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PPL Exam > Airlaw > Flashcards

Airlaw Flashcards

1
Q

Part 1

A

General Policies, Procedures and Definition

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2
Q

Part 4

A

Aircraft Registration and Markings

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3
Q

Part 5

A

Airworthiness

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4
Q

Part 2

A

Personnel Licensing

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5
Q

Part 3

A

Approved Training Organization

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6
Q

Part 6

A

Approved Maintenance Organizations

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7
Q

Part 7

A

Instrument and Equipment

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8
Q

Part 8

A

Operations

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9
Q

No person may commence a flight in an airplane (propeller driven) at night unless considering the wind and forecast weather condition, there is enough fuel to fly (CAR’s Part 8.6.2.14)

A

45 minutes

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10
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless (Part 6.8.1.16)

A

The other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot with category and class rating appropriate to aircraft being flown

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11
Q

Vle

A

Landing gear extended

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12
Q

Vlof

A

Maximum lift-off speed

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13
Q

Vlo

A

Maximum landing gear operating speed

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14
Q

Vs1

A

Specified Config (stall speed clean config)
(48 kts)

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15
Q

Vs0

A

Stall Landing Config (dirty)

(43 kts)

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16
Q

VA

A

Maneuvering Speed (104 kts)

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17
Q

Vfe

A

Maximum Flap Extended speed
(Upper limit of White Arc)
(85 kts)

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18
Q

The operator of a civil state of foreign aircraft shall file a report of an aircraft that has involved in an accident or incident on the form and manner prescribed by the authority within ____. (PCAR’s Part 13.0.40)

A

10 Days

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19
Q

No person may taxi an aircraft in the movement area of an airport unless the permission from air traffic control _____ (CAR’s Part 8.6.1.1)

A

Has authorized by owner agent

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20
Q

Part 9

A

Air Operator Certification and Administration

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21
Q

Part 10

A

Commercial Air Transport by Foreign Carriers within the Republic of the Philippines

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22
Q

Part 11

A

Aerial Work and Operating Limitations for Non-Type Certificated Aircraft

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23
Q

Part 13

A

Accident and Incident Reporting and Investigation

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24
Q

Part 18

A

Transportation of Dangerous Goods by Air

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25
Q

Failure to perform preflight cockpit checklist (days)?

A

15 - 30 days

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26
Q

Flying without medical certification (days)?

A

15 - 60 days

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27
Q

Flying without medical certification (days)?

A

15 - 60 days

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28
Q

Failure to adhere taxi clearance or instructions (days)?

A

30 - 60 days / 1 - 2 months

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29
Q

Enroute deviation (days)?

A

30 - 90 days / 1 - 3 months

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30
Q

Collision while taxiing (days)?

A

30 - 120 days / 1 - 4 months

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31
Q

Wheel up landing (days)?

A

30 - 180 days / 1 - 6 months

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32
Q

Approach below VFR minimums (days)?

A

45 - 90 days

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33
Q

Takeoff against clearance (days)?

A

60 - 120 days / 2 - 4 months

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34
Q

Takeoff below weather minimums (days)?

A

60 - 120 days / 2 - 4 months

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35
Q

Vno

A

Maximum Structural Cruising Speed
(Upper limit of Green Arc)
(111 kts)

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36
Q

Vne

A

Never Exceed Speed
(Red line)
(149 kts)

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37
Q

Vx

A

Best Angle of Climb
(55 KIAS)

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38
Q

Vy

A

Best Rate of Climb
(67 KIAS @ sea level)

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39
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?

A

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air

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40
Q

After takeoff, which airspeed is the speed which results in the greatest gain of altitude in a given distance of climb?

A

Vy - best rate of climb

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41
Q

The applicant for a PPL shall be not less than ___ (age) (PCAR’s Part 2.3.3.2)

A

17 years old

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42
Q

This part contains the requirements for those operators and operations that are considered to be aerial work in the RP.

A

Part 11

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43
Q

This part contains requirements of the RP pertaining to notification, investigation, analysis, and reporting of aircraft incidents and accidents and certain other occurrences in the operation of aircraft.

