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ATPL > AirLaw > Flashcards

AirLaw Flashcards

1
Q

Which airspaces are controlled for VFR

A

B, C, D
There is no A airspace

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2
Q

VMC visibility and cloud distance for controlled and uncontrolled airspace

A

At or Below 3000ft AMSL
> Class A, B, C, D, E : vis. 5km and 1500m horizontal with 1000ft vertical cloud separation
> Class G,F: 5km vis., clear of clouds and surface in sight

Below 10.000ft and above 3000ft
> All airspace: 5km vis. 1500m horizontal and 1000ft vertical cloud separation

Above 10.000ft
> All airspace: 8km vis, and 1500 horizontal with 1000ft vertical cloud separation

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3
Q

Flight Visibility may be reduced in uncontrolled airspace to… for VFR VMC, when…?

A

May be reduced to 1500m, during day, flying at speeds lower than 140kts and probability to encounter other traffic is low

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4
Q

VFR minima for T/O and LND
- controlled
- uncontrolled
- school SOP PAA

A

controlled:
- no ceiling below 1500ft
- visibility greater than 5km

uncontrolled:
- no ceiling below 600ft
- visibility greater than 1500m

SOP PAA:
- no ceiling below 1000ft (2000ft for SOLO)
- visibility greater than 5km

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5
Q

No VFR flight permitted if…

A
  • above FL195
  • flying at transonic or supersonic speeds
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6
Q

VFR minimum heights when flying at day and night

A
  • 500ft above ground or water, within 150m radius
  • 1000ft above congested areas, within a 600m radius
  • 500ft above mountains within 150m, SOP: 2000ft above mountains (3000ft and more elevation, otherwise hills with 1000ft clearance)

night: 1000ft above highest obstacle within 8km radius, 2000ft above mountains

Italy extra:
from 1. June to 30. Sep, no VFR flights above shore within 100m from both sides of the coastline at height less then 1000ft

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7
Q

VFR cruise altitudes, any restrictions ?
Explain the Semi-circular Rule

A

Below 3000ft, no restrictions

Above 3000ft, you must choose alt according to semi-circular rules:

The default worldwide semi-circular rule is the East/West orientation of the flight level parity: Your aircraft’s track is between 0° and 179°, your flight level or altitude must be odd (FL 55, FL75…). Your aircraft’s track is between 180° and 359°, your flight level or altitude must be even (FL45, FL65…)

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8
Q

Night VFR

A

only allowed if
- ceiling is greater than 1500ft,
- 5km visibility and 8km in mountainous areas
- Night VFR equipment

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9
Q

Day and Night VFR equipment

A

Day Equipment: A-TOMATO-FLAMES

A - Airspeed Indicator

T - Tachometer
O - Oil Pressure Gauge
M - Manifold Pressure Gauge
A - Altimeter
T - Temperature Gauge
O - Oil Temperature Gauge

F - Fuel Gauge
L - Landing Gear Position Indicator
A - Anti-Collision Lights
M - Magnetic Compass
E - Emergency Location Transmitter
S - Safety Belts

Night Equipment: FLAPS

F – Fuses
L – Landing Light
A – Anti-Collision Lights
P – Position Lights
S – Source of Power

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10
Q

Special VFR

When are pilots allowed to ask for it?
What are ATC limits

A

FOM:
While operating a flight under special VFR clearance, the pilot in command must:
* remains clear of clouds;
* at a speed of 140 KIAS or less and;
* the visibility required is not less than 1500 m
It is forbidden to ask a special VFR clearance if the ground visibility reported is:
* less than 1500 m or;
* the cloud ceiling is below 1000 ft.

Forbidden to request as a solo student!!

  • only during the DAY
  • conducted by the pilot
  • clear of cloud and with the surface in sight;
  • can be authorized in controlled airspace
  • flight vis not less than 1500m
  • fly at speeds lower than 140kts, to avoid obstacles and traffic
  • they shall be separated like IFR traffic

Pilots may ask for it if ceiling at 1000ft and above
ATC unit shall not issue a special VFR clearance to aircraft to take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic circuit when the reported meteorological conditions at that aerodrome are below the following minima:

(1) the ground visibility is less than 1 500 m
(2) the ceiling is less than 600 ft

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11
Q

Change from VFR to IFR

A
  • if flight plan was submitted communicate the changes to the curent flight plan
  • submit Flight plan to appropriate ATS ASAP and obtain clearance before proceeding as IFR in controlled airspace
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12
Q

is there any IFR in uncontrolled airspace

A

Yes, class F and G has IFR and VFR traffic

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13
Q

Submission of Flight Plan, when do we need one?

f) points

A

Shall be submitted when:
a) flight in controlled airspace, with ATC control service
b) T/O or LND in controlled areas
c) Flight across international borders
d) Flight operated at night, if leaving the vicinity of the airport
e) An Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) flight within advisory airspace;
f) A flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate the provision of flight information service, alerting and search and rescue services

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14
Q

Abbreviated Flight Plan

A

May be submitted by VFR fights which:
- operate within CTR or controlled ATZ
- T/O from aerodrome within a CTR or a controlled ATZ to leave controlled airspace
- enter a CTR or controlled ATZ
- Cross one or more controlled airspaces
- do not leave the vicinity of an airport if conducted in night VFR

is submitted by radio telephony

submit it at least 10min before TMA or CTA

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15
Q

Airspace A

A

Class A airspace is one with the highest level of requirements and services provided, it’s only for IFR flights. Usually used for the highest flight levels of enroute environment.

Type of flight: IFR
Separation provided: Yes, between IFR
Services provided: Air Traffic Control, Flight Information, Alerting
Speed limit: NO
Radio Communication: Continuous, two ways
ATC clearance: Required

NO VFR flights permitted

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16
Q

Airspace B

A

Class B airspace is designed usually for the world biggest aerodromes.

Type of flight: IFR
Separation provided: Yes, between IFR and between IFR and VFR
Services provided: Air Traffic Control, Flight Information, Alerting
Speed limit: NO
Radio Communication: Continuous, two ways
ATC clearance: Required

Type of flight: VFR
Separation provided: Yes, between VFR and between VFR and IFR
Services provided: Air Traffic Control, Flight Information, Alerting
Speed limit: NO
Radio Communication: Continuous, two ways
ATC clearance: Required

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17
Q

Airspace C

A

Class C airspace is the most commonly used controlled airspace both for enroute and terminal traffic.

Type of flight: IFR
Separation provided: Yes, between IFR and between IFR and VFR
Services provided: Air Traffic Control, Flight Information, Alerting
Speed limit: NO
Radio Communication: Continuous, two ways
ATC clearance: Required

Type of flight: VFR
Separation provided: Yes, between VFR and IFR. Only Traffic Information between VFR
Services provided: Air Traffic Control, Flight Information, Alerting
Speed limit: 250KT below 10000ft/FL100
Radio Communication: Continuous, two ways
ATC clearance: Required

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18
Q

Airspace D

A

Class D airspace is usually designed for aerodromes and TMAs with lower traffic levels.

Type of flight: IFR
Separation provided: Yes, between IFR only. Traffic Information between IFR and VFR
Services provided: Air Traffic Control, Flight Information, Alerting
Speed limit: 250KT below 10000ft/FL100
Radio Communication: Continuous, two ways
ATC clearance: Required

Type of flight: VFR
Separation provided: Only Traffic Information between VFR and between VFR and IFR
Services provided: Air Traffic Control, Flight Information, Alerting
Speed limit: 250KT below 10000ft/FL100
Radio Communication: Continuous, two ways
ATC clearance: Required

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19
Q

Airspace E

A

Class E airspace is something in between, although classified as controlled one, it is controlled airspace for IFR and practically uncontrolled, like Class G, for VFR traffic. So, IFR flights are subject to an ATC clearance while VFR not. The air traffic services in Class E airspace are usually provided simultaneously by two units – ATC for IFR and FIS for VFR traffic.

Type of flight: IFR
Separation provided: Yes, between IFR only. Traffic Information between IFR and VFR
Services provided: Air Traffic Control, Flight Information, Alerting
Speed limit: 250KT below 10000ft/FL100
Radio Communication: Continuous, two ways
ATC clearance: Required

Type of flight: VFR
Separation provided: Only Traffic Information between VFR and between VFR and IFR
Services provided: Flight Information, Alerting
Speed limit: 250KT below 10000ft/FL100
Radio Communication: Not required
ATC clearance: Not required

20
Q

Airspace F

A

Class F airspace is uncontrolled one offering advisory and flight information services. Rarely used, and if so, it would be usually as a temporary measure.

