Airplane systems Flashcards

1
Q

What are the flaps and what is their function?

A

The wing flaps are movable panels on the inboard trailing edges of the wings. They are hinged so they may be extended downward into the flow of air beneath the wings to increase both lift and drag. Their purpose is to permit a slower airspeed and a steeper angle of descent during a landing approach. And some cases, they may also be used to shorten the takeoff distance.

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2
Q

What instruments operate from the pitot / static system?

A

The pitot/static system operates the altimeter, vertical speed indicator, and the airspeed indicator.

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3
Q

Does this aircraft have an alternate static air system?

A

Yes. In the event of external static port blockage, a static pressure alternate source valve is installed. The control is located beneath the throttle, and if used will supply static pressure from inside the cabin, instead of from the external static force.

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4
Q

How does an altimeter work?

A

Aneroid wafers in the instrument expand and contract as atmospheric pressure changes, and through a shaft and gear linkage, rotate pointers on the dial of the instrument.

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5
Q

Define the following altitudes:

a) Indicated altitude

b) Pressure altitude

c) True altitude

d) Density altitude

e) Absolute altitude

A

a) Indicated altitude is the altitude read directly from the Altimeter (uncorrected) after it is set to the current altimeter setting.

b) Pressure altitude is the height above the standard data plane indicated when the altimeter setting window is adjusted to 29.92. It is used for computer solutions to determine density altitude, true altitude, and true airspeed.

c) True altitude is the true vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level. Airport, terrain, and obstacle elevations found on aeronautical charts are true altitude.

d) Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations. Directly related to an aircraft takeoff, climb, and landing performance.

e) Absolute altitude is the vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain.

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6
Q

How does the airspeed indicator operate?

A

It measures the difference between the impact pressure from the pitot head and atmosphereic pressure from the static source.

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7
Q

What are the limitations of the airspeed indicator?

A

The airspeed indicator is subject to proper flow of air in the pitot/static system.

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8
Q

What are the different types of airspeeds?

A

Indicated airspeed is the speed of the airplane as observed on the airspeed indicator. It is the airspeed without correction for indicator, position or installation, or compressability errors.

Calibrated airspeed is the airspeed indicator reading corrected for position or installation, and instrument errors. CAS is equal to TAS at sea level in a standard atmosphere.

True airspeed is calibrate airspeed corrected for altitude and nonstandard temperature; the speed of the airplane in relation to the air mass in which it is flying.

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9
Q

What airspeed limitations apply to the color coded marking system of the airspeed indicator?

A

White arc – flap operating range

Lower airspeed limit white arc – stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in Landing configuration V-so

Upper airspeed limit white arc - maximum flap extension speed V-fe

Green arc – stall speed clean or specified configuration V-s1

Upper air speed limit green arc – normal operation speed or maximum structural cruise speed V-no

Yellow arc– caution range - operations in smooth air only

Red line - never exceed speed; above the speed structural failure may occur Vne

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10
Q

How does the vertical speed indicator work?

A

The vertical speed indicator is a pressure differential instrument. Inside the instrument case is an aneroid very much like the one in an airspeed indicator. Both the inside of this aneroid and the inside of the instrument case are vented to the static system, but the case is vented through a calibrated orifice that causes the pressure inside the case to change more slowly than the pressure inside the aneroid. As the aircraft ascends, the static pressure becomes lower and the pressure inside the case compresses the aneroid, moving the pointer upward, showing a climb and indicating the number of feet per minute the aircraft is ascending.

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11
Q

What type of engine does the aircraft have (C172S)?

A

Engine Manufacturer: Textron Lycoming

Engine Model Number: IO-360-L2A

Engine Type: Normally aspirated, direct drive, air-cooled, horizontally
opposed, fuel injected, four cylinder engine with 360.0 cu.
in. displacement.

Horsepower Rating and Engine Speed: 180 rated BHP at 2700 RPM

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12
Q

Describe how each of the following engine gauges work: oil temperature, oil pressure, cylinder head temperature, tachometer, manifold pressure, and fuel pressure.

A

Oil temperature – electrically powered from the aircraft’s electrical system.

Oil pressure - direct pressure oil line from the engine delivers oil at an engine operating pressure to the gauge.

Cylinder head temperature - electrically powered from the aircraft electrical system.

Tachometer - engine driven mechanically.

Fuel pressure -

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13
Q

Describe this airplane’s (C172S) flight control system.

A

FLIGHT CONTROLS
The airplane’s primary flight control system consists of conventional aileron, rudder, and elevator control surfaces, and secondary are trim and flaps. The control surfaces are manually operated through cables and mechanical linkage using a control wheel for the ailerons and elevator, and rudder/brake pedals for the rudder.

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14
Q

Describe this airplane’s (C172S) attitude indicator.

A

ATTITUDE INDICATOR
The G1000 attitude indicator is shown on the upper center of the PFD.
The attitude indication data is provided by the Attitude and Heading
Reference System (AHRS). The G1000 attitude indicator provides a
horizon line that is the full width of the GDU display.

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15
Q

Describe the C172S’ airspeed indicator.