A

Part 13

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44
Q

Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATC authority, a pilot files flight plan to the appropriate ATC facility at least ____ (mins) (PCAR’s Part 8.6.1.1)

A

60 mins

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45
Q

The definition of night

A

Civil twilight

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46
Q

With respect to certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

A

Normal, utility, acrobatic

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47
Q

With respect to certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

A

airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon

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48
Q

Where may an aircraft limitation be found?

A

In the FAA approved flight manual, approved manual materials, marketing and placards, or any combination thereof.

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49
Q

Excessively high engine temperatures will cause?

A

loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage

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50
Q

Which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic?

a. a balloon

b. An aircraft in distress

c. an aircraft on final approach to land

A

b.

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51
Q

What action is required when 2 aircraft of the same category converge, but not head on?

a. the faster aircraft shall give way

b. the aircraft on the left shall give way

c. each aircraft shall give way to the right.

A

c.

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52
Q

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right of way?

A

The airship

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53
Q

What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?

a. the airplane pilots should give way to the left

b. the glider pilots should give way to the right

c. Both pilots should give way to the right

A

c.

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54
Q

When 2 or more a/c are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft:

a. that has the other to its right

b. at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front or overtake another.

c. that is the least maneuverable

A

b.

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55
Q

Prior to starting each manuever, pilot should?

A

visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.

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56
Q

When activated an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmitter on _____ (frequency)?

A

121.5 - 243.0 MHz

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57
Q

When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter be replaced (or recharged if rechargeable)?

A

After one half of the battery’s useful life

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58
Q

When may an ELT be tested?

A

During the first 5 minutes after the hour.

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59
Q

Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the ELT has not been activated?

A

Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown

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60
Q

When must a pilot who deviated from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the administrator?

A

Upon request

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61
Q

Who is responsible for determining if an ac is in condition for safe flight?

A

The pilot in command

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62
Q

What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

A

The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift

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63
Q

Select the 4 flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft?

A

straight and level flight, turns, climbs, descents

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64
Q

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the?

A

PIC

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65
Q

The responsibility of ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the?

A

Owner and operator

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66
Q

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to:

a. review traffic control light signal procedures

b. check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the ELT

c. determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.

A

c.

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67
Q

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

a. check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries

b. become familiar with available information concerning the flight

c. review wake turbulence avoidance procedures

A

b.

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68
Q

Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during:

a. takeoff and landings

b. all flight conditions

c. flight in turbulent air

A

a.

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69
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight:

a. over a densely populated area

b. in class D airspace under special VFR

c. except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

A

c.

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70
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

a. airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air

b. single engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

c. lighter than air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon

A

b.

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71
Q

The definition of nighttime is?

a. sunset to sunrise

b. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise

c. The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

A

a.

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72
Q

An ATC clearance provides:

a. priority over all other traffic

b. adequate separation from all traffic

c. authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

A

c.

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73
Q

When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?

a. when acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery

b. only when passengers are carried

c. Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.

A

c.

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74
Q

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding:

a. 8 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours

A

a.

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75
Q

Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried abroad an aircraft?

a. in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care

b. only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot’s compartment

c. under no condition.

A

a.

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76
Q

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the * of an airport, shall include:

a. the designation of an alternate airport

b. a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use

c. an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned

A

c.

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77
Q

What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?

a. certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biannual flight review

b. a pilot certificate with an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience

c. an appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required

A

c.

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78
Q

In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may:

a. act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment

b. not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses involves only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees

c. not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight

A

c.

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79
Q

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with:

a. .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood

b. .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood

c. .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood

A

c.

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80
Q

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

a. enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions

b. enough to fly to the first point of the intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

c. enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

A

b.

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81
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring airworthiness directives are complied with?

A

Owner or operator

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82
Q

An airport/heliports to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the airport/heliports of intended landing where the necessary services and facilities are available, where aircraft performance requirements can be met and which is operational at the expected time of use.

A

Alternate airport/aerodrome/heliport

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83
Q

Kinds/types of alternate airports/heliports

A

Take-off alternate

En-route alternate

Destination alternate

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84
Q

An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft would be able to land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the airport/heliport of departure.

A

Take-off alternate

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85
Q

An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft would be able to land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en-route

A

En-route alternate

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86
Q

An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft would be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the airport/heliports of intended landing.

