODMAP diet
  • Referral to dietitian
  • Referral to psych for CBT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

NAFLD Ix diagnosis

A
  • AST and ALT >2x ULN
  • AST/ALT < 1
  • Needs USS/MRI/Imaging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

NASH monitoring

A

6 monthly liver US +/- AFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

NAFLD Mx

A

Cirrhosis/NAFLD fibrosis score high = gastro referral, fibroscan +/- biopsy
NAFLD fibrosis score Low = manage risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

NAFLD Monitoring

A

6 monthly LFT’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

NASH monitoring

A

6 monthly liver US +/- AFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

Acute Pancreatitis Ix (Dx)

A

Lipase >3 UNL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

Acute Pancreatitis Mx

A
  • ED Mx for IV hydration due to high mortality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

PBC or PSC

Males commonly

A

PSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

PBC or PSC

Linked with Ulcerative colitis

A

PSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

PBC or PSC

Female

A

PBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

PBC and PSC symptoms (4)

A
  • Abdo pain
  • Fever
  • Fatigue
  • Pruritis
  • Jaundice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

PBC or PSC

Colorectal cancer risk

A

PSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

PBC or PSC

Intrahepatic ducts only

A

PBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

Dx, pain in throat with cold/hot food

A

Oesophageal spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

Gastric peptic ulcer. Pain after eating time frame?

A

Pain 30 mins after eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

Dudodenal peptic ulcer. Pain after eating time frame?

A

Relieved when eating, Pain starts 2-3 hours later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

External haemorrhoids difference

A

Painful

Visible/palpable lump on outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

What type of haemorrhoids is treated with banding?

A

Internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

External haemorrhoids difference

A

Painful

Visible/palpable lump on outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

When can you break consent? (4)

A
  • Patient permission
  • Mandatory by law
  • Necessary discussion with other health professional
  • Duty to public health
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

What age to screen smoking in ATSI?

A

12yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

What age screen CVD (risk calculator)

A

45+ yo (ATSI >30yo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

Adrenaline dose for anaphylaxis in children

A

0.01mL/kg every 5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

My Aged Care referral criteria

A

> 65yo or >50 with homelessness/complex needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

Disabled Parking criteria

A
  • Sig mobility deficit
  • Sig neuro/cognitive deficit
  • Standard parking bay is not big enough for equipment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

Varenicline CI’s

A

Psychosis, suicidal thoughts, CVD, pregnancy/BF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

Smoking cessation - Champix dose

A

Varenicline - 0.5mg for 3/7 -> 0.5mg BD for 4/7, then 1mg BD for 12/52

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

Smoking cessation 3 options (Rx)

A

Nortriptyline
Varenicline
Bupropion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

NRT dosing

A

> 12yo - 10+ cigs or smoking within 30 mins wake up
▪ 21mg/24hr patch >45kg
▪ 14mg/24hr patch <45kg

Quick acting = 2mg chewable every 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

NO false negatives = what statistical term

A

100% sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

NO false positives = what statistical term

A

100% specifiicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

What helps to rule out disease (sensitivity or specificity)

A

SNOUT - Sensitive tests, where negative helps rule OUT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

What helps to rule out disease (sensitivity or specificity)

A

SNOUT - Sensitive tests, where negative helps rule OUT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

How to calculate number needed to treat?

A

1/Absolute risk increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

Incidence definition

A

number of new cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

Prevalence definition

A

number of exisiting cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

1st line investigations for easy bruising (4)

A

○ FBE + blood film
○ APTT
○ PT/INR
- Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

Pernicious anaemia Rx (1)

A

IM 1mg hydroxocobalamin every second day for 2 weeks

and lifelong:
1 mg hydroxocobalamin IM every 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

Pernicious anaemia Rx (1)

A

IM 1mg hydroxocobalamin every second day for 2 weeks

and lifelong:
1 mg hydroxocobalamin IM every 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

Iron deficiency Rx (1)

A

100mg elemental iron daily for 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

Assessment for DVT?

A

Well’s score
Low = D dimer
High = Venous doppler of affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

DVT Mx

A

Apixaban 10mg bd for 7 days, then 5mg bd for 3 months

Except if pregnant or eGFR <30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

Lymphoma’s how to diagnose

A

Excisional biopsy only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

CRAB criteria multiple myeloma

A

Calcium - elevated
Renal - uremia
Anaemia
Bones - pain and fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

Risk Factors for temporal arteritis (3)

A

Female
Age >50yo
PMR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

Rotavirus vaccine age cutoff

A

1st dose by 14 weeks, 2nd dose by 24 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

Live vaccines CI (2)

A

○ Cancer patients on immunosuppressive therapy (e.g RTx/CTx)
High dose immunosuppressive therapy (>90mg pred/day or >2mg/kg children)
Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

Meningococcal B dosage for age groups

A

6 weeks – 12 months, 3 doses

12+ months, 2 doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

Pneumococcal ages for people who are well

A

70+yo

ATSI 50+yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

Shingles vaccine age

A

Recommended 60+, but anyone 50+ can request

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

Influenza dosing

A
  • 6 months – 9yo need two doses 4 weeks apart only if first ever influenza vaccine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

What vaccines can you not give for egg allergy (2)

A

Yellow Fever

Q fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

Causes of vaccines not working in patient (3)

A
  • Expired vaccine given
  • Cold chain breach of vaccine
  • Manufacturing defect of vaccine
  • Individual’s immune response was ineffective
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

Malaria Prophylaxis (1)

A

PROMOZIO start 2 days before continue 7 days after

OR

Doxycycline 100mg daily 2 days before, 4 weeks after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

Fever + rash, travelled to NSW

A

Barmah Forest Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

Fever, been with sheep and pigs

A

Brucellosis

Bruce Willis looks like sheep/pig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

Fever, SE asia, retroorbital pain

A

Dengue Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

Dengue Fever Mx

A

Conservative Mx, advise about possible risk of haemorrhage and shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

Giardia symptoms (2)

A
  • Steatorrhoea
  • Anorexia/LOW
  • Fatigue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
360
Q

Giardia Rx (1)

A
  • Metronidazole 400mg tds for 5 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
361
Q

Fever, stupor, vomiting, returned from overseas

A

Japanese B Encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
362
Q

Fever, conjuncitivitis, headache, farmer

A

Leptospirosis
EPT = PET = Farmer pets

Or meat industry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
363
Q

Gastro symptoms after someone had poorly stored milk

A

Listeriosis

Li for milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
364
Q

Listeriosis Rx (1)

A

Amoxicillin 1g tds for 2 weeks (pneumonia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
365
Q

Leptospirosis Rx (1)

A

Doxycycline 100mg 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
366
Q

Malaria Ix (1)

A

Thick and thin blood films for 3 days (initial may be too early to detect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
367
Q

Malaria Examination findings (3)

A

Splenomegaly
Conjunctival changes
Cervical lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
368
Q

Resp infection caught by birds

A

Psittacosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
369
Q

Weakness, fever, abbatoir worker

A

Q fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
370
Q

Q fever Rx (1)

A
  • Usually spontaneously resolves in 2-6 weeks
    • Doxycycline 100mg bd for 14 days

Can do Q fever vaccines for those at high risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
371
Q

Insect bite, Queenslander

A

Queensland Tick Typhus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
372
Q

Queensland Tick Typhus Rx (1)

A

Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
373
Q

Painful animal bite + pain with drinking

A

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
374
Q

Rabies Rx

A

Vaccinate, even if after bite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
375
Q

Farmer, sparse spotty rash, fever

A

Ross River Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
376
Q

Parasitic worms in - Sub-Saharan Africa, the Middle East, Southeast Asia and the Caribbean

A

Schistosomiasis from contaminated faeces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
377
Q

Cat litter and contaminated/uncooked food

Fever, muscle aches

A

Toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
378
Q

Traveller’s diarrhoea Rx

A

azithromycin 1g oral stat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
379
Q

Gradually worsening fever and abdo fever in returned traveller

A

Typhoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
380
Q

Typhoid Rx (1)

A

Azithromycin 1g oral daily for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
381
Q

Eschar rash - Transmitted through bites, Asia

A

Typhus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
382
Q

Typhus Rx (1)

A
  • Doxycycline 100mg bd
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
383
Q

Anal warts Rx (1)

A

Podophyllotoxin 0.15% cream bd for 3 days, then nothing for 4 days. Repeat x4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
384
Q

Hairy leukoplakia is a sign of?

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
385
Q

Time frame for post-exposure HIV prophylaxis

A

Within 72 hours of exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
386
Q

How long to take PrEP for HIV until covered

A

Males - 7 days

Females - 20 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
387
Q

Exposure to influenza, but negative result Mx (1)?

A

Vaccinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
388
Q

Influenza Rx (1)

A

Oseltamivir up to 75mg bd for 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
389
Q

What Ix to do for needlestick injury (3)

A
  • Hep B (anti-HBs, HBsAg)
  • Hep C (anti-HBc IgG, Hepatitis C serology HCV RNA PCR)
  • HIV serology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
390
Q

When to repeat testing for needlestick injury?

A

3 and 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
391
Q

Indications for tetanus booster after injury

A

> 5 years since last dose + DIRTY or MAJOR wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
392
Q

Indications for tetanus immunoglobulin after injury

A

Not completed 3 course of tetanus + DIRTY or MAJOR wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
393
Q

Primary syphillis symptom (1)

A

Painless ulcer (Chancre)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
394
Q

Secondary syphillis symptom (1)

A

Rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
395
Q

Tertiary syphillis symptom (1)

A

Systemic paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
396
Q

Acute syphillis infection Ix (1)

A
  • Syphillis Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) testing AND enzyme Immunoassay

This is also used for test of cure in 3, 6, 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
397
Q

Chronic syphillis infection Ix (1)

A

Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA), positive for lifetime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
398
Q

Syphillis chancre investigation (1)

A

NAAT swab of ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
399
Q

Rash, fever and myalgia after syphilis treatment?

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
400
Q

Syphilis Rx (1)

A

Benzathine benzylpenicillin 2.4 million units IM injection stat

Pen allergy - Doxycycline 100mg bd for 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
401
Q

Duration of therapy for provoked, distal DVT

A

6 weeks +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
402
Q

Duration of therapy for unprovoked DVT

A

3 months +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
403
Q

Duration of therapy for proximal DVT

A

3 months +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
404
Q

What is Pott’s disease?

A

MSK TB (TB in spine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
405
Q

Tuberculosis Ix for acute disease (1)

A
  • Sputum acid-fast bacilli smear x3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
406
Q

Tuberculosis Ix for chronic disease (1)

A
  • Quantiferon Gold (does not check for active disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
407
Q

Prostate cancer screening age

A
  • Offer 50-69yo every 2 years
  • Offer 45-69yo every 2 years if risk factors

Even if high risk, controversial with screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
408
Q

Prostatitis empirical Rx

A

Trimethoprim 300mg daily for 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
409
Q

Epididymo-orchitis causes (4)

A

Mumps
Urinary source
STI source
Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
410
Q

Epididymo-orchitis examination specific finding (1)

A

Prehn’s sign - relief of pain upon lifting of scrotum

	Ehn happening to me - BXO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
411
Q

Blue dot sign

A

Torsion of testicular appendage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
412
Q

Indirect hernia vs Direct hernia

Common in young

A

Indirect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
413
Q

Indirect hernia vs Direct hernia

Can descend into scrotum

A

Indirect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
414
Q

Indirect hernia vs Direct hernia

Medial to inguinal vessels

A

Direct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
415
Q

Balanitis Rx

A

Canesten (1% clotrimazole) bd for 7 days after symptoms resolve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
416
Q

Peyronie’s disease associated conditions (3)

A

HTN
T2DM
Obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
417
Q

When to Rx Peyronie’s disease

A
  • Only if causing pain or sexual interference
    1. Surgical
    2. Injections - collagenase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
418
Q

Erectile Dysfunction Rx (1)

A

Sildenafil 50mg PRN (max 1/day)

- Have on empty stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
419
Q

Erectile Dysfunction non-pharm Mx (3)

A
  • Quit smoking
  • Exercise
  • Avoid ETOH/caffeine
  • Weight loss
  • Psychology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
420
Q

Premature Ejaculation Rx (2)

A
  1. Topical anaesthetic to penile shaft (lignocaine)

2. Dapoxetine 30mg 1-3 hours before intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
421
Q

SPC monitoring Ix (2)

A

Yearly:

  1. bladder USS
  2. UEC’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
422
Q

When to use triangular sling?

A

supports elbow - for fractures where traction would make it worse
E.g AC joint or clavicle # SNOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
423
Q

When to use collar + cuff sling?

A
  • when you need traction for fracture to heal

Humerus shaft, shoulder dislocation (internal rotation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
424
Q

Shoulder dislocation Mx (1)

A

Collar and cuff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
425
Q

AC joint dislocation Mx (1)

A

Triangular sling (clavicle traction isn’t good)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
426
Q

Humerus fractures Mx (1)

A

Unless in corners, or displaced since it’s non WB bone, mostly conservative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
427
Q

What structure can get injured with humerus shaft fractures?