A

AIRSPEED INDICATOR
The G1000 vertical tape airspeed indicator is shown along the upper
left side of the PFD. The airspeed indication data is provided by the air data computer unit. Colored bands are provided to indicate the
maximum speed, high cruise speed caution range, normal operating range, full wing flap operating range and low airspeed awareness band. Calculated true airspeed is displayed in a window at the bottom edge of the airspeed tape.

The standby (pneumatic) airspeed indicator is found on the lower
center instrument panel. Colored arcs are provided to indicate the
maximum speed, high cruise speed caution range, normal operating
range, full wing flap operating range and low airspeed awareness band.

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16
Q

Describe the C172S’ altimeter.

A

ALTIMETER
The primary altitude indicator (altimeter) is found along the right side of
the attitude indicator on the PFD. The altitude indication data is
provided by the air data computer unit. The local barometric pressure is
set using the BARO knob on the GDU displays.
A cyan selectable altitude reference pointer, bug, is displayed on the
altimeter tape and is set using the ALT SEL knob on the GDU displays.
The altitude bug set-point is shown in a window at the top edge of the
altimeter.
The standby (aneroid) sensitive altimeter is found on the lower center
instrument panel.
.

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17
Q

Describe the C172S Horizontal Situation Indicator.

A

HORIZONTAL SITUATION INDICATOR
The Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) is found along the lower center
area of the PFD. The heading indication data is provided by the AHRS
and magnetometer units. The HSI combines a stabilized magnetic
direction indicator (compass card) with selectable navigation deviation
indicators for GPS or VHF navigation. The HSI is conventional in
appearance and operation.

Magnetic heading is shown numerically in a window centered above
the heading index (lubber line) at the top of the HSI. Reference index
marks are provided at 45° intervals around the compass card. A
circular segment scale below the heading window at the top of the HSI
shows half and standard rates of turn based on the length of the
magenta turn vector.

The cyan HSI heading reference pointer, bug, is set using the HDG
knob on the GDU display. The selected heading is shown digitally in a
window above the upper left 45° index mark. The selected heading will
provide control input to the autopilot, if installed, when engaged in HDG
mode.

The CDI navigation source shown on the HSI is set using the CDI
softkey to select from GPS, NAV 1 or NAV 2 inputs. The course
reference pointer is set using the CRS knob on the GDU display. The
selected course is shown digitally in a window above the upper right
45° index mark. The selected navigation source will provide control
input to the autopilot, if installed, when engaged in NAV, APR or BC
mode and it is receiving a navigation signal from the selected GPS or
VHF NAV radios.

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18
Q

Describe the C172S’ Vacuum system.

A

VACUUM SYSTEM AND INSTRUMENTS
The vacuum system provides the vacuum necessary to operate the standby attitude indicator. The system consists of one engine-driven vacuum pump, a vacuum regulator, the standby attitude indicator, a vacuum system air filter, and a vacuum transducer. The vacuum transducer provides a signal to the engine display that is processed and displayed as vacuum on the EIS ENGINE page. If available vacuum, from the engine-driven vacuum pump, drops below 3.5 in.hg., the LOW VACUUM annunciator will display in amber on the PFD.

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19
Q

Describe the stand by attitude indicator in the C172S.

A

ATTITUDE INDICATOR
The standby attitude indicator is a vacuum-powered gyroscopic instrument, found on the center instrument panel below the MFD. The attitude indicator includes a low-vacuum warning flag (GYRO) that comes into view when the vacuum is below the level necessary for reliable gyroscope operation.

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20
Q

Describe the stall warning system in the C172S.

A

STALL WARNING SYSTEM
The airplane is equipped with a pneumatic-type stall warning system
consisting of an inlet in the leading edge of the left wing, an air-operated horn near the upper left corner of the windshield, and associated plumbing. As the airplane approaches a stall, the low pressure on the upper surface of the wings moves forward around the leading edge of the wings. This low pressure creates a differential pressure in the stall warning system which draws air through the warning horn, resulting in a audible warning at 5 to 10 knots above stall in all flight conditions.

The stall warning system should be checked during the preflight inspection by applying suction to the system either by placing a clean handkerchief over the vent opening and applying suction or using some other type of suction device to activate the warning horn. The system is operational if the warning horn sounds when suction is applied.

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21
Q

Describe the C172S’ G1000 Garmin Display Units (GDU)s.

A

GARMIN DISPLAY UNITS (GDU)

Two identical units are mounted on the instrument panel. One, located in front of the pilot, is configured as a PFD. A second panel, located to the right, is configured as a MFD.

The PFD displays roll and pitch information, heading and course navigation information, plus altitude, airspeed and vertical speed information to the pilot. The PFD also controls and displays all communication and navigation frequencies as well as displaying warning/status annunciations of airplane systems.

The MFD displays a large scalable, moving map that corresponds to the airplane’s current location. Data from other components of the system can be overlaid on this map. Location and direction of movement of nearby aircraft, lightning and weather information can all be displayed on the MFD. The MFD is also the principle display for all of the engine, fuel, and electrical system parameters.

The reversionary mode places the flight information and basic engine information on both the PFD and the MFD. This feature allows the pilot full access to all necessary information should either of the display screens malfunction.

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22
Q

Describe the Garmin Audio Panel (GMA).

A

AUDIO PANEL (GMA)
The audio panel for the G1000 system integrates all of the communication and navigation digital audio signals, intercom system and marker beacon controls in one unit. It is installed on the instrument panel between the PFD and the MFD. The audio panel also controls the reversionary mode for the PFD and MFD.

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23
Q

Describe the INTEGRATED AVIONICS UNIT (GIA).

A

INTEGRATED AVIONICS UNIT (GIA)
Two integrated avionics units are installed in the G1000 system. They are mounted in racks in the tailcone. These units act as the main communications hub linking all of the other peripheral parts to the GDU displays. Each unit contains a GPS receiver, a VHF navigation receiver, VHF communication transceiver and the main system microprocessors. The first GIA unit to acquire a GPS satellite 3-D navigation signal is the active GPS source.

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24
Q

Describe the ATTITUDE AND HEADING REFERENCE SYSTEM (AHRS)
AND MAGNETOMETER (GRS).

A

ATTITUDE AND HEADING REFERENCE SYSTEM (AHRS)
AND MAGNETOMETER (GRS)
The AHRS provides airplane attitude and flight characteristics
information to the G1000 displays and to the integrated avionics units, (which is located in the tailcone. The AHRS unit contains accelerometers, tilt sensors and rate sensors that replace spinning mass gyros used in other airplanes. The magnetometer is located inside the left wing panel and interfaces with the AHRS to provide heading information.

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25
Q

Describe the AIR DATA COMPUTER (GDC).

A

AIR DATA COMPUTER (GDC)
The Air Data Computer (ADC) compiles information from the airplane’s pitot-static system. The ADC unit is mounted in the tailcone. An outside air temperature probe, mounted on top of the cabin, is connected to the ADC. The ADC calculates pressure altitude, airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed and outside air temperature.

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26
Q

Describe the ENGINE MONITOR (GEA).

A

ENGINE MONITOR (GEA)
The Engine Monitor is responsible for receiving and processing the signals from all of the engine and airframe sensors. It is connected to all of the CHT measuring sensors, EGT sensors, RPM, fuel flow and to the fuel gauging system. This unit transmits this information to the engine display computers.

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27
Q

Describe the TRANSPONDER (GTX) of the C172S.

A

TRANSPONDER(GTX)
The full-featured Mode S transponder provides Mode A, C and S functions. Control and operation of the transponder is accomplished using the PFD. The transponder unit is mounted in the tailcone avionics racks.

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28
Q

Describe the XM WEATHER AND RADIO DATA LINK (GDL).

A

XM WEATHER AND RADIO DATA LINK (GDL)
The XM weather and radio data link provides weather information and digital audio entertainment in the cockpit. The unit is mounted in the tailcone. This unit communicates with the MFD on the high-speed data bus. XM weather and XM radio operate in the S-band frequency range to provide continuous uplink capabilities at any altitude throughout North America. A subscription to the XM satellite radio service is required for the XM weather and radio data link to be used.

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29
Q

Describe the CONTROL WHEEL STEERING (CWS).

A

CONTROL WHEEL STEERING (CWS)
The Control Wheel Steering (CWS) button, located on the pilot’s control wheel, immediately disconnects the pitch and roll servos when activated. Large pitch changes while using CWS will cause the airplane to be out of trim. Retrim the airplane as necessary during CWS operation to reduce control forces or large pitch oscillations that may occur after releasing the CWS button.

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30
Q

Describe the AVIONICS COOLING FANS.

A

AVIONICS COOLING FANS
Four DC electric fans provide forced air and ambient air circulation cooling for the G1000 avionics equipment. A single fan in the tailcone provides forced air cooling to the integrated avionics units and to the transponder. A fan located forward of the instrument panel removes air from between the firewall bulkhead and instrument panel, directing the warm air up at the inside of the windshield. Two additional fans blow air directly onto the heat sinks located on the forward sides of the PFD and MFD.

Power is provided to these fans when the MASTER (BAT) switch and the AVIONICS (BUS 1 and BUS 2) switch are all ON.

NOTE : None of the cooling fans will operate when the essential bus avionics equipment is being powered by the standby battery.

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31
Q

Describe the ANTENNAS.

A

ANTENNAS
Two dual-mode VHF COM/GPS antennas are mounted on the top of the cabin. The COM 1/GPS 1 antenna is mounted on the right side and the COM 2/GPS 2 antenna is mounted on the left side. They are connected to the two VHF communication transceivers and the two GPS receivers in the integrated avionics units.

The GDL antenna is also mounted on the top of the cabin. It provides a
signal to the GDL-69A XM Data Link receiver.

A blade-type navigation antenna is mounted on either side of the vertical stabilizer. This antenna provides VOR and glideslope signals to the VHF navigation receivers contained in the integrated avionics units.

The marker beacon antenna is mounted on the bottom of the tailcone.
It provides the signal to the marker beacon receiver located in the audio
panel.