A

Destination alternate

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87
Q

For en route operations, no person may use an autopilot at an altitude above the terrain that is less than _____ ft.

A

500 ft

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88
Q

For instrument approach operations, no person may use an autopilot at an altitude above the terrain that is less than _____ ft. below the MDA or DH.

A

50 ft

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89
Q

For Category ____ and ____ approaches, the Authority may approve use of a flight control guidance system with automatic capability to touchdown.

A

Category II and III

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90
Q

Airmen Category Ratings

A

airplane
rotorcraft
glider
lighter than air
power lift

91
Q

Aircraft Class Rating

A

airplane
rotorcraft
glider
lighter than air

92
Q

Aircraft Category Rating

A

normal
utility
acrobatic

93
Q

CPL holder required medical certificate?

A

Class I medical certificate

94
Q

VFR day flights shall not takeoff/land at an aerodrome within a control zone or enter traffic pattern or aerodrome traffic zone if:

Ceiling is less than ____ m / _____ ft.

or

Ground visibility ____ km

A

Ceiling is less than 450 m / 1500 ft.

Ground visibility 5 km

95
Q

VFR night flights shall not takeoff/land at an aerodrome within a control zone or enter traffic pattern or aerodrome traffic zone if:

Ceiling is less than ____ m / _____ ft.

or

Ground visibility ____ km

A

Ceiling is less than 600 m / 2000 ft.

or

Ground visibility 8 km

96
Q

Commercial air transport documents should be kept for ___ months.

A

3 months

97
Q

Internal operation

__ hrs / week

__ hrs / month

__ hrs / year

A

30 hrs / week

100 hrs / month

1000 hrs / year

98
Q

Cat I

  • DH not lower than __ m / __ ft
  • Visibility not less than __ m
  • RVR not less than __m
A
  • DH not lower than 60 m / 200 ft
  • Visibility not less than 800 m
  • RVR not less than 550 m
99
Q

(PCAR 8.8.4.15)

Where a DH and MDA is applicable, no pilot may operate a civil aircraft at any airport below authorized MDA, or continue an approach below DH unless ___

A

.. the red terminating bars or the right side row bars are also distinctively visible and identifiable

100
Q

(PCAR 8.8.3.9)

If radio failure occurs in VFR while under ATC control, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot should:

1.
2.
3.

A
  1. continue flight under VFR
  2. land nearest suitable airport
  3. report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means possible
101
Q

(PCAR 8.6.2.20)

No person may continue a flight from an intermediate airport without a new operational flight plan if the aircraft has been on the ground more than ____ hours

A

6 hours

102
Q

Republic Act 9497 is also known as

A

CAAP

103
Q

(PCAR 8.9.1.1)

No PIC may allow an airplane to be refueled when passengers are embarking on board or disembarking unless

  1. 2.
A
  1. properly attended by qualified personnel
  2. two-way comms is maintained by ground crew supervising the refueling and qualified personnel on board the aircraft
104
Q

Flying an unworthy aircraft = ____ suspension

A

30 - 180 days / 1 - 6 months

105
Q

No pilot may operate in VFR flight above this altitude unless authorized by the appropriate ATC authority

A

FL 200 and transonic and supersonic speeds

106
Q

No person may serve nor may any AOC holder use a person as a required PIC in single pilot operations on aircraft engaged in commercial air transport operations if that person has reached his or her ____th birthday.

A

60th birthday

107
Q

For aircraft engaged in domestic commercial air transport operations requiring more than one pilot as flight crew members, the AOC holder may use one pilot up to age __ provided that the other pilot is less than age ___.

A

age 67 ; age 60

108
Q

For aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport operations requiring more than one pilot as flight crew members, the AOC holder may use one pilot up to age ___ provided that the other pilot is less than age __.

A

age 65 ; age 60

109
Q

(PCAR 8.4.1.9)

No person may act as PIC or a co-pilot of an aircraft unless, within the preceding (1)___ days that pilot has:

Made (2)____ takeoffs and landings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and if a type rating is required, of the same type or in a flight simulation training device approved for this purpose.

