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ems > Airway Management > Flashcards

Airway Management Flashcards

chapter 11

1
Q

airway

A

the upper airway or the passage above the larynx, which includes the nose, mouth, and throat

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2
Q

nasopharynx

A

the part of the pharynx that lies above the level of the roof of the mouth

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3
Q

oropharynx

A

a tubular structure that forms the posterior portion of the oral cavity, which is bordered superiorly by the hard and soft palates, laterally by the cheeks, and inferiorly by the tongue

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4
Q

aspiration

A

in the context of the airway, the introduction of vomitus or other foreign material into the lungs

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5
Q

larynx

A

a complex structure formed by many independent cartilaginous structures that all work together; where the upper airway ends and the lower airway begins; also called the voice box

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6
Q

glottis

A

the space in between the vocal cords that is the narrowest portion of the adult’s airway; also called the glottic opening

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7
Q

vocal cords

A

thin white bands of tough muscular tissue that are lateral borders of the glottis and serve as the primary center for speech production

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8
Q

carina

A

point at which the trachea bifurcates (divides) into the left and right main stem bronchi

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9
Q

visceral pleura

A

thin membrane that covers the lungs

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10
Q

parietal pleura

A

thin membrane that lines the chest cavity

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11
Q

bronchioles

A

subdivision of the smaller bronchi in the lungs; made of smooth muscle and dilate or constrict in response to various stimuli

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12
Q

mediastinum

A

space within the chest that contains the ♡, major blood vessels, vagus nerve, trachea, major bronchi, and esophagus; located between the two lungs

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13
Q

phrenic nerves

A

the two nerves that innervate (supplies nerve to) the diaphragm

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14
Q

inhalation

A

the active, muscular part of breathing that draws air

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15
Q

partial pressure

A

the term used to describe the amount of gas in air or dissolved in fluid, such as blood

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16
Q

tidal volume

A

the amount of air (in mL) that is moved into or out of the lungs during one breath

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17
Q

residual volume

A

the air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration

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18
Q

alveolar ventilation

A

the volume of air moved through the lungs in 1 minute minus the dead space; calculated by multiplying tidal volume (minus dead space) and respiratory rate

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19
Q

minute volume

A

the volume of air that moves into and out of the lungs per minute; calculated by multiplying the tidal volume and respiratory rate; also called minute ventilation

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20
Q

alveolar minute volume

A

the volume of air moved through the lungs in 1 minute minus the dead space; calculated by multiplying tidal volume (minus dead space) and respiratory rate

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21
Q

vital capacity

A

the amount of air that can be forcibly expelled from the lungs after breathing in as deeply as possible

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22
Q

dead space

A

any portion of the airway that does contain air and cannot participate in gas exchange, such as the trachea and bronchi

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23
Q

exhalation

A

the passive part of the breathing process in which the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles relax, forcing air out of the lungs

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24
Q

patent

A

open, clear of obstruction

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25
Q

hypoxia

A

deficient oxygen concentration in the tissues

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26
Q

hypoxic drive

A

a “backup system” to control respiration; senses drops in the oxygen level in the blood

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27
Q

metabolism

A

the biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within the cells; also called cellular respiration

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28
Q

external respiration

A

the exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood cells in the pulmonary capillaries; also called pulmonary respiration

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29
Q

surfactant

A

a liquid protein substance that coats the alveoli in the lungs, decreases alveolar surface tension, and keeps the alveoli expanded; a low level in a premature infant contributes to respiratory distress syndrome

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30
Q

internal respiration

A

the exchange of gases between the blood cells and the tissues

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31
Q

aerobic metabolism

A

metabolism that can proceed only in the presence of oxygen

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32
Q

anaerobic metabolism

A

the metabolism that takes place in the absence of oxygen; the main by-product is lactic acid

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33
Q

chemoreceptors

A

monitor the levels of oxygen, CO2, and pH of the cerebrospinal fluid and then provide feedback to the respiratory centers to modify the rate and depth of breathing based on the body’s needs at any given time

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34
Q

hypercarbia

A

increased carbon dioxide level in the bloodstream

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35
Q

intrapulmonary shunting

A

bypassing of oxygen poor blood past nonfunctional alveoli to the left side of the heart