The transponder antenna is mounted on the bottom of the cabin and is connected to the Mode S transponder by a coaxial transmission cable. The Bendix/King Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) antenna (if installed) is mounted on the bottom of the tailcone and is connected to the Bendix/King DME receiver by a coaxial cable.

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32
Q

Describe the STATIC DISCHARGERS.

A

STATIC DISCHARGERS
Static dischargers are installed at various points throughout the airframe to reduce interference from precipitation static. Under some severe static conditions, loss of radio signals is possible even with static dischargers installed. Whenever possible, avoid known severe precipitation areas to prevent loss of dependable radio signals. If avoidance is impractical, minimize airspeed and anticipate temporary loss of radio signals while in these areas.

Static dischargers lose their effectiveness with age, and therefore, should be checked periodically, at least at every annual inspection, by a qualified technician.

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33
Q

Describe the CABIN FIRE EXTINGUISHER.

A

CABIN FIRE EXTINGUISHER

A portable Halon 1211 (Bromochlorodifluoromethane) fire extinguisher is installed in a holder on the floorboard between the front seats to be accessible in case of fire. The extinguisher is classified 5B:C by Underwriters Laboratories.

The extinguisher should be checked prior to each flight to ensure that the pressure of the contents, as indicated by the gage at the top of the extinguisher, is within the green arc (approximately 125 psi) and the operating lever lock pin is securely in place.

To operate the fire extinguisher:
1. Loosen retaining clamp(s) and remove extinguisher from bracket.
2. Hold extinguisher upright, pull operating ring pin, and press lever while directing the liquid at the base of the fire at the near edge. Progress toward the back of the fire by moving the nozzle rapidly with a side-to-side sweeping motion.

WARNING
VENTILATE THE CABIN PROMPTLY AFTER SUCCESSFULLY EXTINGUISHING THE FIRE TO REDUCE THE GASES PRODUCED BY THERMAL DECOMPOSITION.

  1. The contents of the cabin fire extinguisher will empty in approximately eight seconds of continuous use.

Fire extinguishers should be recharged by a qualified fire extinguisher agency after each use. After recharging, secure the extinguisher to its mounting bracket.

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34
Q

Describe the CARBON MONOXIDE DETECTION SYSTEM.

A

CARBON MONOXIDE DETECTION SYSTEM

The carbon monoxide (CO) detection system consist of a single detector located behind the instrument panel, powered by the airplane’s DC electrical system and integrated in the Garmin G1000 system with a warning annunciation and alert messages displayed on the PFD.

When the CO detection system senses a CO level of 50 parts-per-million (PPM) by volume or greater the alarm turns on a flashing warning annunciation, CO LVL HIGH, in the annunciation window on the PFD with a continuous tone until the PFD softkey below WARNING is pushed. It then remains on steady until the CO level drops below 50 PPM and automatically resets the alarm.

If the CO system detects a problem within the system that requires service, a CO DET SRVC message is displayed in the alerts window of the PFD. If there is an interface problem between the G1000 system and the CO system a CO DET FAIL message is displayed in the alerts window of the PFD.

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35
Q

What four strokes must occur in each cylinder of a typical four stroke engine in order for it to produce full power?

A

The four strokes are:

Intake - fuel mixture is drawn into cylinders by downward stroke.

Compression - mixture is compressed about a four stroke.

Power - spark ignites mixture forcing piston downward and producing power.

Exhaust - Burned gases pushed out of cylinder by upward stroke.

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36
Q

What is fuel injection?

A

Fuel injectors have replaced carburetors in some airplanes. In a fuel injection system, the fuel is normally injected into the system either directly into the cylinders or just a head of the intake valves; whereas in a carbureted system, the fuel enters the airstream at the throttle valve. There are several types of fuel injection systems in use today, and though there are variations in design, the operational methods are generally simple. Most designs incorporate an engine driven fuel pump, fuel/air control unit, fuel manifold valve, discharge nozzles, auxiliary fuel pump, and fuel pressure/flow indicators.

37
Q

What are some advantages of fuel injection?

A

a) Reduction in evaporatorative icing.

b) Better fuel flow.

c) Faster throttle response.

d) Precise control of mixture.

e) Better fuel distribution.

f) Easier cold weather starts.

38
Q

Are there any disadvantages associated with fuel injected engines?

A

a) Difficulty in starting a hot engine.

b) Vapor locks during ground operation on hot days.

c) Problems associated with restarting an engine that quit because of fuel starvation.

39
Q

What is an alternate induction air system and when is it used?

A

It is a device which opens, either automatically or manually, to allow induction airflow to continue should the primary induction air opening become blocked. In the event of an impact as accumulation over normal engine induction sources, carburetor heat (carbureted engines) or alternate air (fuel injected engines) should be selected. On some fuel injected engines, an alternate air source is automatically activated with blockage of the normal air source.

40
Q

What is the condition known as vapor lock?