A

(1) 90 days

(2) 3 takeoffs and landings

110
Q

Maximum speed below 10,000 ft MSL

A

250 kts

111
Q

Applicant of IR must at least be a

A

PPL holder

112
Q

Civil Aviation Act = RA ____

A

RA 9497

113
Q

Minimum flight visibility SVFR

A

6.5 km

114
Q

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

a. Class A

b. Class B

c. Class C

A

a.

115
Q

To act as a pilot of civil aircraft of the republic of the PH registry, a pilot shall have his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a valid pilot license or special purpose authorization issued under these regulations when?

A

inspection of license

116
Q

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135 degrees?

a. 4500 ft

b. 5000 ft

c. 5500 ft

A

c. (half moon principle)

117
Q

Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3000 ft AGL on a magnetic course of 185 degrees?

a. 4000 ft

b. 4500 ft

c. 5000 ft

A

b. (half moon principle)

118
Q

Issuance of airmen licenses is based on PCAR Part?

A

Part 2

119
Q

Applicant for CPL must complete at least (1)___ hours of cross country time as a pilot in command including a cross country flight with distance totalling not less than (2) _____ km / _____ nm

A

(1) 20 hours

(2) 540 km / 300 nm

120
Q

During aircraft operations on the ground, no person may taxi an aircraft on the movement area of an airport unless the person at the controls:

1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. has been authorized by the owner, the lessee, or a designated agent
  2. is fully competent to taxi the aircraft
  3. is qualified to use the radio if radio communications are required
  4. has received instruction from a competent person in respect of airport layout and…
121
Q

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

a. enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions

b. enough to fly to the first point of the intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

c. enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

A

c.

122
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

a. an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface

b. an altitude of 500 ft above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

c. an altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1000 ft.

A

a.

123
Q

SVFR weather minimums

A

remain clear of clouds / 5km visibility

124
Q

ATC LIGHT GUN SIGNALS

A

ARALIN

125
Q

An imaginary line or a line on a map joining points on the earth’s surface at which the magnetic declination is the same

A

Isogonic line

126
Q

An imaginary line around the earth passing through both the north pole and the north magnetic pole, at any point on which a compass needle points to true north.

A

Agonic line

127
Q

Which part of PCAR refers to the ICAO Annex 1?

A

Part 2

128
Q

A series of green flashes directing from the control tower to an aircraft on ground is a signal to

A

Clear to taxi

129
Q

A CPL applicant shall have completed not less than ___ hrs of flight time or 150 hrs of flight time if he or she has satisfactorily completed a course of approved training.

A

200 hrs

130
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, no person may operate an aircraft below the following altitude over any congested area of the city or town or settlement or over any open air assembly of persons at altitudes below:

A
  1. 300 m / 1000 ft. above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of
  2. 600 m / 2000 ft. of the aircraft
131
Q

If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to the other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be?

A

Steady red

132
Q

Where a DH or MDA is applicable, no pilot may operate a civil aircraft at any airport or heliport below the authorized MDA, or continue an approach below the authorized DH unless

1.
2.
3.

A
  1. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers
  2. For commercial air transport operations, a descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of the intended landing
  3. the reported flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used or the…
133
Q

VFR shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone or enter the aerodrome traffic pattern zone or traffic pattern when

1.
2.
3.

A
  1. When the ceiling is less than 450 m or 1500 ft
  2. When the ground visibility is less than 5km
  3. visibility at least 5 km except when a clearance is obtained from ATC ceiling less than…
134
Q

Unless authorized by the appropriate ATC authority, no pilot may operate in VFR flight when?

A

between sunset and sunrise

135
Q

In the manner of compliance, what is the basic difference between ATC procedures and CAR?

A

Mandatory for CAR, optional for ATC

136
Q

In aircraft converging rules, which statement is correct?

A

The aircraft having the other to its right have the right of way

137
Q

What part of PCAR prescribed the requirements for instruments and equipment to be installed on aircraft expected to operate in the republic of PH?

A

Part 7

138
Q

An aircraft overtaken should expect to be passed on

A

should expect to be passed from the right

139
Q

The training required for flight crew members qualifying on another type or variant with the same or essentially the same cockpit configuration, due to aircraft type commonality and by defining the differences between the base and variant aircraft some of these training courses are shorter than a full transition syllabus.