A

Radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
428
Q

Ulnar nerve palsy findings?

A
  • Claw hand

- Unable to abduct fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
429
Q

Radial nerve palsy findings?

A

Unable to extend wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
430
Q

Median nerve palsy findings?

A

Unable to make OK sign (finger opposition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
431
Q

Simple forearm fracture Mx (1)

A

Above elbow cast (to avoid supination/pronation)

Always do 1 joint below and above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
432
Q

Simple Wrist fracture Mx (1)

A

Below elbow cast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
433
Q

Olecranon fracture Mx (1)

A

ORIF (intrarticular normally)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
434
Q

Pulled elbow Ix (1)

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
435
Q

Pulled elbow Mx (1)

A

Passive pronation and flex elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
436
Q

Maxillary # Mx (1)

A

Send to maxfax as can affect teeth modelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
437
Q

Nasal # Mx?

A 
Non-displaced = conservative
Displaced = Max-fax referral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
438
Q

Orbital # Mx?

A

Send to ED urgently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
439
Q

Facial fracture ED referral indications? (3)

A

Pain with eye movements
Diplopia
Depressed malar eminence
Hyphaema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
440
Q

Pelvic # Mx

A

Usually conservative if non-displaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
441
Q

Patellar # signs

A

Unable to straighten (extend) knee or SLR

as pulls on quads tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
442
Q

Patellar # Mx

A

No displacement = Immobilise walking plaster cylinder 4 weeks
Displacement or unable to extend knee = K wires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
443
Q

Distal fibular # Mx

A

POP back slab/moon boot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
444
Q

Repetitive back rotational movements leading to pain. Dx?

A

Spondylosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
445
Q

Spondylosis Mx (1)

A

Rest from aggravating activity for 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
446
Q

Radius/Ulnar # Mx

A
  • If both fractured and aligned = heals well with cast
  • Rotational deformities = reduction
  • Displaced = operation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
447
Q

Colles # Mx

A
  • Non-displaced = below elbow cast 4 weeks

- Displaced = reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
448
Q

Scaphoid # Mx

A
  • Displaced = ortho referral

- Non-displaced = thumb spica cast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
449
Q

Mallet finger Mx

A
  • Simple = Full extension splint

- Fracture/complex = surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
450
Q

Subscapularis action

A

Internal rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
451
Q

Teres minor action

A

External rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
452
Q

Infraspinatus action

A

External rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
453
Q

SLE Ix (3)

A

ANA +ve
anti-dsDNA
anti smith antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
454
Q

RA Ix (3)

A

RF +ve
anti CCP
ANA +ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
455
Q

Scleroderma Ix (1)

A

Limited anti centromere
Systemic anti SCL 70
“anti topoisomerase 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
456
Q

Cut off for normal endometrial thickness post-menopause

A

<4mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
457
Q

During what time of menstrual cycle is it best to get a TV US done to Ix?

A

Day 5-10 of menstrual cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
458
Q

Normal endometrial thickness PRE-menopausal

A

<12mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
459
Q

Normal endometrial thickness PERI-menopausal

A

<5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
460
Q

What medication to give to stop breastmilk production

A

Cabergoline 1mg stat dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
461
Q

COCP given and patient develops migraine with aura

A

Stop COCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
462
Q

COCP Smoker >35 but quit last year

A

Stop COCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
463
Q

COCP FHx of breast cancer <30yo

A

Okay to take COCP. Only PHx of breast ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
464
Q

Major surgery with immobilisation, okay for COCP

A

No. high risk VTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
465
Q

Sudden onset neck pain with RA/Down’s syndrome

A

Atlanto-axial disruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
466
Q

Examination findings for cervical radiculopathy

A

Spurling test, slightly lateral flexion neck and push down head causes pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
467
Q

Middle finger nerve root distribution

A

C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
468
Q

Shoulder pain + stifness in all directions, active and passive movement pain

A

Frozen shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
469
Q

Shoulder pain, active movements only, external rotation, abduction

A

Rotator cuff injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
470
Q

Shoulder pain with Passive overhead movements

A

Bursitis/Impingement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
471
Q

Repetitive throwing -> shoulder pain

A

Glenoid Labrum Tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
472
Q

How to assess for AC joint disruption

A

Paxinos sign - pinching AC joint together

Passive adduction of shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
473
Q

When to consider radicular back pain imaging?

A

> 6 weeks, trial physical therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
474
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis triad

A

<40yo
Lasting >3 months
Morning stifness improving with exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
475
Q

Repetitive rotation causing back pain

A

SpondyloLYsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
476
Q

Teenager with kyphosis, can’t touch toes

A

Scheuermann’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
477
Q

Risk Factors for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (4)

A
  • Diabetes
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Pregnancy
  • Trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
478
Q

When to give ABX for rhinosinusitis? 3 criteria

A

Fever > 38
Discoloured purulent discharge
Severe localised pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
479
Q

Pain on lateral thigh, worse on pressure and climbing stairs

A

Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome (including bursitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
480
Q

Young athlete, tenderness in pubic symphysis

A

Osteitis Pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
481
Q

Young person who jumps a lot, pain inferior knee cap

A

Patellar Tendinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
482
Q

Female and obesity, anterior knee pain ,worse with sitting prolonged period of time (movie theatre sign)

A

Patellofemoral Pain Sydrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
483
Q

Teenager with pain on tibial tuberosity

A

Osgood Schlatter Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
484
Q

Painful knee clicking

A

Meniscal tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
485
Q

Suprapatellar pain after overuse, worse at night

A

Quadriceps Tendonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
486
Q

Marathon runner with lateral pain on thigh

A

Iliotibial Pain syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
487
Q

Pain in knees after kneeling prolonged period

A

Prepatellar bursitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
488
Q

MRI knee rebatable conditions (2)

A

16-49 yo with either

  • Acute ACL concern (following trauma)
  • Acute unable to straighten knee (meniscal tear)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
489
Q

Unfit tennis player with calf pain during lunge

A

Gastrocnemius tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
490
Q

Spa folliculitis. Causative organism + ABx choice?

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
491
Q

Shaving folliculitis causative organism + Rx

A

Staph aureus

Mupirocin 2% ointment bd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
492
Q

RF for scabies (3)

A

Nursing homes
ATSI
HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
493
Q

Onycholysis Rx (2)

A

Keep nails short
Avoid exposure to contact irritants
Wait for nail to regrow (separated nail won’t reattach)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
494
Q

Dermatoscopy - thrombosed capillaries

A

Warts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
495
Q

Plane (flat) warts on face treatment

A

tretinoin 0.05% cream daily for 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
496
Q

RF for DDH (3)

A

Female
Breech
FHx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
497
Q

When to do US for DDH

A

6 weeks - 6 months, after this XR is better

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
498
Q

Organic causes of constipation in children (3)

A

Allergy
Coeliac Disease
Hypothyroidism
Hypercalcaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
499
Q

Examination components for child constipation (2)

A

Abdominal palpation for faecal matter

Inspect anus for fissures/patency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
500
Q

Hyperpigmentation, weight loss

A

Addison’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
501
Q

How is sarcoidosis diagnosed?

A

Bronchoscopy with endobrachial biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
502
Q

Post exposure - when can people get chickenpox vaccine

A

Within 3-5 days of exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
503
Q

Cardiac complication of Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Aortic dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
504
Q

Marfan’s syndrome inheritance pattern?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
505
Q

What valvular problem is in Marfan’s?

A

Mitral valve prolapse (MVP = tall guy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
506
Q

Wernicke’s Encephalopathy triad

A
  • Confusion/Encephalopathy
  • Ataxia
  • Occulomotor dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
507
Q

Wernicke’s treatment

A

IV thiamine 300mg tds -> 100mg IV daily -> oral 100mg thiamine (severe thiamine deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
508
Q

Korsakoff syndrome features?

A

Memory loss from chronic B1(thiamine) deficiency

509
Q

Poor prognosis indicators in RA (3)

A

> 20 joints affected
High sustained ESR
Smoking
Impaired function early in disease

510
Q

How long is erythema infectiousum contagious for

A

Until 24 hours after fever settles

511
Q

Neonatal cephalic pustulosis Rx

A

Ketaconazole 2% topical bd

512
Q

Fibromyalgia 1st line Rx

A

Amyitryptyline 10mg oral

513
Q

What medications interact with COCP (2)

A
  • Anti-epileptics

- Rifampicin

514
Q

What contraception to use with anti-epileptics (2)

A

Mirena IUD

Medroxyprogesterone 150mg every 12 weeks

515
Q

3 reasons for referral for acne

A
  • Severe
  • Considerable scarring
  • Emotional/Social impact
516
Q

Pre-eclampsia + Gestational Hypertension gestation diagnosis

A

> 20 weeks

517
Q

Cardioselective beta-blockers (4)

A

Atenolol
Bisoprolol
Nebivolol
Metoprolol succinate

518
Q

Causes of mouth breathing in children (3)

A

Allergic rhinitis
Deviated nasal septum
Adenoid hypertrophy

519
Q

Smooth philtrum in child

A

Foetal Alcohol Syndrome

520
Q

What blds to order when suspecting ADHD to exclude organic cause? (3)

A
  • FBE
  • iron studies
  • TFT’s
521
Q

Boxer # findings and Rx

A

Angulation of 5th metatarsal, K-Wire insertion

522
Q

Morton’s neuroma location

A

Typically 3rd and 4th MTP joint space

523
Q

Morton’s neuroma Rx (3)

A

Loose shoes with sponge metatarsal pad/Conservative (30% involute)
CSC injection
Surgical

524
Q

Tibialis Anterior tendinopathy findings

A

Pain on plantar flexion (stretch) or resisted dorsiflexion (contraction)

525
Q

5th metatarsal fracture Mx

A

If undisplaced, NWB for 4 weeks

If displaced or Jones (avulsion) #, ortho referral

526
Q

Calcaneal # Mx

A 
Caused by severe axial loading force
Ortho referral (urgent)
527
Q

Ankle Ottawa rules

A

Malleolar or Midfoot pain with either

Tenderness on these sites or inability to WB

528
Q

Ankle tendinopathy history

A

Pain on rising after sitting

529
Q

Plantar fasciitis history

A

Pain early morning during first steps

530
Q

Tarsal Tunnel Tinnel test location

A

Inferior to medial malleolus

531
Q

Tarsal tunnel syndrome Mx (2)

A

Orthotics
ICS injection
Surgical release

532
Q

Elderly patient with medial foot/ankle pain and flat feet

A

Posterior tibialis tendinopathy

533
Q

Posterior tibialis tendinopathy sign

A

Pain on resisted ankle inversion during plantar flexion

534
Q

Ballet dancer, big toe pain on flexion

A

flexor hallucis longus tendinopathy

535
Q

Name of test to check fo achilles tendon rupture?

A

Simmonds test (kneel on chair and calf squeeze)

536
Q

Painful tiny fat lobules on heel. Dx?

A

Piezogenic Papules

537
Q

Piezogenic Papules Mx?

A

Weight loss or cushioning

538
Q

Active child with night time ankle pain

A

Tarsal coalition (accessory tarsal bone)

539
Q

Severs disease age + pain location (Calcaneal apophysitis)

A

7-15yo - heel pain

540
Q

Severs disease Mx (2)

A

Raised heel shoes

Avoid strenuous sport for 12 weeks

541
Q

Paget’s disease Ix

A

Bone specific alkaline phosphate antigen

542
Q

Sunburst appearance on XR

A

Osteosarcoma

543
Q

Onion skin on XR

A

Ewing sarcoma

544
Q

Pseudogout Ix

A
  • Synovial joint aspiration with calcium pyrophosphate crystals
545
Q

Dupuytren’s contracture difference with trigger finger

A

Dupuytren’s cannot be reversed

546
Q

Dupuytren’s contracture associations

A

○ Overuse
○ ETOH
○ T2DM
Liver disease

547
Q

Dupuytren’s Ix (2)

A

○ FBGL

LFT’s

548
Q

Dupuytren’s Mx (3)

A
  • Watchful waiting
  • Physio/Hand therapy
  • Collagenase injections
  • Consider plastics/ortho referral
549
Q

Rheumatoid extra-articular manifestations (3)

A

Episcleritis, carpal tunnel syndrome, pericarditis

550
Q

Reactive arthritis extra-articular manifestations (2)

A

Urethritis, conjuncitivitis

551
Q

Gout Mx (2)

A

Maintain healthy weight

Abstain from triggers (ETOH, red meat, soft drink)

552
Q

Gout flare prophylaxis Rx

A
  • NSAID - naproxen 500mg bd
    OR
  • colchicine 0.5mg daily or bd
553
Q

Gout prevention Rx

A

Allopurinol 50mg daily for 4 weeks, titrate with uric acid

554
Q

Urate targets

A

<0.36 for gout

<0.3 for gouty tophi

555
Q

Nailbed injury Ex (2)

A
  • Check neurovascular status

- Check signs of fracture by finger movements (needs XR if suspicious)

556
Q

Pseudogout Mx

A

Same as gout except for NSAID use

557
Q

Osteomyelitis Rx (1)

A

IV flucloxacillin QID

558
Q

Paget’s disease XR findings (3)

A
  • Cortical thickening
  • Sclerosis
    Trabeculations of bone
559
Q

Examination finding for plantar fasciitis (1)

A
  • Pain on dorsiflexion of big toe (stretches plantar fascia)
560
Q

PMR referral indications

A

○ diagnostic uncertainty

patient < 50yo

561
Q

PMR Mx (2)

A
  • Prednisolone – 15 mg/day for 1 month, then wean.