A

Vapor lock is a condition in which AVGAS vaporizes in the fuel liner other components between the fuel tank and the carburetor. This typically occurs on warm days on aircraft with engine driven fuel pumps that suck fuel from the tanks. Vapor locks and be caused by excessively hot fuel, low pressure, or excessive turbulence of the fuel traveling through the fuel system. In each case, liquid fuel vapor rises prematurely and blocks the flow of liquid fuel to the carburetor. Various steps can be taken to prevent vapor lock. The most common is the use of boost pumps located in the fuel tank that force pressurized liquid fuel to the engine.

41
Q

What does the throttle do?

A

The throttle allows the pilot to manually control the amount of fuel/air charge entering the cylinders. This in turn regulates the engine manifold pressure.

42
Q

What does the mixture control do?

A

It regulates the fuel-to-air ratio. Most airplane engines incorporate a device called a mixture control, by which the fuel/air ratio can be controlled by the pilot during flight. The purpose of a mixture control is to prevent the mixture from becoming too rich at high altitudes, due to the decreasing air density. Leaning the mixture during cross-country flights of conserves fuel and provides optimum power.

43
Q

What are cowl flaps?

A

Cowl flaps are located on the engine cowling and allow the pilot to control the operating temperature of the engine by regulating the amount of air circulating within the engine compartment. Cowl flaps may be manually or electrically activated and usually allow for a variety of flap positions.

44
Q

When are cowl flaps used?

A

Normally the cowl flaps will be in the “open” position in the following operations:

a) During starting of the engine.
b) While taxing.
c) During takeoff and high-power climb operation.

The cowl flaps may be adjusted in cruise for the appropriate cylinder head temperature.

The cowl flaps should be in the “close” position in the following operations:

a) During extended let-downs.
b) Anytime excessive cooling is a possibility (I.e., approach to landing, engine-out practice etc.)

45
Q

What type of propeller does this aircraft have?

A

PROPELLER
The airplane is equipped with a two bladed, fixed pitch, one-piece forged aluminum alloy propeller which is anodized to retard corrosion.

The propeller is 76 inches in diameter.

46
Q

Discuss fixed-pitch propellers.

A

The pitch of this propeller is fixed by the manufacturer and cannot be changed by the pilot. Two types of fix pitch propellers are:

Climb propeller - has a lower pitch, therefore less drag. Results in higher RPM and more horsepower being developed by the engine; increases performance during takeoffs and climbs, but decreases performance during cruising flight.

Cruise propeller - has a higher pitch, therefore more drag. Results and lower RPM and less horsepower capability; decreases performance during takeoffs and climbs, but increases efficiency during cruising flight.

47
Q

Discuss variable-pitch propellers (constant speed).

A

An airplane equipped with a constant speed propeller is capable of continuously adjusting the propeller blade angle to maintain a constant engine speed. For example, if engine RPM increases as a result of a decreased load on the engine (descent), the system automatically increases the propeller blade angle (increasing air load) until the RPM has returned to the preset speed. The propeller governor can be regulated by the pilot with a control in the cockpit, so that any desired blade angle setting ( within its limits) and engine operating RPM can be obtained, thereby increasing the airplane’s efficiency in various flight conditions.

48
Q

What are the primary and secondary flight controls?

A

Flight Controls
Aircraft flight control systems consist of primary and secondary systems.

Primary:
ailerons,
elevator (or stabilator), and
rudder

Secondary:
Wing flaps,
leading edge devices,
spoilers,
trim systems

The secondary control system and improve the performance characteristics of the airplane or relieve the pilot of excessive control forces.

49
Q

What does the propeller control do?

A

The propeller control regulates propeller pitch and engine rpm as desired for a given flight condition. The propeller control adjusts a propeller governor which establishes and maintains the propeller speed, which in turn maintains the engine speed.

50
Q

What does the propeller control do?

A

The propeller control regulates propeller pitch and engine RPM as desired for a given flight condition. The propeller control adjusts a propeller governor which establishes and maintains the propeller speed, which in turn maintains the engine speed.

51
Q

What would be the desired propeller setting for maximum performance situations such as takeoff?

A

A low pitch, high RPM setting produces maximum power and thrust. The low blade angel keeps the angle of attack small and efficient with respect to the relative wind. A the same time, it allows the engine to handle a smaller mass of air per revolution. This light load allows the engine to turn at high RPM and to convert the maximum amount of fuel into heat energy in a given time. The high RPM also creates maximum thrust because the mass of air handled per revolution is small, the number of revolutions per minute is many, the slipstream is high, and the airplane speed is low.

52
Q

What is a propeller governor?

A

The propeller governor, with the assistance of a governor pump, controls the flow of engine oil to or from a piston in the propeller hub. When the engine oil, under high pressure from the governor pump, pushes the piston forward, the propeller blades are twisted toward a high pitch/low RPM condition. When the engine oil is released from the cylinder, centrifugal force, with the assistance of an internal spring, twists the blades towards a low pitch/high RPM condition.

53
Q

When operating an engine with a constant-speed propeller, which condition induces the most stress on the engine?