Type of flight: IFR
Separation provided: Traffic Information between VFR and IFR
Services provided: Flight Information, Alerting
Speed limit: 250KT below 10000ft/FL100
Radio Communication: Continuous, two ways
ATC clearance: Not Required

Type of flight: VFR
Separation provided: No Separation
Services provided: Flight Information on request, Alerting
Speed limit: 250KT below 10000ft/FL100
Radio Communication: Not required
ATC clearance: Not required

21
Q

Airspace G

A

Class G airspace is uncontrolled airspace where flight information service is provided. In uncontrolled airspace radar service is available, usually on pilot’s request, the service is provided in some FIRs by ATC units on workload providing basis, in others the service, which is practically an advisory one, may be provided by FIS.

Type of flight: IFR
Separation provided: No Separation
Services provided: Flight Information on request, Alerting
Speed limit: 250KT below 10000ft/FL100
Radio Communication: Continuous, two ways
ATC clearance: Not Required

Type of flight: VFR
Separation provided: No Separation
Services provided: Flight Information on request, Alerting
Speed limit: 250KT below 10000ft/FL100
Radio Communication: Not required
ATC clearance: Not required

22
Q

Control Area - CTA

A

A control area named CTA is a controlled airspace that exists in the vicinity of an airport, which extends from a lower level to a specified upper level. The lower level shall not be the ground. It usually is situated on top of a control zone and provides protection to aircraft climbing out from the airport.

A CTA can sit over several of the individual airports’ CTRs. In larger-scale cases, this is known as a terminal manoeuvring area (TMA).

Is a controlled enroute airspace where the ATC service is provided by area control (call sign “RADAR” / ”CONTROL” / ”CENTER”)

CTA – control area - generally means the controlled airspace governed by area control, at some locations, are designed CTAs where the ATC service is delegated to a different unit, i.e., piece of airspace delegated from area control to approach control. (call sign according to the unit providing service – “APPROACH”, or “RADAR” / “CONTROL” / “CENTER”)

23
Q

TMA

A

A terminal area named TMA or known as terminal manoeuvring area is a controlled airspace surrounding a major airport with a high volume of traffic.

A TMA is the airspace in which approach control service is provided.

Is a controlled airspace designed for transition between enroute and aerodrome/terminal environment, where the ATC service is provided by approach control (call sign “APPROACH”). In areas of high traffic level, the service may be divided into “ARRIVAL”, “DEPARTURE”, “DIRECTOR”.

24
Q

CTR

A

A control zone named CTR or known as controlled traffic region is a controlled airspace, normally around an airport, which extends from the surface to a specified upper limit, established to protect air traffic operating to and from that airport.

where ATC service is provided by tower control (call sign “TOWER”). At busy aerodromes the service may be divided into tower control “TOWER”, ground control “GROUND” and clearance delivery “DELIVERY”.

25
Q

ATZ

A

ATZ – aerodrome traffic zone – uncontrolled airspace designed for some uncontrolled aerodromes, there may be a flight director or radio operator designated, if not, pilots shall broadcast their message. (call sign “RADIO” or, while broadcasting information, call sign “TRAFFIC” is also used).

In some congested ATZ the flight information service is provided by aerodrome flight information service (AFIS), (call sign “INFORMATION”)

In uncontrolled, area type airspace, there is flight information service provided (call sign “INFORMATION”). At some locations certain services may be provided by nearby ATC units.

26
Q

FIR

Size of it?
Vertical Limits?

A

A Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information service and alerting service are provided.

There is no standard size for FIRs – it is a matter of administrative convenience of the countries concerned:

  • One FIR for one medium country’s airspace
  • Several FIRs for one large country’s airspace
  • One FIR for several small country’s airspace

In some cases there is a vertical division of the FIR, in which case the lower portion remains named as FIR, whereas the airspace above is named Upper Information Region or UIR.

27
Q

FIS

A

Flight Information Service: A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.

28
Q

Alerting Service

A

Alerting Service: A service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and to assist such organizations as required.

29
Q

Airway

A

An airway or flight path is a designated route in the air.

Airways are defined segments within a specific altitude block, corridor width, and between:

  • points in airspace based on geographic coordinates named fix(es)
  • Radio navigational aids (navaids) (such as VORs or NDBs)
  • The intersection of specific radials of two navaids.
  • The distance from a navaid using additional navaid named DME
30
Q

Oceanic airspace

A

Definition: Oceanic airspace is airspace located over oceans, often beyond ground-based radar coverage.

Control Method: Controllers use procedural control (pilot reports and computer models) instead of direct radar control.

Regions: Oceanic airspace is divided into information regions (OIRs), managed by controlling authorities of bordering regions.