- Low-impact, light aerobic exercise to mitigate the effects of steroids

562
Q

Definitive way to diagnose Rickets

A

XR

563
Q

Morphea linked with?

A

Scleroderma

564
Q

Myasthenia Gravis Ix (1)

A

Acetylcholine receptor antibodies

565
Q

Motor Neurone Disease presentation

A

Hyperreflexia in wasted limb

566
Q

Receptive aphasia, brain lobe?

A

Temporal

567
Q

Expressive apahsia, brain lobe?

A

Frontal

568
Q

Spatial disorientation, mathematics, brain lobe?

A

Parietal

569
Q

Recognising faces/objects, brain lobe?

A

Temporal

570
Q

Sparing of forehead with facial weakness?

A

Stroke

571
Q

Bell’s Palsy Rx (3)

A

Prednisolone 1mg/kg (up to 75mg) daily for 5 days
Lubricating eye drops/Tape eye when not being used
Facial massage

Takes 3 months to recover

572
Q

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome Rx (1)

A
  • Valaciclovir 1g tds for 7 days
573
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome associated conditions? (4)

A

T2DM
Pregnancy
Repeated movements
RA

574
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome Mx (4)

A
  • Night time splint
  • Avoid repeated/overuse
  • Referral to physiotherapist
    Ultrasound guided corticosteroid injection at wrist
575
Q

Medication for prevention of cluster headache? (1)

A

Verapamil

576
Q

Huntington’s Disease inheritance pattern?

A

Autosomal dominant

577
Q

Symptoms of intracranial hypertension (2)

A

Severe headache

Blurred vision

578
Q

Migraine Rx (3)

A

Sumatriptan 50mg oral, then 2 hours later if needed
Ibuprofen 400mg tds
Metoclopramide 10mg tds

579
Q

Migraine prophylaxis Rx (1)

A

Amitryptylline 10mg daily

580
Q

Myasthenia Gravis presentation

A

NIL SENSORY, muscle weakness, diplopia and ptosis

581
Q

Parkinson’s triad

A

Cog-wheeling rigidity
Shuffling gate
Pill rolling tremor

582
Q

What two anti-emetics to avoid in Parkinson’s?

A

metoclopramide

prochloperazine (stemetil)

583
Q

When to avoid levodopa

A

Addiction/Gambling problems

584
Q

Perioral dermatitis mild (1)

A

metronidazole 0.75% cream or gel topically, twice daily for 4 to 6 weeks until skin returns to normal

585
Q

Perioral dermatitis moderate Rx (1)

A

Doxy 100mg daily

586
Q

Diabetic neuropathy Rx (1)

A

amitriptyline 5mg nocte

587
Q

Restless legs Syndrome Rx (3)

A

Gabapentin 100mg/Pregabalin 25mg
Pramiprexole 0.125mg daily
Levodopa benzaride 100/25mg

588
Q

When are seizures resolved?

A
  • Resolved if seizure free for 10 years (including 5 medication free)
589
Q

Post-ictal definition

A

> 10 minutes of

- Disorientation
- Memory loss
    - Decreased verbal/interactive skills
590
Q

Simple seizure meaning

A

no impaired awareness

591
Q

Complex seizure meaning

A

impaired awareness

592
Q

Occipital partial seizure symptoms

A

contralateral vision aura

593
Q

Parietal partial seizure symptoms

A

contralateral sensory neuropathy

594
Q

Temporal partial seizure symptoms

A

psychic changes (jamais vu, déjà vu)

595
Q

Epilepsy diagnosis?

A

2 seizures at least 24 hours apart

596
Q

Shingles Ix (1)

A

○ Viral swab for PCR

597
Q

When to give Zoster vaccine after shingles diagnosis?

A

12 months afterwards

598
Q

Shingles lifestyle advice (2)

A

Avoid contact with children, pregnant women and immunosuppressed until crusted lesions
Cover rash with non-stick dressing and Vaseline

599
Q

Shingles Rx (2)

A

Valaciclovir 1g tds 7 days
Lidocaine 5% patch
Gabapentin 100mg/Pregabalin 25mg

600
Q

Post stroke Rx (3)

A
  • ACEi (aim for SBP 120-130)
  • Atorvastatin 80mg daily
  • Aspirin 300mg first day, then 100mg daily
601
Q

Essential tremor Rx (1)

A

Propanolol 10mg bd

602
Q

Trigeminal Neuralgia Mx (2)

A
  1. Avoid touching face

2. Carbamazepine MR 100mg bd

603
Q

Wernicke’s Encephalopathy triad

A
  • Ophthalmoplegia (Diplopia)
  • Ataxia
  • Confusion
604
Q

Wernicke’s Encephalopathy Rx (1)

A

Thiamine 300mg IV for 3 days, then 100mg daily oral

605
Q

Private Licence acuity requirements

A

At least one eye 6/12

606
Q

Commercial Licence acuity requirements

A

Better eye at least 6/9 AND

Worse eye at least 6/18

607
Q

Skin conditions linked with blepharitis (3)

A

Acne
Rosacea
Seborrhoeic Dermatitis

608
Q

Blepharitis Non-pharm Mx (3)

A
  • Warm compresses daily for 2 to soften crusts
  • Gentle scrubbing of lashes with
  • Massage eyelid
    Sodium bicarbonate
609
Q

Anterior blepharitis Pharm Mx (1)

A

If symptoms not controlled - chloramphenicol 1% eye ointment BD for 2 weeks

610
Q

Amaurosis Fugax Mx (1)

A
  • Referral to a neurologist within 72hrs of symptoms

Stop driving for 4 weeks

611
Q

Cataracts RF (4)

A
  • Smoking
  • Age
  • T2DM
    Excessive ETOH consumption
612
Q

Complete Heart Block Rx (2)

A

Atropine 0.5mg IV stat

Pacemaker

613
Q

SVT Rx (1)

A

Adenosine IV 6mg

after trying Valsalva

614
Q

SVT prophylaxis

A

Atenolol 25mg oral

615
Q

V tach if stable Rx (1)

A

Amiodarone

If unstable, needs DC shock

616
Q

Which NSAID’s have lowest GI SE’s

A

COX-2 inhibitors - Celebrex/Celecoxib

617
Q

When to do 6 monthly AFP and Liver us for HCC surveillance? (2)

A

Cirrhosis and Chronic Hep B

618
Q

Alcohol related liver disease specific findings (3)

A

Dupuytren’s contracture
Proximal myopathy
Parotidomegaly

619
Q

Acute MiILD ascites Rx (2)

A

Spironolactone
Frusemide (second line)
Sodium restriction

620
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy signs

A

Asterixis
Confusion
Muscle rigidity

621
Q

Genital herpes Mx (3)

A

Valaciclovir 500mg bd for 10 days
Lignocaine gel topically to lesions/paracetamol 1g QID
Urinate in bath/shower if dysuria

622
Q

Genital warts Mx options (4)

A
  • No need for treatment if not causing discomfort
  • Cryotherapy
  • Imiquimod 5% cream, alternate days until warts resolve
    OR
  • Podophyllotoxin 0.5% paint, bd for 3 days followed by a 4-day break; repeat weekly until warts resolve.
623
Q

Opioid toxicity withdrawal Rx (1)

A

IV naloxone

624
Q

Baby well in between episodes of vomiting with distress and pallor?

A

Intussusception

625
Q

Intussusception age

A

2 months to 2 years

626
Q

ETOH abstinence Rx (3)

A

Acamprosate - 666mg TDS
Disulfiram (Antabuse) 100mg daily
Naltrexone - 50mg daily

627
Q

Bartholin’s abscess Mx (1)

A

Semi urgent gynae referral for marsupialisation IF recurrent

628
Q

Patient complaint Mx (3)

A

Apologise to patient that “this has happened” (even if not your fault)
Offer to show clinic’s policy for lodging a complaint
Discuss with medical defence organisation
Document your actions and discussion points

629
Q

Negative birefrigerence crystals joint aspirate

A

Gout

630
Q

Rhomboid shaped crystals, joint aspirate

A

Pseudogout

631
Q

Positive birefrigerence crystals joint aspirate

A

Pseudogout

632
Q

Needle shaped crystals, joint aspirate

A

Gout

633
Q

Medication overuse headache Rx (2)

A
  • Change to ibuprofen 400mg tds for 5 days, then 3 days/week, then stop
    OR
  • Prednisolone 50mg daily for 3 days, then taper over 10 days
634
Q

Tension headache prophylaxis Rx (1)

A

Amitriptyline 10mg daily

635
Q

Bacterial conjunctivitis Rx (1)

A

Chloramphenicol 0.5% drops 1 drop QID for 7 days

636
Q

Viral conjunctivitis Mx (3)

A

Cold compresses
Lubricating eye drops
Hand hygiene

637
Q

Allergic conjuncitivitis Rx (1)

A

olopatadine 0.1% 1 drop bd

638
Q

Follicular conjunctivitis causes

A

Viral and chlamydia

639
Q

Papillary conjunctivitis causes

A

pABillae (allergic and bacterial)

640
Q

Chlamydial conjuncitivitis /Trachoma Rx (1)

A

Azithromycin 1g as single dose for all household contacts

641
Q

Gonorrhoea conjuncitivitis Mx (2)

A

Urgent referral to ophthal

Ceftriaxone 1g stat IM and 1g Azithromycin oral stat

642
Q

Coagulopathy after bite - animal/insect?

A

Brown snake

643
Q

Most deadly spider

A

Funnel-web

644
Q

Acute cholangitis triad

A

Jaundice, Fever, RUQ Abdo pain

645
Q

Acute cholangitis Mx (1)

A

Refer to ED

646
Q

High risk patient (pregnancy) exposed to shingles Rx?

A

Zoster immunoglobulin

647
Q

Anal fissure Rx (1)

A

Glyceryl Trinitrate 0.2% ointment tds

648
Q

Exercise induced asthma Rx (1)

A

If on most exercise days - first line = ICS

If very occasional - first line = SABA 15 mins before

649
Q

Causes of leukocoria in children (3)

A
  1. Retinoblastoma
  2. Coat’s disease (retinal vessel growth)
  3. Congenital cataract
650
Q

Dacrocystitis Rx (1)

A

Cefalexin

651
Q

How to calculate ovulation date?

A

Length of period -14 days

652
Q

Weakness + joint/muscle pain + violaceous facial rash

A

Dermatomyositis

653
Q

Allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome features (3)

A

High fever
Rash
Kidney Failure

(Life threatening)

654
Q

What PHx to avoid probenacid in? (uric acid lowering med)

A

Kidney stones

655
Q

Inflammatory picture hand joint pain DDx (5)

A
  • RA
  • SLE
  • Reactive arthritis
  • Psoriatic arthritis
  • Scleroderma
656
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis Mx (3)

A
  • NSAID’s
  • Fish oil daily
  • Physiotherapy
  • Rest from exacerbating activities
  • Quit smoking
    Referral to rheum/pred
657
Q

People on MTX can develop what deficiency?

A

Folic acid (1mg daily)

658
Q

Complications of PMR (3)

A
  • Giant cell arteritis
  • Stroke
  • Depression
  • Chronic pain
659
Q

Paget’s disease Rx

A

Zoledronic acid (or bisphosphonates)

660
Q

Cryotherapy areas to avoid (3)

A

Head, neck, sides of fingers (nerves)

661
Q

Which preterm/low birth weight infants need extra Hep B at 12 months?

A

<2000g or <32 weeks

662
Q

TOC gonorrhoea

A

2 weeks for all infections other than uretheral infection

663
Q

Gonorrhoea retest

A

3 months

664
Q

Rabies exposure, vaccinated. Rx?

A

2 doses vaccine

665
Q

Rabies exposure, never vaccinated. Rx?

A

4 doses vaccine and give HRIG

666
Q

Small corneal abrasion Rx (1)

A

Chloramphenicol 0.5% eye drops, 1 drop QID daily

AND double eye pad

667
Q

3 broad causes of dry eyes?

A
  1. Functional (aging)
  2. Systemic diseases (SLE, RA, Sjogren’s syndrome)
  3. Drugs (TCA, beta blockers)
668
Q

Episcleritis Mx?

A

Self-resolving 2-4 weeks

NSAID’s for discomfort

669
Q

Scleritis Mx?

A

Urgent ophthal review

670
Q

Acute angle glaucoma Rx (1)

A

Pilocarpine 2% 1 drop

671
Q

Fundoscopy findings for glaucoma (3)

A

Drusen (yellow deposits in retina)
Subretinal Haemorrhage (red patches)
Cupping

672
Q

3 classes of medications for open angle glaucoma

A
  1. Prostaglandins- Latanoprost (Xalatan)
  2. Beta blockers -Timolol (Tenopt)
  3. Alpha adrenergic agonist (AAA) - Pilocarpine
673
Q

Gestation you can fly at?