A

Excessive manifold pressure raises the cylinder compression pressure, resulting in high stresses within the engine. Excessive pressure also produces high engine temperatures. A combination of high manifold pressure and low RPM can induce damaging detonation; however, it is a fallacy that (in non-turbocharged engines) the manifold pressure in inches of mercury (inches Hg) should never exceed RPM in hundreds for cruise power settings. The cruise power charts in the AFM/POH should be consulted when selecting cruise power settings. Whatever the combinations of RPM and manifold pressure listed in these charts - they have been flight tested and approved by the airframe and powerplant engineers for the respective airframe and engine manufacturer.

54
Q

For variable-pitch (constant speed) propellers, where does the fluid used to control the propeller condition come from?

A

Generally, the oil pressure used for pitch changes comes directly from the engine lubricating system. When a governor is employed, engine oil is used and the oil pressure is usually boosted by a pump that is integrated with the propeller governor

55
Q

What type fuel system does this aircraft have (C172S)?

A

The fuel system in a 172S consists of the following:

a. two vented integral fuel tanks
b. a three-position fuel selector valve
c. fuel reservoir tank
d. an electrically-driven auxiliary fuel pump
e. fuel shutoff valve
f. fuel strainer

Engine mounted portion:
g. engine-driven fuel pump
h. a fuel/air control unit
i. a fuel flow transducer
j. a fuel distribution valve (flow divider)
k. fuel injection nozzles

Fuel flows by gravity from the two wing tanks to a three-position fuel selector valve, labeled BOTH, RIGHT and LEFT, and on to the fuel reservoir tank. From the fuel reservoir tank, fuel flows through the electrically-driven auxiliary fuel pump, through the fuel shutoff valve, the fuel strainer, and to the engine-driven fuel pump. From the engine-driven fuel pump, fuel is delivered to the fuel/air control unit on the bottom of the engine. The fuel/air control unit (fuel servo) meters fuel flow in proportion to induction air flow. After passing through the control unit, metered fuel goes to a fuel distribution valve (flow divider) located on the top of the engine. From the fuel distribution valve, individual fuel lines are routed to air bleed type injector nozzles located in the intake chamber of each cylinder.

56
Q

When is the auxiliary fuel pump used in the C172S?

A

The auxiliary fuel pump is used primarily for priming the engine before starting. Priming is accomplished through the fuel injection system. The engine may be flooded if the auxiliary FUEL PUMP switch is accidentally placed in the ON position for prolonged periods, with MASTER Switch ON and mixture rich, with the engine stopped.

The auxiliary fuel pump is also used for vapor suppression in hot weather. Normally, momentary use will be sufficient for vapor suppression; however, continuous operation is permissible if required. Turning on the auxiliary fuel pump with a normally operating engine-driven fuel pump will result in only a very minor enrichment of the mixture.

It is not necessary to operate the auxiliary fuel pump during normal takeoff and landing, since gravity and the engine-driven fuel pump will supply adequate fuel flow. In the event of failure of the engine-driven fuel pump, use of the auxiliary fuel pump will provide sufficient fuel to maintain flight at maximum continuous power.

Under hot day, high altitude conditions, or conditions during a climb that are conducive to fuel vapor formation, it may be necessary to utilize the auxiliary fuel pump to attain or stabilize the fuel flow required for the type of climb being performed. In this case, turn the auxiliary fuel pump on, and adjust the mixture to the desired fuel flow. If fluctuating fuel flow (greater than 1 GPH) is observed during climb or cruise at high altitudes on hot days, place the auxiliary fuel pump switch in the ON position to clear the fuel system of vapor. The auxiliary fuel pump may be operated continuously in cruise.

57
Q

Why is it necessary to include a left and right position on the fuel selector valve?

A

When the fuel selector valve is placed in the BOTH position, while in cruise flight, unequal fuel flow from
each tank may occur if the wings are not maintained exactly level. Unequal fuel flow can be detected by one fuel tank indicating more fuel than the other on the L FUEL and R FUEL indicators. The resulting fuel imbalance can be corrected by turning the fuel selector valve to the fuel tank indicating the highest fuel quantity. Once the L FUEL and R FUEL indicators have equalized, position the fuel selector valve to the BOTH position.

During cruise flight, with the fuel selector valve on “Both,” unequal fuel flow may occur if the wings are not consistently kept level during the flight. This will result in one wing being heavier than the other. A fuel selector valve with the left/right option allows a pilot to control the situation by selecting the tank on the heavier wing and remaining on that tank until both tanks contain approximately the same amount of fuel.

58
Q

Where are the fuel vents located for each tank?

A

The fuel venting system consists of an interconnecting vent line between the fuel tanks and a check valve equipped overboard vent in the left fuel tank assembly. The overboard vent protrudes from the bottom surface of the left
wing, just inboard of the wing strut upper attachment point. The fuel filler caps are vacuum vented; the fuel filler cap vents will open and allow air to enter the fuel tanks in case the overboard vents become blocked.

59
Q

What purpose do the fuel tank vents have?

A

Fuel system venting is essential to system operation. Complete blockage of the fuel venting system will result in decreasing fuel flow and eventual engine stoppage. The fuel filler cap vents will open and allow air to enter the fuel tanks in case the overboard vents become blocked.

60
Q

What color of dye is added to the following fuel grades?

