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Commercial Pilot Written Exam > Airframes, Engines, and Aircraft systems > