Airway Management Flashcards

0
Q

What are the 2 types of artificial airways and when is each used?

A

1) Endotracheal Tube (ETT) - Used if artificial airway will be required for 10 days or less.
2) Tracheostomy - Used if patient will be incubated for 21 days or more.

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1
Q

Why is the patient with an altered LOC at risk for upper airway obstruction?

A

1) Loss of protective reflexes such as cough and swallowing

2) Loss of pharyngeal muscle tone (causes the tongue to fall back and block the airway).

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2
Q

For patients with artificial airways, which 3 pieces of equipment are required to be at the bedside?

A

1) Bag-valve mask or Ambubag
2) Suction catheters
3) Suction source

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3
Q

What are the implications of low cuff pressure and high cuff pressures on an incubated patient?

A

1) Low Cuff Pressures - Increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia
2) High Cuff Pressures - Increases the risk of tracheal bleeding, ischemia, and pressure necrosis.

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4
Q

What are the 3 types of tracheostomy tubes and when is each used?

A

1) Cuffed Tube - Used for patients on mechanical ventilation because the balloon prevents air from escaping through the upper airway.
2) Cuffed Fenestrated Tube - Allows the patient to talk by allowing air to flow up to the larynx through a hole in the shaft of the tube.
3) Cuffless Tube - Often used for permanent tracheostomy patients who are not ventilator dependent.

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5
Q

What are the 7 Early Complications that may occur during the course of Tracheostomy Tube management?

A

1) Bleeding
2) Pneumothorax
3) Air embolism
4) Aspiration
5) SQ or mediastinal emphysema
6) Laryngeal nerve damage
7) Posterior tracheal wall penetration

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6
Q

What are the 7 Longterm Complications that may occur during the course of Tracheostomy Tube management?

A

1) Airway obstruction from an accumulation of secretions or protrusion of cuff over the opening of the tube.
2) Infection
3) Rupture of the innominate artery
4) Dysphagia
5) Tracheoesophageal fistula
6) Tracheal dilation
7) Tracheal ischemia and necrosis

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7
Q

(T/F) Deep suctioning may lead to episodes of bradycardia.

A

True - However, deep suctioning may be necessary in patients with large amounts of secretions in the lower airways, since minimally invasive suctioning removes secretions from central airways only.

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8
Q

(T/F) Installation of normal saline prior to endotracheal suctioning increases the risk of infections and is therefore not recommended.

A

True

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9
Q

How often should the cuff pressure on an ETT be monitored and at what pressure should it be inflated to?

A

1) Q8h

2) 20 to 25 mmHg or 25 to 30 cmH2O

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10
Q

Briefly describe what a CPAP is?

A

Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) mask that delivers air under pressure between 4 and 20 cm of H2O to keep the airway and alveoli open during both inspiration and expiration.

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11
Q

How is CPAP used in the home Vs. in the hospital?

A

1) Home - PTs with sleep apnea

2) Hospital - PTs with hypercapnia, exacerbation of asthma, COPD, and CHF.

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12
Q

Briefly describe what a BiPAP is?

A

Bi-Level Positive Airway Pressure (BiPAP) devices evolved from CPAP and have the ability to provide two levels of pressure, ranging from 4 to 30 cm H2O. The inspiratory pressure is set with lower expiratory pressure to allow for easier exhalation.

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13
Q

What are the 3 different BiPAP settings?

A

1) Spontaneous - The patient triggers all breaths delivered.
2) Timed - The machine is set to deliver a set number of breaths per minute.
3) Spontaneous + timed - The patient triggers breaths with a set number of back-up breaths from the machine to ensure adequate ventilation.

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14
Q

What are the 3 main complications of an Oropharengeal Airway?

A

1) Obstruction of airway
2) Oral trauma (teeth)
3) Can lead to laryngospasms

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15
Q

How often should a Nasopharyngeal Airway be changed?

A

Q8h

16
Q

How should the correct size of a nasopharyngeal airway be determined for a patient?

A

Measure from the tip of the nose to the air lobe.

17
Q

What are the rates and percentages of oxygen that can be delivered by the following devices:

1) Nasal Canula
2) Simple Mask
3) Partial Rebreather
4) Non-Rebreather

A

1) Nasal Canula - 1 to 6 L/min at 25 to 45%
2) Simple Mask - 6 to 10 L/min at 40 to 60%
3) Partial Rebreather - 6 to 10 L/min at 35 to 60%
4) Non-Rebreather - 10 to 15 L/min up to 100%

18
Q

What are the 4 main complications of the Ambubag (bagGING)?

A

1) Gastric Insufflation - Gastric distention from air inflating the stomach.
2) Volutrauma - Lung injury from over stretching
3) Barotrauma - Lung injury from over pressurization
4) Inadequate ventilation

19
Q

(T/F) Suctioning is never done routinely! Only when indicated.

A

True

20
Q

What are the indications for suctioning?

A

1) Secretions in the ETT
2) Coughing
3) Respiratory distress
4) Adventitious BS
5) Increased PIP
6) Decreasing SPO2 or PO2

21
Q

(T/F) the patient should be hyperoxygenated before and after suctioning.

A

True (x30 secs or 5-6 breaths)

22
Q

What are the 10 common complications of suctioning?

A

1) Hypoxemia
2) Arrhythmias
3) ⬆ ICP
4) Local edema
5) Hemmorrhage
6) Traumatic Airway Ulcerations
7) Infection
8) Bronchospasms
9) Bradycardia and Hypotension due to Vagal nerve stimulation
10) Atelectasis

23
Q

What is the most accurate method of evaluating ETT position in patients who have adequate tissue perfusion?

A

End tidal CO2 detection

24
Q

What are the 3 most common SxS of a Tracheoesophageal Fistula?

A

1) Coughing with swallowing
2) Gastric distention with attempts at burping
3) Gastric contents in the esophageal aspirate when suctioning

25
Q

If cuff pressure is gradual increasing, what could this indicate?

A

Damage to the trachea may be occurring.

26
Q

Describe Subcutaneous Emphysema.

A

SQ Emohysema is a possible complication of have a tracheostomy. it occurs when air gets into the tissue under the skin. If palpated, a crackling sensation is heard as the gas is pushed through the tissue.

27
Q

What are the 6 most common physiological effects for patients with a tracheostomy?

A

1) Can’t speak
2) No Valsalva
3) No cough
4) No smell (possibly, no taste as well)
5) Unable to blow nose
6) No warming or humidity