A

Under 35 weeks

674
Q

Parvovirus exposure in pregnancy management

A

Serology now

If non-immune, repeat in 3 weeks to check for conversion.
Will need serial US to check for foetal hydrops

675
Q

Keratitis (NON HSV) Rx whilst waiting for ophthal review

A

Ciprofloxacin 0.3% eye drops every hour

676
Q

HSV Keratitis Rx whilst waiting for ophthal review

A

Aciclovir 3% eye ointment 5 times daily for 14 days

677
Q

Loss of central vision - slow

A

WET macular degeneration

678
Q

Pterygium Mx (3)

A
  • Topical lubricants
  • Wear sunglasses
  • If sight is affected -> surgery
679
Q

Retinal artery occlusion presentation

A
  • Sudden, painless loss of vision - can be central or paracentral
680
Q

Retinal vein occlusion presentation

A
  • Subacute distorted vision; can be transient

Pain

681
Q

Diabetic ophthal screening

A

1-2 yearly depending on glycaemic control

682
Q

Established DM retinopathy ophthal review frequency

A

Reviewed by ophthal 3-6 monthly

683
Q

Two examination tests for strabismus

A

Cover test

Light reflex test

684
Q

When is strabismus not concerning?

A

Intermittent and <3 months old

685
Q

Medication treatment for temporal arteritis (3). (Must refer urgently for biopsy +/- rheum)

A
  • aspirin 100mg daily
  • IV methylpred (if evolving vision loss)
  • prednisolone 50mg daily 4 weeks (no vision loss)
686
Q

Trachoma Rx (1)

A

Azithromycin 1g oral stat

687
Q

Vitreous detachment presentation

A

40-70yo with floaters/flashes

Painless, blurred vision -> vision loss

688
Q

When to refer infantile haemangiomas (3)

A

Ulcerated
Big
Not resolved by school age
Interference of confidence/function

689
Q

Salmon patch/Naevus simplex Mx?

A

Nothing, facial ones fade within 1-2 years

690
Q

Port Wine Stain Management?

A

Can refer to derm for laser if cosmetic concern.

Persist over lifetime

691
Q

Sturge Weber Syndrome triad?

A
  • PWS on face
  • Vascular malformation of eye (glaucoma, enlarged pupil)
  • Vascular ipsilateral malformation
692
Q

Neonatal Cephalic Pustulosis Rx(1)

A

Ketoconazole 2% cream, bd until clear (usually 2 or 3 days)

693
Q

Roseola Infantum Mx?

A
  • Once rash is present, no longer contagious
  • Spares face
  • Conservative management - self resolving
694
Q

Paracetamol dose kids

A

15mg/kg

695
Q

Ibuprofen dose kids

A

10mg/kg

696
Q

CMPA Mx? (3)

A
  • Mum avoid CM if breastfeeding
  • Baby avoid CM
  • Hydrolysed baby formula (Aptamil gold or Pepti-Junior)
  • Reintroduced CM with “Milk Ladder” at 12 months age
    If re-bleeds, avoid for 6 months
697
Q

Gold standard Ix for Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Technetium-99 scan

698
Q

Croup age

A

6 months - 6 years

699
Q

When can you consider stopping anti-epileptics?

A

Seizure free for >2 years

Epilepsy resolved if seizure free for 10 years (including 5 medication free)

700
Q

When to expect double birthweight?

A

6 months

701
Q

When to expect triple birthweight?

A

12 months

702
Q

Normal weight gain in 0-3 months?

A

150g every week or 30g per day

703
Q

Febrile convulsions age?

A

6 months - 6 years old

704
Q

Convulsions >5 mins? Rx?

A

Midaz (up to 10mg) buccal/intranasal

repeat in 10 mins

705
Q

Given baby anti-emetic and they look like they’re having a seizure. Dx?

A

Dystonic reaction

ondansetron is best anti-emetic

706
Q

When to start cow’s milk?

A

12 months (yoghurts/custards before are fine)

707
Q

Growing pains presentation

A

3-5 yo and 8-11 yo
evening after intensive exercise
Thighs and calves

708
Q

Kawasaki Disease criteria

A

Fever > 38.5 5 days AND “COLOR”

Conjunctivitis 
Oral mucous changes
Lymphadenopathy
Oedema
Rash
709
Q

How long to avoid live vaccines post IV methylpred/immunoglobulin

A

6 months after administration

710
Q

DDH risk factors?

A 
FHx
First born
Female
Funny delivery - breech
Fluid (Olighydramnios)
711
Q

Imaging for DDH

A

Ultrasound (for 6 weeks - 6 months)

XR (for over 6 months)

712
Q

Intoeing age

A

2-4 years old

713
Q

Bow legs age

A

1-3 years old

714
Q

What age should bow legs correct by?

A

3

715
Q

What age should knock knees correct by?

A

8

716
Q

Normal age for thelarche in females?

A

8-13yo

717
Q

Normal age for menarche in females?

A

10-15yo

718
Q

Normal age for puberty in males?

A

9-14yo

719
Q

Precocious (early) puberty age?

A

GIRLS before 8, BOYS before 9

720
Q

Delayed puberty age?

A

GIRLS thelarche over 13, no menarche over 16

BOYS over 14

721
Q

PURPLE crying presentation

A

2 weeks - 5 months

Crying 3-4 hours/day, 3-4 times/week, resolves 3-4 months

722
Q

Neonatal undescended testicle Mx?

A

Watchful waiting until 3 months, after this needs surgery if not down

723
Q

ADHD triad

A

> 6 months

  • Inattention
  • Hyperactivity
  • Impulsivity
724
Q

Adjustment disorder presentation

A

Symptoms within 3 months of stressor, and not longer than 6 months after stressor has ceased

Out of proportion distress and impairment

725
Q

Differentiating feature between Bipolar I and II?

A

No impairment of functioning with mania in II

hypomania

726
Q

Side effects of clozapine (2)?

A
  • Agranulocytosis

- Myocarditis

727
Q

How often to review driving in dementia patient?

A

6 monthly

728
Q

Dementia Rx (3)

A 
Donepezil 5mg (CI seizures, heart block, asthma/COPD)
Memantine 5mg (CI seizures)
Rivastigmine
729
Q

Lewy body dementia features

A
  • Parkinsonism

- Visual Hallucinations

730
Q

DSM criteria for anorexia nervosa

A
  • Fear of weight gain
  • Body dysmorphia
  • Calorie restriction
731
Q

Which anti-epileptics are safe in COCP, implanon and POP?

A

sodium valproate, levetiracetam

732
Q

Which contraceptive measures are safe with all anti-epileptics

A

Depot or IUD

733
Q

Narcolepsy presentation

A

Sudden attacks of sleepiness
Hallucinations
Cataplexy (sudden loss of muscle tone)

734
Q

Idiopathic Hypersomnia presentation

A
  • Confusion, disorientation after waking from sleep

- Difficult to wake from sleep

735
Q

Lithium toxicity presentation

A

GI - nausea/vomiting/diarrhoea
Neuro - Tremor/hyperreflexia
CVD - QTc elongation

736
Q

Lithium toxicity investigations (2)

A

Lithium levels + ECG (QTc)

737
Q

What blds do you do for monitoring on lithium? (3)

A

Lithium level
TFT’s (every 6 months)
eGFR (every 6 months
Calcium

738
Q

Assessment Order criteria

A
  • Appears mentally unwell
  • Sig risk to self/others
  • No less treatment that will work
739
Q

PTSD timeframe criteria

A

Symptoms >4 weeks since traumatic event

740
Q

Acute Stress Disorder timeframe criteria

A

Symptoms >2 days, but less than 1 month of traumatic event

741
Q

Baby blues presentation

A

Less than 10 days

  • Lasts for 3-5 days
  • Moodiness, overwhelming feeling or anxiety
  • Affects up to 80% of women
742
Q

Psychotherapy choice for borderline psd?

A

DBT

743
Q

Psychotherapy choice for eating disorders

A

Family Therapy for children

CBT for adults

744
Q

Psychotherapy choice for phobias

A

Desensitisation

745
Q

Psychotherapy choice for interpersonal conflict

A

Insight-oriented or

Interpersonal

746
Q

Psychotherapy for adjustment disorder

A

Supportive therapy

747
Q

How to manage hyperprolactinemia from antipsychotic?

A

Add aripiprazole
OR
Cease antipsychotic

748
Q

Management of mild hypomagnesemia

A

500mg bd Mg tabs

749
Q

Causes of hypermagnesemia (3)

A
  • Excessive intake - antacids, supplements
  • Kidney impairment
  • Rhabdomyolysis
  • Lithium
750
Q

Medications that can cause hyperkalaemia (3)

A

NSAID’s
Spironolactone
Trimethoprim
ACEi/ARB’s

751
Q

Management of mild hyperkalaemia

A

<6.5
Stop any medications contributing
Resonium A

752
Q

Management of severe hyperkalaemia

A

> 6.5

Send to ED for lethal risk of arrhythmia

753
Q

Causes of hypokalaemia?

A

Conn’s
Insulin overdose
GI loss
Diuretics

754
Q

Hypovolaemic Hyponatraemia causes? (3)

A

Vomiting
Burns
Diuretics
Adrenal insufficiency

755
Q

Euvolaemic Hyponatraemia causes? (3)

A 
SIADH
SSRI's/SNRI
Carbamazepine
Hypothyroidism
Adrenal insufficiency
756
Q

Hypervolaemic Hyponatraemia causes? (3)

A

○ Heart failure
○ Liver cirrhosis
○ Kidney failure
- Nephritic syndrome

757
Q

Hypernatraemia causes? (3)

A

Low Water

  • Dehydration/Burns/Diarrhoea
  • Diabetes insipidus (low vasopressin)

Sodium Overload

  • Hypertonic NaCl
  • Enemas
758
Q

Hypernatraemia Management?

A

Slow volume replacement

759
Q

Rash starting on neck, happens after fever subsides?

A

Roseola Infantum

760
Q

Tellogen Effluvium Mx?

A

Reassurance, self corrects in 1 year

761
Q

Alopecia areata Mx?

A

Self-resolving, can trial steroid topical/injections

762
Q

Tinea Capitis Rx? (1)

A

Oral terbinafine 250mg daily 6 weeks

763
Q

Hirsutism Rx? (1)

A

Cyproterone acetate

764
Q

Seborrheic dermatitis Mx? NEONATE

A

Soak in baby oil for 1 hour, then wash and peel

Can trial Salicylic acid 2% + LPC (liquor picis carbonis = coal tar solution) 2% + sulfur 2%

765
Q

Acute paronychia Mx?

A

Rx = Incisision for relief (with 21G needle), nil Abx needed

766
Q

Chronic paronychia Mx?

A

Rx = avoid trigger, moisturiser + strong steroid cream

767
Q

Angular cheilitis Mx?

A

vaseline

768
Q

Geographical tongue Mx?

A

Reassurance and antiseptic mouthwash

769
Q

How to determine milk tongue instead of candida?

A

Not thick

Present on inside of cheek as well (milk)

770
Q

2 serology tests for post-strep GN?

A

Antistreptolysin O Titre (ASOT)

Anti DNase B Ab

771
Q

Painless small haematuria Mx?

A

Repeat in 6 weeks with FWT

Common causes:
- Exercise, menstruation, trauma, STI, UTI

772
Q

Persistent haematuria Ix? (2)

A

Urine MCS + casts

RBC morphology

773
Q

AKI - pre-renal causes (2)

A

Hypovolaemia

  • Sepsis/shock
  • Burns/Trauma
  • Dehydration
  • Renal artery stenosis

test BP and HR

774
Q

AKI post-renal causes (2)

A

RCC
BPH

test with US

775
Q

AKI definition?

A

Over <48 hours

  • Increase creatinine > 1.5 times baseline
    OR
  • Significant reduction or urine output compared to normal (0.5ml/kg/hour)
776
Q

How much renal function reduction is okay when starting ACEi/ARB?

A

<25% in 2 months

777
Q

4 common causes of CKD?

A

HTN, DM, PCKD and GN

778
Q

Side effects of ACEi (2)

A

Cough, hyperkalaemia, angio-oedema

779
Q

After starting ACEi, when do you repeat UEC?

A

2 weeks, to check for <25%

780
Q

CKD diagnosis

A

> 3 months of either eGFR <60 or 2/3 elevated uACR’s

781
Q

uACR range for CKD?

A

Males <2.5

Females <3.5

782
Q

What Ix to further do once Dx with CKD? (4)

A

fasting lipids, glucose, ESR/CRP

Renal tract US

783
Q

When are statins indicated in CKD?

A

> 50yo with any CKD

<50yo with any CKD + stroke/DM/CVD

784
Q

BP aim in CKD?

A

<130/80

785
Q

Initially reduced eGFR, when to recheck?