A

Cross crew qualification

140
Q

Which category of aircraft must give right of way to all others in normal circumstances?

A

airplane

141
Q

If the privileges of the CPL are to exercised at night, 5 hours of night flight time including?

A

5 takeoffs and 5 landings as PIC

142
Q

This part describes the requirements of the republic of PH that apply to the carriage of dangerous goods by air as specified in the ICAO document, technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air

A

Part 18

143
Q

Unless otherwise authorized by the authority, no pilot operating an aircraft in commercial air transport operations may accept a clearance to take off from a civil airport under IFR unless weather conditions are at or above

1.
2.

A
  1. for aircraft other than helicopters, having two engines or less = 1500m (1 sm) visibility
  2. for aircraft having more than two engines = 800 m (1/2 sm)
144
Q

Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATC authority, a pilot should submit a flight plan to the appropriate ATC facility

A

at least 60 minutes before departure ; or if submitted during a flight time which will ensure its receipt by appropriate ATC facility at least 10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into control area or advisory area.

145
Q

In categories of precision approach and landing operations (CAT I) means?

  1. 2.
    3.
A
  1. a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height
  2. not lower than 60 m (200 ft)
  3. and either visibility not less than 800m or RVR not less than 550m.
146
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or except by permission from the appropriate authority, a VFR flight shall not be flown

1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. over the congested areas of cities, towns, or settlements or over an open air assembly
  2. of persons at a height less than 300m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius
  3. of 600m from the aircraft, elsewhere than as specified in
  4. at height less than 150m (500 ft) above the ground or water
147
Q

The CAAP is headed by?

A

Director general

148
Q

The applicant for CPL (A) shall have completed in airplane not less than

1.
2.

A
  1. 100 hours as PIC or in case of a course approved training
  2. 70 hours as PIC
149
Q

No person may land or takeoff an aircraft under VFR from an aerodrome located within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern airspace unless the

1.
2.

A
  1. reported ceiling is at least 450m (1500 ft)
  2. reported ground visibility is at least 5km or when a clearance is obtained from ATC ceiling less than 1500 ft.
150
Q

No person may continue a flight from an intermediate airport w/o a new operational flight plan if the aircraft has been the ground more than

A

6 hours

151
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in maneuvers exceeding a bank of 60 degrees or pitch of 30 degrees from level flight attitude unless all occupants of the aircraft are wearing parachutes packed by a qualified parachute riggers, licensed in accordance with part 2 of these regulations, in the past 12 calendar months

A

Aerobatic flight / TRUE

152
Q

A class 1 medical certificate is required for the issuance of what licenses?

A

CPL
ATPL
Flight Engineer
Flight Navigator

153
Q

In accordance with table of sanction under PCARS part 1, the penalty for landing at wrong airport

A

90 - 180 days

154
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

A
  1. over any city, towns or settlement
  2. over an open air assembly of persons
  3. within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of class B, C, D, or E
  4. below an altitude of 1500 ft. above the surface
  5. when the flight visibility is less than 5km
  6. unless in compliance with any other conditions prescribed by the authority
155
Q

At what altitude should all the flight crew members use breathing oxygen continuously?

A

14,000 ft

156
Q

What is the next higher appropriate cruise altitude or flight level from 5000 ft MSL for VFR flight along an airway whose magnetic course is 180?

A

6500 ft

157
Q

For flight planning document distribution and retention for operator engages in commercial air transport, completed flight preparation documents shall be kept by the operator for a period of

A

3 months

158
Q

No person may conduct a special VFR flight operation to enter the traffic pattern, land or takeoff an aircraft under special VFR from an airport in class B, C, D, or E airspace unless

1.
2.
3.

A
  1. authorized by an ATC clearance, under exceptional circumstances
  2. the aircraft remains clear of clouds
  3. the flight visibility is at least 5 km
159
Q

Time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraft solely by reference to instruments without external reference points

A

Instrument flight / instrument time

160
Q

When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head on, nearly so), who has the right of way?

A

The aircraft to the other’s right has the right of way

161
Q

In accordance with table of sanction under PCAR part 1, the penalty for deviation from instrument approach procedure is

A

30 - 90 days

162
Q

When operating an airplane beneath the ceiling within a control zone under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?