Pilot Navigation: Pilots determine positions with GPS or inertial flight systems and provide updates to controllers.

Communication:
- Real-world: Pilots use high frequency (HF) radio due to its long-range capability.
-
IVAO: HF is not simulated; VHF frequency is mandatory as propagation effects aren’t modeled.

31
Q

Airspace restrictions and reservations

A

Each State can define parts of its airspace so that flights within such defined airspace are prohibited, restricted or performed with care.
Airspace restrictions can have the following form:

  • Danger area
  • Restricted area
  • Prohibited area

These zones have their own lateral and vertical limits, and appear in the ENR (en-route) section in the AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication), coded as follow:
> XX: Country ICAO prefix code
> D/P/R: Type of restriction (‘D’ for Dangerous zone, ‘P’ for Prohibited zone and ‘R’ for Restricted zone);
> Lateral limits
> Type of restriction or danger
> Period of activation (Always activated for a prohibited zone)
> Other information

32
Q

Prohibited Zone

A

A prohibited zone (P) is an airspace of defined limits in which flying is totally prohibited (except for some authorized military and government use).
This is the most restrictive zone.
Civil flights are not allowed in these areas, except special authorization.

33
Q

Dangerous zone

A

A dangerous zone (D) is an airspace of defined limits in which dangerous activities for aircraft may develop. Typical activities developed might be: test flights, parachuting, rocket-launching…
Normally, there are specific periods of time when dangerous activities take place; then, the dangerous zone is said to be ‘active’. If this zone is not active, then this area can be considered as disabled and there is no danger.

This zone is the least restrictive one. It is the pilot who decides whether or not to cross an active D zone, and if crossed, safety must be ensured. If this zone is not active, there is no additional danger than in other airspaces.

34
Q

Restricted Zone

A

A restricted zone (R) is an airspace of defined limits in which dangerous activities for aircraft may develop. Typical restricted zones might be zones with: training flights, military training, sensitive fauna…

Normally, there are specific periods of time when dangerous activities take place; then, the restricted zone is said to be ‘active’ and it must not be crossed unless complying with published requirements.

In restricted zones the pilot cannot decide whether to cross this active area or not, due to the high risk involved. The pilot can cross this area only if he received a clearance from the air traffic controller.

35
Q

Fuel Requirements

A

Final Reserve Fuel shall not be less than:
(1) for 10 minutes at maximum continuous cruise power at 1 500 ft (450 m) above the destination under VFR by day, taking off and landing at the same aerodrome/landing site, and always remaining within sight of that aerodrome/landing site;

(2) for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 ft (450 m) above the destination under VFR by day;

(3) for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 ft (450 m) above the destination or destination
alternate aerodrome under VFR flights by night and IFR;

36
Q

Required Documents On Board

A
  1. Certificate of Registration
  2. Certificate of Airworthiness
  3. ARC - Airworthiness Renewal Certificate
  4. Noise Certificate
  5. Radio Station Licence
  6. Third Party Liability Insurance Certificate
  7. Aircraft Flight Manual
  8. Aircraft Technical Logbook
37
Q

Document the pilot needs to carry

A
  1. Pilot Licence
  2. Valid Medical Certification
  3. Valid Passport, identification card
  4. Logbook for Solo Flights
38
Q

Medical Class 1

A
  1. Class 1 Medical Certificate

This is for pilots holding Commercial Pilot Licenses (CPL) or Airline Transport Pilot Licenses (ATPL)—basically anyone engaged in professional aviation (paid flying).
_______________________________________________
Key Points:

Required for:
* CPL (Commercial Pilot License)
* ATPL (Airline Transport Pilot License)
* MPL (Multi-Crew Pilot License)

Validity:
* 12 months (general standard).
* 6 months if over 40 years of age and operating multi-pilot commercial air transport.
* 6 months if over 60 years of age.

Examinations and Requirements:
* Extensive tests covering vision, hearing, cardiovascular health (including ECG), lung function, blood tests, and general physical and mental health.
* Higher medical standards than Class 2.
* Vision limits: Near and distant vision correction are allowed, but color vision must meet specific standards.

Limitations:
* May carry specific restrictions if the pilot has a condition requiring monitoring (e.g., “Valid only with corrective lenses”).