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36
Q

hemothorax

A

a collection of blood int he pleural cavity

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37
Q

pneumothorax

A

an accumilation of air or gas in the pleural cavity

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38
Q

tension pneumothorax

A

an accumulation of air or gas in the pleural cavity that progressively increases pressure in the chest and that interferes with cardiac function, with potentially fatal results

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39
Q

aerosol-generating procedure (AGP)

A

any airway manipulation that induces the production of aerosols that may present a risk of airborne transmission of pathogens, such as CPR

40
Q

bilateral

A

both sides of midline

41
Q

bag-mask device

A

a device with one-way valve and a face mask attached to a ventilation bag; when attached to a reservoir and connected to oxygen, it delivers more than 90% supplemental oxygen

42
Q

labored breathing

A

the use of muscles of the chest, back, and abdomen to assist in expanding the chest; occurs when air movement is impaired

43
Q

retractions

A

movements in which the skin pulls in around the ribs during inspiration

44
Q

agonal gasps

A

abnormal breathing pattern characterized by slow, gasping breaths, sometimes seen in patients in cardiac arrest

45
Q

cheyne-stokes respirations

A

a cyclical pattern of abnormal breathing that increases and then decreases in rate and depth, followed by a period of apnea

46
Q

apnea

A

absence of spontaneous breathing

47
Q

ataxic respirations

A

irregular, ineffective respirations that may or may not have an identifiable pattern

48
Q

pulse oximetry

A

an assessment tool that measures oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the capillary beds

49
Q

end-tidal CO2

A

the amount of CO2 present at the end of any exhaled breath

50
Q

capnometry

A

the use of a capnometer, a device that measures the amount of expired CO2

51
Q

capnography

A

a noninvasive method to quickly and efficiently provide information on a patient’s ventilatory status, circulation, and metabolism. it effectively measures the concentration of carbon dioxide in expired air over time

52
Q

head tilt-chin lift maneuver

A

a combination of two movements to open the airway by tilting the forehead back and lifting the chin; not used for trauma patients

53
Q

jaw-thrust maneuver

A

technique to open the airway by placing the fingers behind the angle of the jaw and bringing the jaw forward; used for patients who may have a cervical spine injury

54
Q

tonsil tips

A

large, semi-rigid suntion tips recommended for suctioning the pharynx

55
Q

suction catheter

A

a hollow, cylindrical device used to remove fluid from the patient’s airway

56
Q

stoma

A

an opening through the skin and into an organ or other structure

57
Q

oropharyngeal (oral) airway

A

airway adjunct inserted into the mouth of an unresponsive patient to keep the tongue from blocking the upper airway and to facilitate suctioning the airway, if necessary

58
Q

gag reflex

A

a normal reflex mechanism that causes retching; activated by touching the soft palate or the back of the throat

59
Q

nasopharyngeal (nasal) airway

A

airway adjunct inserted into the nostril of an unresponsive patient or a patient with an altered level of consciousness who is unable to maintain airway patency independently

60
Q

recovery position

A

a side-lying position used to maintain a clear airway in unconscious patients without injuries who are breathing adequately

61
Q

pin-indexing system

A

a system established for portable cylinders to ensure that a regulator is not connected to a cylinder containing the wrong type of gas

62
Q

american standard safety system

A

a safety system for large oxygen cylinders, designed to prevent the accidental attachment of a regulator to a cylinder containing the wrong type of gas

63
Q

oxygen toxicity

A

a condition of excessive oxygen consumption resulting in cellular and tissue damage

64
Q

nonrebreathing mask

A

a combination mask and reservoir bag system that is the preferred way to give oxygen in the prehospital setting; delivers up to 90% inspired oxygen and prevents inhaling the exhaled gases (CO2)

65
Q

nasal cannula

A

an oxygen-delivery device in which oxygen flows through two small, tubelike prongs that fit into the patient’s nostrils; delivers 24% to 44% supplemental oxygen, depending on the flow rate

66
Q

gastric distention

A

a condition in which air fills the stomach, often as a result of high volume and pressure during articular ventilation

67
Q

passive ventilation

A

the act of air moving into and out of the lungs during chest compressions

68
Q

denitrogenation

A

the process of replacing nitrogen in the lungs with oxygen to maintain a normal oxygen saturation level during advanced airway management

69
Q

automatic transport ventilator (ATV)

A

a ventilation device attached to a control box that allows the variables of ventilation to be set. It frees the EMT to perform other tasks while the patient is being ventilated