A

7 days. if >20% reduction in eGFR, then AKI

786
Q

When might uACR be unreliable?

A
  • UTI/STI
  • Menstruation
  • Acute illness
  • NSAID’s
787
Q

eGFR <60, Stage of CKD?

A

Stage 3

788
Q

eGFR <30, Stage of CKD?

A

Stage 4

789
Q

Overactive bladder syndrome symptoms (3)

A
  • Urgency - key symptom
  • Frequency
  • Nocturia
790
Q

Overactive bladder syndrome initial Ix (2)

A
  • Urinalysis to exclude infection, bld or glucose
  • Urinary tract US to check PVR
  • Bladder diary for at least 3 days
791
Q

When to refer renal cysts?

A
  • Multiple cysts
  • Bilateral
  • Hx of malignancy
792
Q

UTI female Rx options (3)

A
  • Trimethoprim 300mg for 3 nights (avoid 1st trimester)
  • Nitrofurantoin 100mg QID for 5 days (avoid with Ural)
  • cephalexin 500mg oral bd for 5 days.
793
Q

UTI male Rx

A

Trimethoprim 300mg night for 7 nights

794
Q

UTI prophylaxis indication?

A

> 2 UTI’s every 6 months

795
Q

UTI prophylaxis Mx (3)

A

1.5-2L water daily
Intravaginal oestrogen cream in postmenopausal women
trimethoprim 150 mg orally, at night

796
Q

Non-severe pyelonephritis adult Rx

A

Aug DF 875/125 bd for 14 days

797
Q

Non-severe pyelonephritis child Rx

A

Trimethoprim 150mg bd for 10 days

798
Q

Oral HSV treatment

A

valaiclovir 1g bd

799
Q

What blds to do before treating with terbinafine?

A

LFT’s, risk of liver toxicity

800
Q

What age to consider fasting lipids

A

> 45yo

801
Q

How often to test lipids in healthy person >45yo with previous normal results?

A

5 yearly

802
Q

Within how many days worker needs to notify employer for Worksafe injury

A

<30 days

803
Q

When to refer umbilical hernias neonatal?

A

2 years

804
Q

When to refer neonatal inguinal hernia

A

<6 weeks, refer within 2 days
<6 months, refer within 2 weeks
>6 months, refer within 2 months

805
Q

When can you tell the eye colour of baby

A

6 months

806
Q

When will fontanelle close in baby

A 
posterior = 1-2 months
anterior = 9-18 months
807
Q

How long between breastfeeds in baby?

A

3 hours - to prevent lactose overload

808
Q

When to avoid vagal manouvre

A

AMI
Glaucoma
Aortic stenosis
Haemodynamic instability

809
Q

Coeliac disease testing for sensitivity

A

Transglutaminase-IgA (tTG-IgA),

Deamidated gliadin peptide-IgG (DGP-IgG)

810
Q

Coeliac disease testing for specificity

A

HLA DQ8, HLA DQ2 gene test

811
Q

Chronic prostatitis Rx (1)

A

Ciprofloxacin 500mg bd 4 weeks

812
Q

Acute prostatitis Rx (1)

A

Trimethoprim 300mg daily 14 days

813
Q

What thyroid increases risk of OP?

A

Hyperthyroidism

814
Q

When to avoid live vaccine?

A

> 20mg CS and >14 days

OR within 6 months of chemo/RTx

815
Q

Lifestyle advice prior to spirometry test

A
  • No exercise/smoking day of test
816
Q

What age can spirometry be performed at?

A

6yo

817
Q

Reversibility SABA that is significant?

A

12% or 200mL

818
Q

Approach to spirometry interpretation and cutoffs?

A

FEV1/FVC >0.7, FVC >0.8

819
Q

Asthma triad of physiology

A
  • bronchospasm
  • airway obstruction
  • mucous production
820
Q

RF for asthma (3)

A

Smoking
PMHx of atopy
FHx
?Prematurity

821
Q

Acute asthma - MILD/MODERATE

  • speaking
  • HR
  • O2
A

speaks in sentences, normal HR, O2>94%

822
Q

Acute asthma - SEVERE

  • speaking
  • HR
  • O2
A

speaks in words, accessory muscle use, tachycardia, O2 - 90-94%, distress

823
Q

Asthma - MILD/MODERATE. PEFR?

A

PEFR 50-75%

824
Q

Asthma - SEVERE. PEFR?

A

PEFR 33-50%

825
Q

Asthma classification. Intermittent with frequent flare ups?

A

no symptoms between attacks

attacks <1.5 months apart

826
Q

Asthma classification. Intermittent with infrequent flare ups?

A

no symptoms between attacks

attacks >1.5 months apart

827
Q

Asthma classification. Persistent - mild?

A

persistent = weekly symptoms or x2 nights/month

MILD =
FEV1>80%
Daytime symptoms more than once/week

828
Q

Asthma classification. Persistent - moderate?

A

persistent = weekly symptoms or x2 nights/month

MODERATE =
FEV1>61-80%
Night symptoms more than once/week

829
Q

Asthma classification. Persistent - severe?

A

persistent = weekly symptoms or x2 nights/month

SEVERE =
FEV1>60%
Continuous day/night symptoms

830
Q

Pulsus paradoxus meaning?

A

decreased BP and pulse amplitude during inspiration

Sign of asthma

831
Q

Second line testing for asthma?

A

Challenge testing (bronchial provocation) (metacholine; muscarinic agonist measuring hyper-responsiveness of asthma)

832
Q

Phaeochromocytoma triad

A

Headache, palpitations and sweating with fever

833
Q

How many days of pred for asthma flare?

A

3 days (given for moderate episode or worse)

834
Q

3 history of poor asthma/COPD control

A
  1. Night symptoms
  2. > 2 days/week daytime symptoms or SABA use
  3. Limitation of activity or sleep
835
Q

When can you step down asthma inhalers?

A

Well controlled for 6 months

Review in 1 month

836
Q

ICS example and dose

A

fluticasone propionate - 1 puff bd

Kids - 50mcg
Adults - 125mcg

837
Q

ICS/LABA example and dose

A

fluticasone propionate 50mcg (children), 125mcg (adults) +
salmeterol 25mcg

1 puff bd

838
Q

Montelukast dose

A

2-5 years old: 4mg daily

>6 years old: 5mg daily

839
Q

Symbicort age?

A

> 12yo

840
Q

Asthma step up after low dose ICS

A

Under 12, increase to high dose ICS

Over 12, add LABA to low dose ICS

841
Q

Gold standard for Ix bronchiectasis?

A

HRCT

842
Q

Bronchiectasis exacerbation Rx?

A
  1. Amoxicillin 1g tds for 14 days

2. Doxycycline 100mg bd for 14 days

843
Q

What demographic should COPD be considered in?

A

> 35yo + smoker/dust/gas/fumes

844
Q

COPD CXR signs (2)

A

(Hyper-inflated lung fields)

  • More than 6 anterior or 10 posterior ribs at mid clavicular line
  • Flattened diaphragm
845
Q

COPD exacerbations Mx steps

A

Worsening COPD (cough/sputum) = More SABA (4-8 puffs every 3-4 hours)

Infection (fever, sputum colour/volume) = Pred 50mg 5 days AND
Amoxicillin 500mg tds or doxy 100mg daily for 5 days

846
Q

COPD step up approach

A
  1. SABA or SAMA
  2. Add LABA or LAMA
  3. Add ICS
847
Q

After initiating new inhaler for COPD, when to reassess?

A

6 weeks

848
Q

When to repeat spirometry in COPD patients?

A

Every 2 years or if symptoms worsen

849
Q

What type of inheritance pattern is cystic fibrosis?

A

Autosomal recessive

850
Q

Investigation for cystic fibrosis?

A

Sweat test

851
Q

Complications of cystic fibrosis? (4)

A

Infertility
Steatorrhoea
DM
Recurrent respiratory infections

852
Q

Which CCB and ABx is linked with pulmonary fibrosis (2)?

A

Amiodarone and Nitrofurantoin

853
Q

Granulomatous lung disease types (2)

A

Sarcoidosis/Hypersensitive pneumonitis

854
Q

Which interstitial lung disease is NOT linked with smoking?

A

Sarcoidosis

855
Q

Pancoast tumour triad?

A

Shoulder pain
C8-T2 radicular pain
Horner syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis)

856
Q

Common CI to home O2 supplementation?

A

Smoker in last 6 weeks

857
Q

Neck size thresholds for OSA RF

A

Male - 43cm

Female - 41cm

858
Q

Two questionnaire’s for OSA?

A

Epworth Sleepiness Scale

Stop BANG questionnaire

859
Q

Croup severe Rx (2)

A 
nebulised adrenaline
oral dexamethasone (0.6mg/kg) OR 2mg/kg pred and 1mg/kg next day
860
Q

Croup mild Rx

A

1mg/kg prednisolone (max 50mg) oral stat, then wait for 30 mins to check improvement

861
Q

When to give ABx for uncomplicated diverticulitis? (3)

A
  • Failure to improve in 72 hrs
  • R) sided
  • Immune compromised
862
Q

CT shows uncomplicated diverticulitis. 4 reasons to send them anyway?

A
  • Unable to tolerate oral intake
  • Fever >39
  • Sepsis
  • Severe pain/peritonitis
863
Q

What is considered high falls?

A

2+ falls in last 12 months

864
Q

Falls screening questions? (3)

A
  1. Are you presenting following a fall?
  2. 2+ falls in last 12 months?
  3. Are you having difficulty with balance
865
Q

3 secondary conditions to lichen sclerosus vulvo-vaginal

A

Vulval cancer
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Pernicious anaemia
Vitiligo

866
Q

Driving reviews for OSA?

A

COMMERICAL - Annual review with sleep physician

867
Q

Investigations for pertussis and time frame? (2)

A

Pertussis serology - 4 weeks +

Nasopharyngeal swab - pertussis PCR - <3 weeks

868
Q

Pertussis isolation period

A

5 days

869
Q

Pertussis household contacts. Who needs acute Rx?

A

Treat member if in contact with childcare/<6mo/pregnancy/unimmunised

870
Q

Pertussis household contacts. Who needs vaccination?

A

All close contacts who have not had booster within 10 years

871
Q

Pertussis Rx (1)

A

ONLY if infection less than 3 weeks symptomatic

  1. Azithromycin 5 days - 500mg 1st day, then 250mg daily for 4 days
    - Child = 10mg/kg for 5 days
872
Q

Pleural Effusion - transudative causes (3)

A

Heart Failure
Liver Failure
Kidney failure (nephrotic syndrome)
Hypothyroidism

873
Q

Pleural Effusion - exudative causes (3)

A

Infection - pneumonia
Malignancy - Lung
Connective tissue disorder - SLE
Sarcoidosis

874
Q

Atypical pneumonia symptoms

A

Dry cough, low grade fever, body aches

Patchy bilateral infiltrates

875
Q

Typical pneumonia Rx?

A
  1. Amoxicillin 1g tds for 5-7 days (pneumonia = double dose of amoxi)
876
Q

Atypical pneumonia Rx?

A

Doxycycline 100mg bd for 5-7 days

877
Q

Legionella Pneumonia Rx?

A

Azithromycin 500mg daily for 3-7 days

878
Q

Pneumocystis Jirovecii Rx?

A
  1. Trimethoprim + Sulfamethoxazole 480/2400mg tds for 21 days
879
Q

Typical pneumonia pathogens (3)

A
  • Strep pneuominae
  • Haemophillus Influenzae
  • Legionella
880
Q

Air-conditioning spreading pneumonia? Pathogen?

A

Legionella

881
Q

How to diagnose Legionella pneumonia

A

Urine Ag or swab/sputum PCR

882
Q

Atypical pneumonia pathogens (3)

A
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Chlamydia pneumoniae
  • TB
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii
  • Viral
883
Q

Spontaneous pneumothorax acute Mx (2)

A

Observe for 4 hours
If hemodynamically stable, can D/C with analgesia

Normally resolves in 24-48 hours

884
Q

Spontaneous pneumothorax monitoring (2)

A

2 weekly CXR’s until cleared

If not resolving by 8 weeks, refer to resp

885
Q

Radiation pneumonitis Rx (1)

A

Prednisolone 40mg daily for 2 weeks then wean over 6 weeks

886
Q

How to approach PE suspicion?

A

Well’s score high -> CPTA

Well’s score low -> PERC rule

887
Q

ECG findings for PE?

A

Deep S wave in Lead I, deep Q wave in Lead III and inverted T wave in Lead III

888
Q

Recommendation of gap between pregnancies?

A

2 year gap (<12 months = complications)

889
Q

When to take folic acid in pregnancy

A

1 month prior to conception, continue until end of 1st trimester

890
Q

When to take iodine in pregnancy?

A

As soon as trying + through to breastfeeding

891
Q

When to do DTP vaccine in pregnancy?

A

20-32 weeks, at least 3 weeks before birth

892
Q

When to do OGTT in pregnancy?

A

24-28 weeks

893
Q

When to give anti-D in pregnancy and dose?

A

If bleed 12+ weeks and Rh -ve,

650IU anti-D injection within 72 hours

894
Q

Under 35yo with breast changes. Ix?