A

remain clear of clouds

at least 5km

163
Q

The applicant for CPL shall have completed not less than 200 hours of flight time or ____ hours of flight time if completed during an authority approved training course provided for in an approved training organization under part 3.

A

150 hours

164
Q

What is the minimum fuel requirements for VFR flight for turbo jet aircraft during day?

A

30 minutes for day VFR, enough fuel to reach destination

165
Q

The applicant for CPL shall have completed not less 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totaling not less than

A

540 km (300 nm)

166
Q

No scheduled or any non scheduled international operator may schedule any flight crew member and no flight crew member may accept an assignment for flight time in commercial flying if that flight crew member’s total time in all flying will exceed

1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. 30 hours in any 7 consecutive days
  2. 100 hours in any calendar months
  3. 1000 hours in any calendar year
  4. 8 hours between required rest period
167
Q

Name of the two aircraft documents required for all aircraft in operations

A

aircraft registration

airworthiness

168
Q

A pilot shall not operate an aircraft carrying passengers as PIC or copilot to operate the flight controls of a type or a variant of a type of aircraft during at least 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding ____

A

90 days

169
Q

What is sterile cockpit?

1.
2.

A
  1. when non essential activities are refrained during the critical phases of flight
  2. when all preflight checks have been made
170
Q

Autopilot (altitude)

A

FL 200 or 20,000

171
Q

Airbus inspection after 100 hours conditions

A

should not exceed 10 hours

172
Q

Which fire incident needs CAAP to be notified immediately?

A

In flight

173
Q

VFR minimums

1.
2.

A
  1. cannot go below 500 ft above land or sea
  2. at least 1000 ft obstacle clearance
174
Q

Night flying required number of touch and gos

A

5 touch and gos

175
Q

The operation of a base aircraft and variant of the same type, common type related type or different type by one or more flight crew members, between training or checking events

A

Mixed fleet flying

176
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight condition unless

1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. that aircraft has fully functioning dual controls except in the case of airships
  2. in a single engine airplane equipped with a throw over control wheel in place of fixed, dual control of the elevator and ailerons
  3. the other control set is occupied by a safety pilot who holds at least PPL with category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown
  4. the safety pilot is adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft of a competent observer.
177
Q

What altitude required breathing oxygen to be worn at all times?

1.
2.

A
  1. above 13,000 ft
  2. 10,000 ft =20,000 ft 30 minutes after
178
Q

What privileges can a CPL holder have subject to compliance with the requirements?

1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. to exercise all the privileges of the holder of PPL
  2. to act as PIC in any airplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation
  3. to act as PIC in commercial air transportation in any airplane certificated for single pilot operation
  4. to act as a copilot in commercial air transportation in airplanes required to be operated with a copilot
179
Q

Which part addresses article 32 of the Chicago Convention that required the republic of the PH to issue certificates of competency and licenses or validates such?

A

Part 2

180
Q

No person may act as a pilot under IFR nor in IMC, unless he or she has, within the past six calendar months

1.
2.

A
  1. logged at least 6 hours of instrument flight time including at least 3 hours in flight in the category of aircraft
  2. completed at least 6 instrument approaches
181
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility for a special VFR flight?

1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. 1 sm visibility
  2. clear of clouds
  3. within ATC clearance
  4. except for helicopters, when flight visibility is at least 1 sm
182
Q

No person may act as PIC or a copilot of an aircraft, within the preceding 90 days unless that pilot has

1.
2.
3.

A
  1. made 3 takeoffs and landings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and if a type rating is required of the same type or in flight simulation training device approved for the purpose
  2. for tailwheel airplane, made 3 takeoffs and landings
  3. for night operation, made 3 takeoffs and landing
183
Q

No person may act as flight operations officer in realizing a scheduled passenger carrying commercial air transportation operation unless that person

1.
2.
3.

A
  1. holds a flight operation officer license or an ATP license
  2. is currently qualified with the operator for the operation and type of aircraft used
  3. when the authority requires that a flight operation officer/flight dispatch
184
Q

A series of white flashes is transmitted from the control tower to an aircraft on ground. What does it mean?