70
Q

compliance

A

the ability of the alveoli to expand when air is drawn in during inhalation

71
Q

continuous airway pressure (CPAP)

A

a method of ventilation used primarily in the treatment of critically ill patents with respiratory distress; can prevent the need for endotracheal intubation

72
Q

tracheostomy

A

a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) into the trachea: a stoma in the neck connects the trachea directly to the skin

73
Q

mild airway obstruction

A

occurs when a foreign body partially obstructs the patient’s airway. the patient is able to move adequate amounts of air, but also experiences some degree of respiratory distress

74
Q

severe airway obstruction

A

occurs when a foreign body completely obstructs the patient’s airway. the patient cannot breathe, talk, or cough

75
Q

good air exchange

A

a term used to distinguish the degree of distress in a patient with a mild airway obstruction. with good air exchange, the patient is still conscious and able to cough forcefully, although wheezing may be heard

76
Q

poor air exchange

A

a term used to describe the degree of distress in a patient with a mild airway obstruction. with poor air exchange, the patient often as a weak, ineffective cough, increased difficulty breathing, or possible cyanosis and may produce a high-pitched noise during inhalation (stridor)

77
Q

wheezing

A

a high-pitched, whistling breath sound that is most prominent on expiration, and which suggests an obstruction or narrowing of the lower airways; occurs in asthma and bronchiolitis

78
Q

stridor

A

a harsh, high-pitched respiratory sound, generally heard during inspiration, that is caused by partial blockage or narrowing of the upper airway; may be audible without a stethoscope

79
Q

preoxygenation

A

the process of providing oxygen, often in combination with ventilation, prior to intubation in order to raise the oxygen levels of body tissues; a critical step in advanced airway management. This extends the time during which an advanced airway can be placed in an apneic patient; because the more oxygen that is available in the alveoli; the longer the patient can maintain adequate gas exchange in the lungs during the procedure

80
Q

endotracheal (ET) intubation

A

insertion of an endotracheal tube directly through the larynx between the vocal cords and into the trachea to maintain and protect an airway

81
Q

apneic oxygenation

A

a technique in which oxygen administered via a high-flow nasal cannula is left in place during an intubation attempt, allowing for continuous oxygen delivery into the airways during all phases of the procedure

82
Q

direct laryngoscopy

A

visualization of the airway with a laryngoscope

83
Q

video laryngoscopy

A

visualization of the vocal cords, and thereby placement of the endotracheal tube, that is facilitated by use of a video camera and monitor

84
Q

gum elastic bougie

A

a flexible device that is inserted between the glottis under direct laryngoscopy; the endotracheal tube is threaded over the device, facilitating its entry into the trachea

85
Q

esophageal intubation

A

improper placement of an advanced airway device into the esophagus rather than into the trachea

86
Q

how does ventilation differ from oxygenation?

A

ventilation is the physical process of moving air into and out of the lungs. Oxygenation is the process of loading oxygen onto the hemoglobin in the bloodstream. Ventilation can happen without oxygenation but not vise versa.

87
Q

what specifically does pulse oximetry measure?

A

the percentage of hemoglobin that is bond to a gas

88
Q

how is capnography used to assess ventilation adequacy?

A

measures the amount of CO2 in exhaled air. is measured in mm Hg and is reported as the end-tidal CO2

89
Q

what does the upper airway include?

A

nose, mouth, jaw, oral cavity, pharynx, larynx.

90
Q

what is the function of the upper airway?

A

warm, filter, and humidify air as it enters the nose and mouth

91
Q

what does the lower airway include?

A

trachea and lungs

92
Q

what is the function of the lower airway?

A

to exchange oxygen and CO2

93
Q

Does aerosol-generating procedures (AGPs) require enhanced PPE?

A

yes

94
Q

What is the adequate breathing for an adult?

A

12-20 bpm, regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation, adequate depth, bilaterally clear and equal lung sounds, and regular and equal chest rise and fall (opposite for inadequate)

95
Q

what is a basic technique for opening the airway?

A

head tilt-chin lift maneuver and or, if trauma suspected, the jaw-thrust maneuver

96
Q

what position is used to help maintain the airway in patients without traumatic injuries who are unconscious and breathing adequately?

A

the recovery position

97
Q
A

ems (4 decks)

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