A

Ultrasound +/- mammography

895
Q

Over 35yo with breast changes. Ix?

A

Ultrasound + mammography (unless pregnancy/lactating, only for suss results or high clinical suspicion)

896
Q

Suspicious breast change. Ix?

A

Ultrasound + mammography AND refer to breast surgeon regardless of result

897
Q

When to refer fibroadenoma to surgeon? (2)

A

> 3 cm or persistent pain

898
Q

Normal risk breast ca screening

A

50-74
Repeat every 2 years
If FHx, every 1-2 years

899
Q

Physiological nipple discharge features (3)

A
  1. Bilateral
  2. Milky/yellow
  3. On expressing
900
Q

PERC rule positive

A
  1. Oestrogen use
901
Q

Breast thrush Mx (non Rx) (3)

A
  • Sterilise dummy every day
  • Keep nipple dry
  • Wash hands frequently
902
Q

Galactocele Mx

A
  • If asymptomatic + not infected, Reassure.

Aspiration if persisting after breast feeding has ceased

903
Q

Insufficient breast milk supply signs? (2)

A
  1. Baby demanding frequent feeds: continually suck hand
  2. Less than 3 wet nappies/24 hours
  3. Weight gain should be ~25g per day or a minimum of 150g per week
904
Q

Insufficient breast milk Mx (3)

A

Breastfeed frequently
Offer each breast twice
Express after feeds

905
Q

Insufficient breast milk 2 Rx options

A
  1. Domperidone 10mg tds

2. Metoclopramide 10mg tds

906
Q

Mastitis Rx

A
  1. Flucloxacillin 500mg QID for 5-10 days

Allergy: cephalexin 500mg QID 5-10 days

907
Q

Suppression of lactation Rx (1)

A

Cabergoline 1mg stat dose

908
Q

Post-menopausal bleeding Ix (3)

A
  1. TV US including endometrial thickness (<4mm = normal)
  2. Co-test
  3. STI screen
909
Q

Who needs chickenpox Rx?

A

Adults, children <28 days, eczema, immunocompromised

910
Q

Primary amenorrhoea definitions (3)

A
  1. Not had menarche by 15yo
  2. Not had menarche and >3yrs post thelarche
  3. Not had menarche by 13yo with no sexual development
911
Q

Secondary amenorrhoea definition

A

no menstruation for 3 months (regular) 6 months (irregular) in a woman previously menstruating

912
Q

Missed pill and less than 7 active pills taken?

A

Usual advice and

Consider emergency contraception if it has occurred in last 5 days

913
Q

Missed pill and less than 7 active pills left?

A

Skip inactive pills and go straight to active pills in next pack

914
Q

3 Emergency contraceptions, dose and time frame

A
  1. Levonorgestrel 1.5mg <3days
  2. Ulipristal acetate 30mg <5 days
  3. Copper IUD <5 days
915
Q

UPA (emergency contraception) special considerations (breastfeeding and COCP)?

A

Wait 5 days before COCP start

Express and discard milk for 1 week

916
Q

SE of emergency contraception (3)

A

Nausea
Breast tenderness
Spotting

917
Q

Increased risks of COCP (4)

A

VTE
Stroke/MI
Gall bladder disease
Cervical cancer

918
Q

2 ways of starting COCP

A
  1. Active pills on 1st day of period (no contraception needed)
  2. Quick start, condom 7 days, pregnancy test in 4 weeks
919
Q

NuvaRing action

A
  • Insert ring and keep in for 3 weeks then remove for withdrawal bleed
920
Q

Contraindications to POP (1)

A

Breast cancer in last 5 years

921
Q

How quick does POP start to work?

A

2 days, if missed pill, need condoms for 2 days as well

922
Q

Window for POP?

A

3 hours

923
Q

How long does implanon take to work?

A

7 days

924
Q

2 ways of starting Implanon

A
  1. Inserted 1st day of period (no contraception needed)

2. Quick start, condom 7 days, pregnancy test now and in 4 weeks

925
Q

Implanon duration of effectiveness?

A

3 years

926
Q

Depot Provera generic name

A

Medroxyprogesterone acetate

927
Q

Depot Provera window of dosing

A

12 weeks (>14 weeks is delayed)

928
Q

How long is delay in fertility of depot provera?

A

Up to 1 year

929
Q

Apart from pregnancy, what condition to check before Mirena insertion?

A

Chlamydia screen

930
Q

When to insert IUD?

A

1-5 days of period

931
Q

When to review IUD after insertion

A

4 weeks for position and repeat pregnancy

932
Q

When to use endocervical brush as well as cervical sampler? (2)

A

Non-visible transformation zone (post-menopause or post LLETZ)

933
Q

Cervical ca screening routine age and frequency

A

25-74yo 5 yearly

Immunodeficiency = 3 yearly

934
Q

Early sex <14yo before HPV vaccination, when to test CST?

A

Single HPV test between 20-24yo, then routine

935
Q

If inadequate sample on HPV test?

A

Recollect in 6-12 weeks

936
Q

When do you only need 2 abnormal HPV results before referral for colposcopy? (3)

A

○ Only 2 strikes if:
□ 50+yo
□ ATSI
- Overdue for screening by 2+ years

937
Q

After colposcopy/high risk patient, when can they return to normal screening?

A
  • TWO normal co-tests before they can go back to normal screening
938
Q

Who is eligible for self collection CST? (2)

A

30yo + either

> 2 years since last test or never been tested

939
Q

Immune deficient + HPV detected, but not 16/18. Mx?

A

Colposcopy (any HPV in immune-deficient = colp)

940
Q

Hysterectomy CST screening?

A
  1. None if benign condition
  2. 2x annual co-test until 2 negative results
  3. Subtotal (cervix still present) - routine
941
Q

Pain on sexual entry, young female?

A

Vaginismus (pelvic floor spasm)

942
Q

Pain on sexual entry, burning on light touch

A

Vulvodynia

943
Q

When to do early OGTT for high risk pt?

A

16 weeks

944
Q

Postpartum GDM monitoring? (2)

A

OGTT 12 weeks post delivery

FBGL + HbA1c 3 yearly thereafter

945
Q

Glycaemic targets for GDM?

Fasting, 1 hour post, 2 hours post

A
  • FBGL <5
  • 1 hour after meals <7.4
    2 hours after meals <6.7
946
Q

Subfertility definition?

A

> 12 months if <35yo

>6 months if >35yo

947
Q

Sub-fertility lifestyle advice (3)

A
  1. Smoking cessation
  2. Weight loss 5-10% if BMI >30
  3. Ovulation awareness + intercourse at least 3 times/week
948
Q

Premature menopause age?

A

<40yo

949
Q

What age can you use COCP/vaginal ring until with menopause?

A

50yo

950
Q

When has someone hit menopause?

A

> 12 months from LMP (but 2 years if <50yo)

951
Q

How long is contraception needed in menopause

A

12 months after final period for >50yo

24 months after final period for <50yo

952
Q

How to Dx premature menopause? (2)

A
  1. FSH >25IU on two occasions at least 1 month apart
    AND
  2. Amenorrhoea 6 months
953
Q

HRT risk reductions (3)

A
  1. Osteoporosis risk reduction
  2. Colorectal cancer risk reduction
  3. Diabetes risk reduction
954
Q

Tibolone indication

A

Menopause only

955
Q

Tibolone risk difference to combined HRT?

A

No VTE risk with tibolone

956
Q

Atrophic vaginitis Rx (1)

A

Estriol 1mg/g cream - one applicatorful intravaginally nocte for 2 weeks, then reduce to t

957
Q

SNRI name and dose for menopause?

A

Venlafaxine 37.5mg daily

958
Q

What size fibroids do we refer for?

A

3+cm

959
Q

What percentage of pregnancies miscarry?

A

15%

960
Q

CAP children If penicillin hypersensitivity or not improving after 48 hrs?

A

Azithromycin 10mg/kg or clarithro or doxy

cefuroxime for non-severe

961
Q

If immediate penicillin allergy, what do you want to avoid?

A

anything ending in cilin, OR anything starting with cef (cephalosporins)

962
Q

If mild penicillin allergy - e.g rash, what do you give usually?

A

Cephalosporins (cef—)

963
Q

Osgood Schlatter Mx (1)

A

Quadriceps strengthening + modified activities

964
Q

Timing between COVID vaccine and influenza vaccine?

A

7 days

965
Q

What age to consider LABA addition to ICS (instead of high dose)

A

6yo+

966
Q

Neonatal hydrocele, when to refer?

A

12 months if not resolved

967
Q

What to do if one parent doesn’t want vaccination?

A

Do not give, need to discuss with both parents

968
Q

What temp to not give vaccine?

A

> 38.5

969
Q

Dose of anti D to give to women >10 weeks

A

250IU

970
Q

What size miscarriage POC needs surgical Mx?

A

> 5cm

971
Q

Follow up for expectant miscarriage Mx? (2)

A

TV US after TWO week

HCG every second day -> weekly

972
Q

Follow up for medical miscarriage Mx? (2)

A

TV US after ONE week

HCG every second day -> weekly

973
Q

When is expectant miscarriage Mx considered failed

A

3 weeks

974
Q

How long to try again for pregnancy after miscarriage?

A

2 months/cycles

975
Q

PCOS Dx?

A

2 of 3

  1. Irregular cycles
  2. Clinical/serological hyperandrogenism
  3. > 12 cysts
976
Q

What sign on FWT indicates contamination?

A

Epithelial cells

977
Q

UTI Rx children (1)

A

Trimethoprim-sulfmethoxole 4+20mg/kg (160/800 max) bd for 3 days

978
Q

What do if pregnancy exposed to VZV?

A

If had VZV, nil concern.

If unsure, check serology before giving varicella immunoglobulin

979
Q

What classifies as Sig exposure to VZV? (2)

A

Face to face for more than 5 mins

Same household

980
Q

When is chickenpox infectious

A

2 days before rash comes until crusted

981
Q

What is the name of dislocated radius and fractured ulnar?

A

Monteggia fracture-dislocation
Rx = reduction
Nerve injury = radial nerve

982
Q

What is a buckle fracture?

A

Incomplete fracture -> bulging or cortex but no radiolucency

983
Q

Buckle fracture of distal radius Mx?

A

Below elbow removeable backslab/splint 3 weeks (buckle heals well because incomplete fracture)

984
Q

Complete fracture of distal radius Mx?

A

Below elbow cast for 6 weeks + fracture clinic in 7 days

because it is unstable and can move

985
Q

How long limping child do you get worried and XR?

A

> 7 days

986
Q

When can boys retract foreskin?

A

17yo

987
Q

How long is pertussis infectious (if not treated?

A

3 weeks

988
Q

How long is pertussis infectious (if treated)

A

5 days (same duration as ABx)

989
Q

What is classified as sig exposure to pertussis

A

within 1m for 1 hour

990
Q

Otherwise intelligent and well child with generalised clumsiness?

A

Dyspraxia/Apraxia or Developmental coordination delay

991
Q

Dyslexia meaning?

A

Poor reading and spelling

992
Q

Diagnostic criteria for ITP?

A

Isolated low platelets

993
Q

HSP triad?

A

arthralgia, rash and abdo pain

994
Q

HSP investigations?

A

Urinalysis - protein, otherwise clinical diagnosis. Normal bleeding time, platelets and coags

995
Q

Night terror characteriristics

A

Glassy open eyes, unable to recognise/be comforted

996
Q

PID Rx

A

Ceftriaxone 500mg + metronidazole 400mg bd + doxy 100mg bd 14 days (double chlamydia duration)

997
Q

When to resume intercourse post birth?

A

1.5 months after NVB, 3 months if tear/c-section

998
Q

Endometritis Rx?

A 
Localised = Augmentin DF bd for 7 days
Systemic = urgent ED for IV ABx
999
Q

Pre-eclampsia Dx?

A

> 20 weeks gestation

HTN + proteinuria OR HTN with end-organ dysfunctio

1000
Q

Pre-eclampsia Mx?

A

Urgent hospital transfer

1001
Q

Gestational HTN Dx?

A

> 20 weeks, SBP >140/90 without signs of pre-eclampsia

1002
Q

Rx for HTN in pregnancy? (3)

A

Labetalol (CI asthma), methyldopa (avoid in depression), nifedipine

1003
Q

Which asthma preventer is best in pregnancy

A

Budesonide

1004
Q

How long to avoid pregnancy after live vaccine?

A

28 days

1005
Q

Nausea/vomiting in pregnancy? Rx (1)

A

Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) 25mg PO tds 1st line

1006
Q

GORD Rx options in pregnancy? (2)

A
  1. Mylanta PRN

2nd line - H2 receptor antagonist - ranitidine/famotidine

1007
Q

Implantation bleeding timeframe?

A

First 2 weeks

1008
Q

Medical termination time frame?

A

9 weeks

1009
Q

Surgical termination time frame?

A

24 weeks

1010
Q

Two medications for medical termination?

A

Mifepristone and misoprostol

1011
Q

Vaginal candidiasis Rx?