A

Return to the starting point

185
Q

A co pilot is required for IFR commercial air transportation operation operations, unless the authority has issued an exemption. This exemption shall be for domestic operations only and airplane weighing less than 5700 kg or helicopters weighing less than 3175 kg.

A

Composition of flight crew / TRUE

186
Q

What segment starts from the initial approach fix to an intermediate fix or if possible the final approach fix?

A

Initial approach segment

187
Q

Applicants for CPL license must complete at least

A

20 hours

188
Q

In accordance with the table of sanction under PCAR part 1 the penalty for approach below weather minimum is

A

45 - 90

189
Q

In accordance with the table under PCARS part 1 the penalty for takeoff below weather minimum is

A

60 - 120

190
Q

In accordance with the table of sanction under PCARS part 1 the penalty for takeoff in overload aircraft is

A

60 - 120 days

191
Q

The operator of a civil, state or foreign aircraft shall file a report in the form and manner prescribed by the authority

1.
2.

A

(1)within 10 days after an incident or incident

(2)after 7 days if an overdue aircraft is still missing

192
Q

Aircraft flights under VFR condition shall have visibility and distance from cloud

A

(1)(day) horizontal 1 mile/vertical 1,000ft

(2)(night) 3sm flight visibility,500ft below clouds,1000ft above clouds and 2,000 horizontal distance from clouds

193
Q

In accordance the table of sanction under PCAR part 1 the penalty for deviation from ATC clearance or instruction on enroute is

A

30 - 90 days / 1 - 3 months

194
Q

Entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13,000ft (%)

A

100 % of passengers

195
Q

Entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10,000ft but not exceeding 13,000ft (%)

A

10% of passengers

196
Q

The applicant for CPL shall receive and log not less than

1.
2.

A

(1)25 hours of dual instruction from an authorized instructor

(2)these 25 hours may include 5 hours completed in flight simulator or flight procedures.

197
Q

If the privileges of CPL (A) are to be exercised at night the applicant shall have received 4 hours dual instruction in airplanes in night flying, including takeoffs, landings and

A

1 hour navigation

198
Q

What kind of training should give for mixed fleet flying for crewmembers by operators?

A

Cross Crew Qualification (CCQ)

199
Q

operating VFR within clouds (days)?

A

90 days suspension to revocation

200
Q

Operating within restricted or prohibited area (days)?

A

30 - 90 days suspension / 1 - 3 months

201
Q

operating without required equipment (days)?

A

15 - 120 days suspension

202
Q

Exceeding speed limitation in ATC area (days)?

A

30 - 60 days suspension / 1 - 2 months

203
Q

overweight landing (days)?

A

30 - 90 days suspension / 1 - 3 months

204
Q

Landing at wrong airport (days)?

A

90 - 180 days suspension / 3 - 6 months

205
Q

When you are on ground, if tower gives flashing green, what is it indicating?

A

cleared to taxi

206
Q

What is the precision approach altitude / visibility for IFR flight?

A

600 ft / 3 km

207
Q

What is the altitude / visibility for non precision approach?

A

800 ft. ; 5km / 3nm

208
Q

Aerobatic flight not allowed to fly under

A

A & B

209
Q

Unless otherwise the ATC approved, what is the minimum altitude to fly in VFR?

A

2000 ft

210
Q

Runway edge light color?

A

white

211
Q

threshold light color?

A

light green

(as you takeoff = light red)

212
Q

Displaced threshold color?

A

green appear

213
Q

touchdown zone lighting color?

A

white

214
Q

Taxiway lead if light color?

A

alternating green and yellow light

215
Q

Taxiway centerline light color?

A

green

216
Q

taxiway edge light color?

A

blue

217
Q

(2 bar VASI)

above glide path indication

A

2 white / 2 white (too high)

218
Q

(2 bar VASI)

on glide indication

A

2 white / 2 red

219
Q

(2 bar VASI)

below glide path indication

A

2 red / 2 red

220
Q

lighted heliport may be identified by a?

A

green, yellow, and white rotating beacon

221
Q

Steady red, flashing red ahead means

A

aircraft crossing to the left

222
Q

steady white, flashing red ahead, same altitude means

A

aircraft flying away from you

223
Q

steady red and green light ahead means

A

aircraft approaching head on

PPL Exam (4 decks)

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