A

80 - Red
100 - Green
100LL - Blue
Jet A - Colorless or straw

61
Q

Where are the drain valves located?

A

5 under each wing; 3 under the fuel selector valve

62
Q

How is fuel quantity measured (C172S)?

A

Fuel quantity is measured by two fuel quantity sensors, one in each fuel tank, and is displayed on the EIS pages.

63
Q

Are the fuel quantity indicators accurate?

A

The fuel quantity indicator shows the fuel available in the tank up to the limit of the sensor measurement range. At this level, additional fuel may be added to completely fill the tank, but no additional movement of the indicator will result. The limit for sensor measurement range is approximately 24 gallons and is indicated by the maximum limit of the green band. When the fuel level decreases below the maximum limit of the fuel sensor, the fuel quantity indicator will display fuel quantity measured in each tank. A visual check of each wing tank fuel level must be performed prior to each flight. Compare the visual fuel level and indicated fuel quantity to accurately estimate usable fuel.

64
Q

Briefly describe the engine oil system.

A

The engine utilizes a full pressure, wet sump type lubrication system with aviation grade oil as the lubricant. The capacity of the engine sump, located on the bottom of the engine, is eight quarts with one additional quart contained in the engine oil filter.

Oil is drawn from the sump through a filter screen on the end of a pickup tube to the engine driven oil pump. Oil from the pump passes through a full-flow oil filter, a pressure relief valve at the rear of the right oil gallery, and a thermostatically controlled remote oil cooler. Oil from the remote cooler is then circulated to the left oil gallery. The engine parts are then lubricated by oil from the galleries. After lubricating the engine, the oil returns to the sump by gravity. The filter adapter in the full-flow filter is equipped with a bypass valve which will cause lubricating oil to bypass the filter in the event the filter becomes plugged, or the oil temperature is extremely cold.

65
Q

What are the minimum and maximum oil capacities (C172S)?

A

The engine should not be operated on less than five quarts of oil. To minimize loss of oil through the breather, fill to eight quarts for normal flights of less than three hours. For extended flight, fill to eight quarts (dipstick indication only).

66
Q

What are the minimum and maximum oil temperatures and pressures?

A

Oil temperatures - 75-245°F

Oil pressure:
0-20 PSI red band
50-90 PSI green band - normal operating range
115-120 PSI red band

With the engine at normal operating oil temperature, and engine speed at or close to idle, oil pressure below the green band, but above the lower red band, is acceptable.

67
Q

What are two types of oil available for use in your airplane?

A

Mineral oil - Also know as non-detergent oil; contains no additives. This type of oil normally used after an engine overhaul or when an aircraft engine is new; normally used for engine break-in purposes.

Ashless dispersant - Mineral oil with additives; high antiwear properties along with multi-viscosity (ability to perform in wide range of temps). Also picks up contamination and carbon particles and keeps them suspended so that buildups and sludge do not form in the engine.

68
Q

What type of oil is recommended for this engine (for summer and winter ops)?

A

MIL-L-22851 or SAE J1899 Ashless Dispersant Oil SAE Grade
Summer (above 60°F) use SAE 40 or SAE 50;
Winter use generally SAE 20W-50

More specifically for C172S:
Above 27°C (80°F) - 60 grade
Above 16°C (60°F) - 40 or 50 grade
-1°C (30°F)to 32°C (90°F) - 40 grade
-18°C (0°F) to 21°C (70°F) - 30,40 or 20W-40
Below -12°C (10°F) - 30 or 20W-30
-18°C (0°F) to 32°C (90°F) - 20W-50 or 15W-50
All Temperatures - 15W-50 or 20W-50

69
Q

Describe the electrical system on the C172S.

A

The airplane is equipped with a 28-volt direct current (DC) electrical system. A belt-driven 60 ampere alternator powers the system. A 24-volt main storage battery is located inside the engine cowling on the left firewall. The alternator and main battery are controlled through the MASTER switch found near the top of the pilots switch panel.

70
Q

Where is the battery located (C172S)?

A

A 24-volt main storage battery is located inside the engine cowling on the left firewall.

71
Q

How are the circuits for the various electrical accessories within the aircraft protected?

A

Most of the electrical circuits in an airplane are protected from an overload condition by either circuit breakers or fuses or both. Circuit breakers perform the same function as fuses except that when an overload occurs, a circuit breaker can be reset.

72
Q

What is a bus bar?

A

A bus bar is used as a terminal in the aircraft electrical system to connect to the main electrical system to the equipment using electricity as a source of power. This simplifies the wiring system and provides a common point from which voltage can be distributed throughout the system.

73
Q

The electrical system provides power for what equipment in an airplane?

A

Normally the following:

Radio equipment
Turn coordinator
Fuel gauges
Pitot Heat
Landing Light
Taxi Light
Strobe Lights
Interior Lights
Instrument Lights
Position Lights
Flaps
Stall warning system (maybe - yes in TH)
Oil temp gauge
Cigarette lighter (maybe)
Starting motor
Electric fuel pump

74
Q

What does the ammeter indicate?

A

It shows if the alternator/generator is producing an adequate supply of electrical power to the system by measuring the amperes of electricity, and also indicates whether the battery is receiving an electrical charge. If the needle indicates a plus value, it means that the battery is being charged. if the needle indicates a minus value, it means that the generator or alternator output is inadequate and energy is being drawn from the battery to supply the system.

75
Q

What function does the voltage regulator have?

A

A voltage regulator controls the rate of charge to the battery by stabilizing the generator or alternator electrical output. The generator/alternator voltage output is usually slightly higher than the battery voltage. For example, a 12-volt battery would be fed by a generator/alternator system of approximately 14 volts. The difference in voltage keeps the battery charged.

76
Q

What type of ignition system does your airplane have?

A

Engine ignition is provided by two engine-driven magnetos, and two spark plugs per cylinder. The ignition system is completely independent of the aircraft electrical system. The magnetos are self-contained units supplying electrical current without using an external source of power. However, before they can produce current, the magnetos must be actuated as the engine crankshaft is rotated by some other means. To accomplish this, the aircraft battery furnishes electrical power to operate a starter which, through a series of gears, rotates the engine crankshaft. This in turn actuates the armature of the magneto to produce the sparks for ignition of the fuel in each cylinder. After the engine starts, the starter system is disengaged and the battery no longer contributes to the actual operation of the engine.

77
Q

What are the two main advantages of a dual ignition system?

A

a. Increased safety - in case one system fails the engine may be operated on the other until a landing is safely made.

b. More complete and even combustion of the mixture, and consequently improved engine performance; i.e., the fuel/air mixture will be ignited on each side of the combustion chamber adn burn toward the center.

78
Q

Describe the defrosting systems in the C172S.

A

Windshield defrost air is also supplied by two ducts leading from the cabin manifold to defroster outlets near the lower edge of the windshield. Two knobs control sliding valves in either defroster outlet to permit regulation of defroster airflow.

79
Q

What function does the avionics power switch have?

A

The avionics power switch controls power from the primary bus to the avionics bus. The circuit is protected by a combination power switch/circuit breaker. Aircraft avionics are isolated from electrical power when the switch is in the “Off” position. Also, if an overload should occur in the system, the avionics power switch will move to the “Off” position, causing an interruption of power to all aircraft avionics.

80
Q

What are static dischargers?

A

Static dischargers are installed on aircraft to reduce radio receiver interference caused by corona discharge, which is emitted from the aircraft as a result of precipitation static. Static dischargers, normally mounted on the trailing edges of the control surfaces, wing tips, and vertical stabilizer, discharge the precipitation static at points a critical length away from the wing and tail extremities where there is little or no coupling of the static into the radio antenna.

81
Q

Describe the function of the avionics equipment acronym AHRS.

A

Attitude and Heading Reference System.

Composed of three-axis sensors that provide heading, attitude, and yaw information for aircraft. AHRS are designed to replace traditional mechanical gyroscopic flight instruments and provide superior reliability and accuracy.

82
Q

Describe the function of the avionics equipment acronym ADC.

A

Air Data Computer.

An aircraft computer that receives and processes pitot pressure, static pressure, and temperature to calculate very precise altitude, indicated airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed, and air temperature.

83
Q

Describe the function of the avionics equipment acronym PFD.

A

Primary Flight Display.

A display that provides increased situational awareness to the pilot by replacing the traditional six instruments with an easy-to-scan display that shows the horizon, airspeed, altitude, vertical speed, trend, trim, rate-of-turn, and more.

84
Q

Describe the function of the avionics equipment acronym MFD.

A

Multi-function Display.

A cockpit display capable of presenting information (navigation data, moving maps, terrain awareness, etc.) to the pilot in configurable ways; often used in concert with the PFD.

85
Q

Describe the function of the avionics equipment acronym FD.

A

Flight Director.

An electronic flight computer that analyzes the navigation selections, signals, and aircraft parameters. It presents steering instructions on the flight display as command bars or crossbars for the pilot to position the nose of the aircraft over or follow.

86
Q

Describe the function of the avionics equipment acronym FMS.

A

Flight Management System.

A computer system containing a database for programming of routes, approaches, and departures that can supply navigation data to the flight director/autopilot from various sources, and can calculate flight data such as fuel consumption, time remaining, possible range, and other values.

87
Q

Describe the function of the avionics equipment acronym TAWS.

A

Terrain Awareness and Warning System.

Uses the aircraft’s GPS navigation signal and altimetry systems to compare the position and trajectory of the aircraft against a more detailed terrain and obstacle database. This database attempts to detail every obstruction that could pose a threat to an aircraft in flight.

88
Q

What is the function of the magnetometer?

A

A magnetometer is a device that measures the strength of the earth’s magnetic field to determine aircraft heading; it provides this information digitally to the AHRS, which then sends it to the PFD.

89
Q

If a failure of one of the displays (PFD or MFD) occurs in an aircraft with an EFD, what will happen to the remaining operative display?

A

In the event of a display failure, some systems offer a “reversion” capability to display the primary flight instruments and engine instruments on the remaining operative display.