A

Clotrimazole 1% PV nocte for 6 nights

1012
Q

Tinea Cruris Rx?

A

terbinafine 1% top BD for 7-14 days

1013
Q

How to diagnose lichen sclerosus vulvovaginal?

A

Punch biopsy

1014
Q

Lichen sclerosus Mx? (3)

A

Refer to gynae
Strong steroid (diprosone OV) for 6 months - derm
Follow up every 6 months for vulval cancer checking

1015
Q

Lichen planus difference to lichen scelrosus - vulvovaginal?

A

Planus = pain, sclerosus = itch

1016
Q

Bacterial vaginosis Rx?

A

metronidazole 400mg BD for 7 days

1017
Q

Urethral caruncle Rx?

A

Topical oestrogen

1018
Q

Head lice Rx?

A

1% permethrin cream scalp. Leave for 10 mins and then repeat next week

Or maldison topically

WET COMBING

1019
Q

Private license driving requirements?

A

At least one eye 6/12

1020
Q

Commercial license driving requirements?

A

Better eye at least 6/9

Worse eye at least 6/18

1021
Q

Chickenpox Rx - children and indication

A

Children with immunocompromise/eczema or <28 days

- aciclovir 20 mg/kg up to 800 mg orally, 5 times daily for 7 days

1022
Q

Champix - how to start?

A

Start 1/52 before quit date
OR
Continue smoking, but stop smoking after day 8 of champix

1023
Q

Plantar fasciitis Mx? (3)

A

Get arch supported shoes
Exercise to stretch calf muscle
Ice

1024
Q

Posterior blepharitis Mx?

A

Systemic antibiotics used (particularly if associated with rosacea) Doxycycline 100mg daily

1025
Q

When is denosumab dose delayed?

A

> 4 weeks

1026
Q

Cluster headache Rx (1)

A

Verapamil

1027
Q

Elevated, firm, growing skin lesion. Dx?

A

Nodular melanoma

1028
Q

Diameter cut off for melanoma concern?

A

6mm

1029
Q

Tender and ulcerated new skin lesion

A

SCC

1030
Q

Painful central vision loss in one eye?

A

Optic neuritis

1031
Q

lower EYELID non-healing growth?

A

BCC

1032
Q

lower LIP non-healing growth?

A

SCC

1033
Q

Yellow spot on sclera?

A

Pinguecula

1034
Q

Which side does pterygium affect?

A

Medial canthus only

1035
Q

Difference between scleritis and anterior uveitis?

A

Scleritis = nil vision change

1036
Q

HSV keratitis Mx (2)

A

Urgent ophthal review + start aciclovir 3% drops 5 times day for 2 weeks

1037
Q

standard dose PPI

A

Esomeprazole 20mg or pantoprazole 40mg

1038
Q

Photokeratitis Rx? (2)

A

AKA flash burn
Oral analgesia
chloramphenicol drops

1039
Q

3 NON-idiopathic causes if subconjunctival haemorrhage?

A
  • HTN
  • DM
  • Coagulopathy/Trauma
1040
Q

Sudden onset painless loss of vision, flashes and floaters. Curtain closing over

A

Retinal detachment

1041
Q

Night blindness in child?

A

Retinitis pigmentosa

1042
Q

Sixth cranial nerve?

A

Abducens

1043
Q

Anterior uveitis Mx

A

Urgent referral 24 hours to ophthal

1044
Q

Viral keratitis Mx

A

Urgent referral 24 hours to ophthal

1045
Q

What condition is linked with marginal keratitis?

A

Rosacea

1046
Q

Marginal keratitis Mx (3)

A

Treatment is same as blepharitis (3)

- Lid massage
- Warm compress
    - Scrub any crusting off
1047
Q

Bacterial keratitis Rx? (1)

A

Ciprofloxacin 0.3% eye drops

1048
Q

Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus Rx?

A

Valaciclovir 1g tds for 7 days

1049
Q

Infected tear duct Dx?

A

Dacrocystitis

1050
Q

Dacrocystitis Mx (3)

A

Treatment is same as blepharitis (3)

- Lid massage
- Warm compress
    - Scrub any crusting off
1051
Q

Gonococcal conjunctivitis Rx? (1)

A

Ceftriaxone 1g IM stat and Azithro 1g oral stat

1052
Q

Periorbital cellulitis Mx? (2)

A
  • Flucloxacillin 500mg QID for 7 days

- Review in 48 hrs, if not improving, IV therapy needed

1053
Q

How to tell if raised ALP is due to bone?

A

Normal GGT

1054
Q

Investigations to assess overal liver function? (2)

A 
Serum albumin (raised = chronic cause)
INR
1055
Q

Alcholic liver disease classic finding`

A

AST:ALT >2

1056
Q

Multiple melanoma looking spots, all looking similar. dx?

A

Atypical naevus

1057
Q

Behcet’s disease triad

A

Mouth ulcer, genital ulcer, eye problems

1058
Q

Angular stomatitis Rx?

A

vaseline OR (fungal) clotrimazole cream 1% bd for 2 weeks

1059
Q

Joint pain, hearing loss, headache

A

Paget’s disease

1060
Q

Serology for Paget’s Disease (1)

A

ALP

1061
Q

Rx for Paget’s Disease (1)

A

Bisphosphonates

1062
Q

Eczema herpeticum Rx? (1)

A

Antiviral

1063
Q

Herpetic whitlow Rx (1)

A

Antivirals

1064
Q

Dermatitis Herpetiformis Rx (1)

A

Dapsone oral (specialists) and avoid gluten

1065
Q

Dermatitis Herpetiformis Ix (1)

A

Punch biopsy

1066
Q

Dermatitis Herpetiformis distribution (4)

A

Back, knees, bum, elbows

1067
Q

What to screen 1st degree relatives of haemochromatosis with?

A

HFE gene mutation and iron studies

1068
Q

Haemachromatosis genotypes? (2)

A

C282Y and H63D

Kids need testing =
Homozygous C282Y OR
Heterozygous combined C282Y/H63D

1069
Q

Scalp seborrhoeic dermatitis Rx? (2) ADULT

A

Selenium sulphide/anti-fungal shampoo + strong steroid

1070
Q

Body seborrhoeic dermatitis Rx? (2) ADULT

A

Hydrocortisone 1% + clotrimazole 1% daily until skin clear

1071
Q

Flushing Rx (1)

A
  1. propanolol 10mg bd

2. clonidine

1072
Q

Erysipelas Rx

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin 500mg QID for 5 days

1073
Q

What condition is linked with multiple granuloma annulare?

A

T2DM

1074
Q

PTSD, acute stress disorder classic features

A

Intrusive/negative thoughts of previous trauma that causes avoidance of stimuli

1075
Q

Adjustment disorder Mx? (2)

A
  1. Psychoeducation, relaxation, stress Mx

2. Clonazepam, Diazepam, Lorazepam

1076
Q

What herbal Rx with SSRI -> serotonin syndrome?

A

St John’s Wort

1077
Q

Chronic Fatigue Syndrome Timeframe?

A

> 6 months

1078
Q

Performance anxiety Mx (2)

A
  1. CBT/Psychotherapy

2. Propanolol 10mg bd

1079
Q

Which SSRI to avoid in pregnancy?

A

Paroxetine

1080
Q

Which SSRI to avoid in breastfeeding?

A

Fluoxetine

1081
Q

Excessive worry about a little medical condition?

A

Somatic symptom disorder

1082
Q

What two antipsychotics can cause inc prolactin and galactorrhoea?

A

Risperidone and paliperidone

1083
Q

Reversing parkinsonism from antipsychotic? Rx(1)

A

benzatropine

1084
Q

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome Rx? (1)

A

Bromocriptine

1085
Q

Cannabis overdose Rx?

A

Relaxation +/- Benzodiazepine

1086
Q

Methamphetamine overdose Rx?

A

Benzodiazepine

1087
Q

Opioid overdose Rx?

A

Naloxone

1088
Q

What type of leg ulcers are linked with smoking

A

Arterial

1089
Q

Elevated ABI, leg ulcer?

A

Venous

1090
Q

Decreased ABI, leg ulcer?

A

Arterial

1091
Q

Hypergranulation tissue Rx?

A

Silver nitrate

1092
Q

Age to consider secondary HTN?

A

<30yo

1093
Q

Box jellyfish Mx? (2)

A

Remove tentacles using seawater

Apply vinegar to area

1094
Q

How to remove jellyfish tentacles? (1)

A

Using seawater

1095
Q

Bluebottle jellyfish Mx?

A

Remove tentacles using seawater

Hot water immersion of limb

1096
Q

Snake Bite Mx? (2)

A 
Immobilise limb
Pressure bandage
Call ambulance
Don't wash
Contact poisons hotline if in hospital
1097
Q

2 deadliest snake bites?

A

tiger snake

brown snake

1098
Q

2 deadliest SPIDER bites?

A

Funnel web

Red back spider (not so bad)

1099
Q

Red back spider bite Mx? (2)

A

Analgesia (pain can last for 5 days)
Tetanus

DO not pressure bandage

1100
Q

Funnel web spider bite Mx? (3)

A

transfer to hospital
Pressure bandage
Contact poisons hotline for antivenom direction
tetanus

1101
Q

1st line Rx for mild dementia (alzheimer’s and lewy body) (2)

A
  1. Donepezil OR Galantamine OR rivastigmine
1102
Q

1st line Rx for moderate dementia?

A
  1. Memantine
1103
Q

4 types of dementia?

A

Alzheimer’s
Vascular
Frontotemporal
Lewy Body

1104
Q

If bite infection and allergic to penicillin? Rx?

A

Metronidazole and Doxycycline

1105
Q

Weber A ankle fracture Mx?

A

WBAT in walking boot

1106
Q

Sustained erectile dysfunction terminology?

A

Priapism

1107
Q

Priapism home Mx? (2)

A

Cold shower on area

Gentle jog around house

1108
Q

Priapism ED dept Mx? (3)

A

Intracavernous phenylephrine injection
Corporal aspiration of bld
Request urology input

1109
Q

2 complications of priapism?

A

Disfigurement

Ongoing erectile dysfunction

1110
Q

Mx of viral acute rhinosinusitis (3)

A
  1. Nasal cortisone spray
  2. Nasal saline irrigation
  3. Paracetamol 1g QID PRN
1111
Q

Acute bacterial rhinosinusitis but penicillin allergy Rx?

A

Cefuroxime 500mg bd OR Doxy 100mg bd

5 days

1112
Q

Single Ix needed to diagnose HSP?

A

Urinalysis - for haematuria/proteinuria

1113
Q

Suspected menigococcal immediate Rx? (1)

A

2.4g benzylpenicillin IM
OR
2g ceftriazone IM

1114
Q

Weakness, joint pain and rash around eyes/swollen? Dx?

A

Dermatomyositis/Polymyositis

1115
Q

Polymyositis/Dermatomyositis Mx?

A

Refer to derm urgently as could be malignant cause

1116
Q

Smelly foot in pitted keratolysis cause?

A

Sulfur compounds

1117
Q

Pitted keratolysis Rx?

A

Topical clindamycin 1% 10 days

Caused by moisture + bacterial growth

1118
Q

Corn Mx? (2)

A

Debulk using scalpel

Salicylic acid plaster

1119
Q

Difference between corn and wart in appearance?

A

Thrombosed capillaries present when shaving down

1120
Q

Milker’s nodule pathogen

A

Parapox virus (PAR for FARmer)

1121
Q

Orf pathogen

A

Also parapox virus (PAR for FARmer), but comes from sheep and goats

1122
Q

Milker’s nodule and orf Rx?

A

Nothing, reassure

1123
Q

Erythema multiforme Rx?

A

Nothing, unless itchy can use CSC

1124
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum - STI association?

A

Chlamydia. Also causes proctitis (anal pain and discharge)

Doxy 100mg bd for 21 days

1125
Q

Mycoplasma genitalium Rx?

A

Doxycycline 100mg bd 7 days, then Azithromycin 1 g immediately then 500 mg daily for 3 days (total 2.5 g)

1126
Q

Which STI should you high vaginal swab instead of endocervical?

A

Trichomonas

1127
Q

Chancroid vs chancre difference

A

Chancroid = painful

1128
Q

Chancroid cause?

A

haemophilus ducreyi

1129
Q

Syphillis contact tracing

A

3 months (6 if secondary)

1130
Q

Syphillis Rx?

A

Benzathine benzylpenicillin 2.4 million units IM stat

1131
Q

Nebulised salbutamol dose

A

5mg nebules (2x in over 6yo) [10mg in adult]

1132
Q

Nebulised ipatropium dose?

A

250mcg (2x in over 6yo) [500mcg adult]

1133
Q

IV hydrocort dose for asthma?

A

100mg

1134
Q

IV mg sulfate dose for asthma?

A

10mmol

1135
Q

Ix for foreign body

A

Inspiratory and expiratory CXR

1136
Q

Pernicious anaemia diagnosis with Ix

A

anti parietal cell antibody

anti intrinsic factor antibody

1137
Q

IBS Rx (2)

A

Hyoscine butlbromide 20mg QID PRN

Fluoxetine 20mg daily/Amitriptylline 10mg daily

1138
Q

Hyponatraemia + Pneumonia cause?