39
Q

Private Pilot Privileges and Limitations

A

Privileges

  1. Act as Pilot-in-Command (PIC):
    - Fly aircraft for non-commercial purposes (recreational or private use).
    - Carry passengers (no compensation allowed, except cost-sharing).
  2. Types of Aircraft:
    - Operate aircraft for which you are rated (e.g., single-engine, multi-engine).
  3. Cost-Sharing:
    - Share flight costs with passengers, provided the pilot pays their share.
  4. Additional Ratings:
    - Obtain additional privileges with further training (e.g., night rating, instrument rating, aerobatics, or towing).

_______________________________________________
Limitations

  1. No Commercial Flights:
    - Cannot be paid for flying services.
    - Cannot act as PIC of aircraft requiring more than one pilot unless properly rated.
  2. Currency Requirements:
    - Must meet recency requirements (e.g., three takeoffs and landings in the last 90 days to carry passengers).
  3. Operational Limits:
    - Restricted to visual flight rules (VFR), unless an instrument rating (IR) is added.
  4. No Heavy Aircraft:
    - Limited to aircraft under the license’s scope (e.g., usually under 5,700 kg).
40
Q

Medical Issued and renewed by…?

A

Issuance:

  • Class 1: Issued only by an AeMC (Aeromedical Center).
  • Class 2: Issued by an AeMC or an AME (Aeromedical Examiner).
  • LAPL: Issued by an AeMC, AME, or a GMP (General Medical Practitioner) if allowed by national law.

____________________________________________________
Revalidation and Renewal:

  • Class 1 and Class 2: Revalidated or renewed by an AeMC or an AME.
  • LAPL: Revalidated or renewed by an AeMC, AME, or GMP (if permitted by national law).
41
Q

Medical Validity

A

Validity
_________________________________________
Class 1 Medical (Professional Pilots)
* 12 months (standard).
* 6 months:
* For single-pilot commercial air transport carrying passengers after age 40.
* For all Class 1 holders after age 60.
__________________________________________
Class 2 Medical (Private Pilots)
* 60 months:
* Up to age 40 (expires at 42 if issued before turning 40).
* 24 months:
* From age 40 to 50 (expires at 51 if issued before turning 50).
* 12 months:
* For pilots above 50.
___________________________________________
LAPL Medical (Recreational Pilots)
* 60 months:
* Up to age 40 (expires at 42 if issued before turning 40).
* 24 months:
* For pilots above 40.

42
Q

Medical Class 2

A

This is for private pilots flying for recreational purposes under a Private Pilot License (PPL).
___________________________________________
Key Points:

Required for:
* PPL (Private Pilot License)
* SPL (Sailplane Pilot License)
* BPL (Balloon Pilot License)

Validity:
* 60 months if under 40 years of age.
* 24 months if 40–49 years old.
* 12 months if over 50 years old.

Examinations and Requirements:
* Less stringent compared to Class 1 but still covers vision, hearing, cardiovascular health, and a general medical check.
* Some conditions (e.g., controlled diabetes or mild hypertension) may require additional assessments or monitoring.

Limitations:
May include conditions like “no night flying” or “valid only with corrective lenses” if necessary.

43
Q

LAPL - Light Aircraft Pilot License Medical

A
  1. LAPL Medical Certificate (Light Aircraft Pilot License Medical)

This is for pilots flying under the Light Aircraft Pilot License (LAPL), which is primarily used for lighter, simpler aircraft with lower medical requirements. It’s designed for recreational pilots.
_________________________________________
Key Points:

Required for:
* LAPL (Light Aircraft Pilot License)

Validity:
* 60 months if under 40 years of age.
* 24 months if over 40 years of age.

Examinations and Requirements:
* Medical standards are less rigorous than Class 2. Often assessed by a General Practitioner (GP) who is authorized for LAPL assessments.
* Focuses on conditions affecting general health, vision, and hearing rather than comprehensive testing.

Limitations:
* More restrictions may be imposed (e.g., limited to daytime or local flights).

44
Q

Student Pilot Privileges and Limitations

A

Privileges:
- May act as PIC during authorized solo flights under the supervision of a flight instructor.
- Can practice maneuvers and gain flight experience within the limitations of their training.
___________________________________________________

Limitations:
- A student pilot cannot carry passengers or act as Pilot in Command (PIC) on flights that require more than one pilot.
- No compensation or hire: Cannot conduct flights for remuneration.
- Must always have instructor authorization for solo flights and comply with any limitations noted in their logbook.
- Restricted to VFR conditions: Can only fly in visual flight rules (VFR) and not at night unless specifically trained and endorsed.

45
Q
A
46
Q
A

ATPL (6 decks)

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