A

Legionella

1139
Q

3 non-pharm Mx of SVT?

A

Valsalva
Cold water to face
Unilateral carotid sinus massage

1140
Q

Patient amenorrhoeic on implanon/IUD. Dx menopause?

A

x2 FSH 6 weeks apart. >30

1141
Q

What age should bedwetting start treatment for?

A

6 years +

1142
Q

Conduct order adult version?

A

Antisocial personality disorder

1143
Q

Metatarsal shaft fracture Mx?

A 
1st = cast/ortho
2nd-5th = CAM boot, partial WB 6 weeks
1144
Q

When to refer paediatric stuttering?

A

If it has been going on for more than 12 months

1145
Q

When should TB testing be repeated if high suspicion?

A

8 weeks if initial test was negative

1146
Q

What age do you refer to colp straight away for any abnormal HPV?

A

70-74

1147
Q

When should UTI kids have follow up renal USS? (3)

A

Boys <3 months
Seriously unwell
Renal impairment

1148
Q

What ages to give zoster immunoglobulin for kids at home?

A

<1 month only

1149
Q

Which family contacts also need pertussis Rx?

A

Jobs/Living with exposure <6 months old

Pregnancy

1150
Q

When to incise thrombosed haemorrhoids?

A

Within 72 hours of symptoms, otherwise sitz bath

1151
Q

Minimum isolation for chickenpox?

A

5 days

1152
Q

Difference between NAFLD and NASH monitoring?

A 
NAFLD = 6 monthly LFT's
NASH = 6 monthly liver USS and AFP
1153
Q

Antidepressant during breastfeeding?

A

Sertraline

1154
Q

Pharyngeal gonorrhoea Rx?

A

ceftriaxone 500mg IM and TWO GRAMS azithromycin stat

1155
Q

What antipsychotics to avoid in Parkinson’s

A

Risperidone, haloperidol and olanzapine

1156
Q

When do you need to give tetanus toxoid vaccine?

A

> 5 years since last shot + dirty/major wound

1157
Q

What time frame to treat shingles?

A

<72 hours onset

1158
Q

MSM how often to check for STI’s

A

3 monthly unless monomagous relationship (12)

1159
Q

Myasthenia Gravis Ix

A

Acetylcholine antibody

1160
Q

Headache worse when standing, better on lying?

A

Post-lumbar headache

1161
Q

Post-lumbar headache Mx? (2)

A

Analgesia
Resolves in 24 hours
Fluids

1162
Q

What medications increase risk of benign intracranial HTN?

A

Doxycycline

1163
Q

Benign intracranial hypertension Mx? (2)

A

Urgent referral to neuro

Stop tetracycline/doxycycline

1164
Q

3 causes of erythema multiforme

A

HSV
Medications - amoxicillin
Malignancy - Hodgkin’s lymphoma
SLE

1165
Q

Q fever Ix?

A

Coxiella burnetti PCR
OR
Antibody levels 2-3 weeks later

Q fever BURNS

1166
Q

When to review child with AOM?

A

48-72 hrs

Either commence Amoxi if not improving, or if already on, step up to Aug DF

1167
Q

Waxing + waning fever , returned traveller

A

Malaria

Thick and thin, waxing and waning = malaria “up and down”

1168
Q

Step-ladder fever. Dx?

A

Typhoid

“AVOID walking under ladders, tyPHOID”

1169
Q

How to Dx typhoid

A

Stool culture

ladder and stool are similar to get up

1170
Q

Salmon coloured macules , returned traveller

A

Typhoid

Salmon coloured ladder

1171
Q

Eschar in returned traveller

A

Typhus

1172
Q

Hydrophobia, hyperactivity in returned traveller

A

Rabies

animals don’t like water

1173
Q

Gastrocnemius tear Rx?

A

Firm elastic bandage

1174
Q

Post surgical disproportionate pain?

A

Complex regional pain syndrome

1175
Q

4 underlying causes of bursitis?

A 
infection
trauma repeated
Overuse
Pressure
arthritis (OA,gout,RA)
1176
Q

3 management options bursitis

A

needle aspiration
NSAID’s
compression

1177
Q

Raynaud’s Rx?

A

amlodipine 5mg

1178
Q

Raynaud’s Rx to avoid?

A

beta blockers

1179
Q

erythromelalgia Rx?

A

aspirin

1180
Q

4 precautions to NSAID’s

A 
active peptic ulcer disease/GI bleeding
eGFR <30
liver cirrhosis
established CVD (stroke/AMI)
planning pregnancy/pregnancy
1181
Q

Voltage criteria for LVH?

A

V3 + V5 = more than 7 squares

1182
Q

Mod risk CVD calc. When to start Rx?

A

ATSI
Family premature CVD
BP >160

Otherwise review in 3-6 months, if still mod, start Rx

1183
Q

Low risk CVD calc. When to start Rx?

A

BP >160

Otherwise keep reviewing every 2 months

1184
Q

How much LFT derangement until reducing statin?

A

> 3x UNL

1185
Q

What two conditions require lower pred dose for flares?

A 
Gout = 15-30mg/day
PMR = 15mg/day - 1 month
1186
Q

Symptoms for carcinoid syndrome? (4)

A

Flushing, diarrhoea, valvular heart disease, wheezing

1187
Q

What situations to treat subclinical hypothyroidism immediately? (2)

A

TSH >10

Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibody positive

1188
Q

What medication can cause hyper/hypothyroidism

A

Amiodarone

1189
Q

What medication can cause hypothyroidism only?

A

lithium

1190
Q

Thyroiditis nuclear uptake results?

A

absent or low

1191
Q

ASTI FBGL/HbA1c starting age?

A

18yo, annually

1192
Q

What does DEXA stand for?

A

Dual energy xray absorption

1193
Q

Post thrombotic syndrome prevention?

A

Compression Stockings for 18 months

1194
Q

Breastfeeding CI for COCP?

A

Only if <6 weeks

1195
Q

VTE factors CI for COCP?

A

first degree <45yo
PHx of VTE
Known thrombogenetic mutation

1196
Q

What to do if someone develops migraine whilst on COCP?

A

Stop COCP

1197
Q

Breast conditions CI for COCP?

A

PHx only (FHx doesn’t matter)
New breast lump
BRCA gene positive

1198
Q

When to repeat HPV if inadequate sample?

A

6-12 weeks

1199
Q

How many negative tests do you need after HSIL treatment?

A

TWO negative CO-tests

1200
Q

Do we need to do CST for hysterectomy?

A

Only if hysterectomy was for HSIL, needs 2 negative co-tests

1201
Q

When to consider bariatric surgery for T2DM?

A

Poor control and BMI >35 or, BMI >40

1202
Q

What HbA1c % do you need to start a second agent immediately with metformin?

A

8.5%

1203
Q

After commencing ACEI in new CKD, when to review for AKI/K+?

A

within 2 months, (make sure less than 25%)

1204
Q

What condition do you need to maximise ACE dose before adding 2nd agent?

A

CKD

1205
Q

Aboriginal health Assessment MBS number?

A

715

1206
Q

Acute rheumatic fever chronic Mx

A

Benzathine benzylpenicillin monthly for 10 years or 21yo. Whichever is later

1207
Q

What age is everyone recommended to get extra boostrix?

A

50

1208
Q

When do ATSI get adult prevenar dose?

A

50yo

1209
Q

What medication to give when patient is on max dose of allopurinol and not reaching urate level target?

A

Probenacid (never use in Hx of kidney stones)

1210
Q

How often to do Asthma cycle of care?

A

Twice per year

1211
Q

How often to do T2DM cycle of care?

A

Annual at least

1212
Q

Unable to straighten knee, and clicking of knee?

A

Meniscal bucket-handle tear

1213
Q

According to SCAT5 concussion grading, how long between each step of rehab?

A

24 hours (1 day)

1214
Q

Post-concussion, when to refer if symptoms still present?

A

2 weeks after incident

1215
Q

XR doesn’t show suspected fracture. When to choose MRI instead of CT?

A 
CT = acute fracture
MRI = stress fracture
1216
Q

What temp to avoid vaccination in?

A

> 38.5

1217
Q

Balanitis Rx?

A

Hydrocortisone 1% cream + clotrimazole 1% (if fungal suspected)

1218
Q

Roseola causative organism?

A

Human herpes virus (no longer infectious after rash appears)

1219
Q

Child can’t perform motor tasks. Dx?

A

Dyspraxia

1220
Q

Morton’s neuroma Ex finding sign?

A

Mulder’s sign (clicking when squeezing)

1221
Q

When to repeat needlestick blds?

A 
6 weeks (HIV only)
3 months and 6 months
1222
Q

Trochlear nerve innervation

A

Superior oblique (medial and downwards eye movement)

1223
Q

Premature CVD age?

A

<55yo

1224
Q

When to refer for abnormal LFT’s?

A

Persistent and

2x UNL for liver transaminases
1.5x UNL for liver phosphatases

1225
Q

How long to continue anti-depressant for after commencing?

A

12 months

1226
Q

How long to delay imaging in new radicular pain after lifting heavy item?

A

6 weeks.

After trial of conservative Rx, can consider imaging

1227
Q

What age do we not consider HPV vaccination for catch up?

A

> 19yo (likely already exposed)

1228
Q

Campylobacter diarrhoea Rx?

A

Azithromycin (only in severe disease, otherwise self limiting)

Or pregnant, immunocompromised, infants

1229
Q

AV nipping and silver wiring are exclusive to what type of retinopathy?

A

HTN

1230
Q

New bright PR blood, when to organise c-scope regardless of what you examine?

A

40-50 (plus sigmoidoscopy)

50yo+

1231
Q

Acute mania Rx within bipolar?

A

Olazapine/Haloperidol/Risperidone

1232
Q

Akathisia Rx?

A

Propanolol

1233
Q

Chorea + dementia + falls. Dx?

A

Huntington’s

1234
Q

Urinary incontinence + gait instability + dementia. Dx?

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

1235
Q

Korsakoff triad?

A

Ataxia, eye movement abnormalities, confusion

1236
Q

AAA surgical referral threshold?

A

> 5cm (but can refer earlier for vasc to do surveillance themselves)

1237
Q

Post herpetic neuralgia time frame?

A

3 months after shingles

1238
Q

Standard neck circumference cut off for OSA?

A

40cm

1239
Q

Weber A Mx?

A

CAM boot WBAT

1240
Q

Weber B Mx?

A

Backslab NWB

1241
Q

Weber C Mx?

A

Backslab NWB

1242
Q

Gestation for chorionic villus sampling?

A

10-13 weeks

1243
Q

Gestation for amniocentesis?

A

> 15 weeks

1244
Q

Fluid bolus for paeds?

A

20mL/kg stat

1245
Q

What size ovarian cyst needs no further Mx?

A

<5cm (unless post-menopausal, = abnormal)

1246
Q

Bullimia nervosa Rx?

A

Fluoxetine 20mg daily

1247
Q

SLE Rx?

A

Hydroxychloroquine

1248
Q

2 organisms that can grow in onychoLYsis?

A

candida (flucanozole) and pseudomonas (acetic acid)

1249
Q

Urethral caruncle Rx?

A

Topical oestrogen

1250
Q

Stress fracture suspected but nothing on XR?

A

Do MRI

1251
Q

Oesophageal spasm Rx?

A

GTN sublingual

1252
Q

Carotid artery stenosis level post stroke that needs operation?

A

> 70%

1253
Q

Pseudogout further Ix? (3)

A

CMP, ferritin, ALP

For haemachromatosis, and thyroid/calcium increasing causes

1254
Q

Amoxicillin child dose?

A

15mg/kg

30 if pneumonia - double

1255
Q

Pneumothorax chest drain site

A

2nd space MCL

1256
Q

Heart Failure salt limitation?

A

<6g

1257
Q

Immunocompromised + pneumonia

A

Pneumocystitis jirovecci pneumonia

Sulfamethoxazole+Trimethoprim

1258
Q

Second episode of herpes STI?

A

500mg bd valaciclovir (THREE day course only)

1259
Q

Preferred antiviral in pregnancy?

A

Aciclovir

1260
Q

How much is high dose glucocorticoid therapy making someone eligible for a DEXA?

A

7.5mg or more /day for more than 3 months

1261
Q

eGFR for automatically high risk CVD?

A

<45

1262
Q

GAD timeframe?

A

> 6 months

1263
Q

BIpolar time frame

A

1 week

1264
Q

Adjustment triggering event?

A

3 months

1265
Q

What is the postural HR inrcrease warranting medical admission for eating disorders?

A

30 or more

1266
Q

How many days before surgery should warfarin be ceased/bridged?

A

5

1267
Q

How many days before surgery should DOACs be ceased for a HIGH-risk procedure?

A

2-3

1268
Q

What are the two criteria for a high-risk episode (high chance of treatment failure) of acute otitis media in an ATSI child?

A
  1. Children <2yo with fevers >38.5

2. Children <2yo with bilateral AOM

Artha (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions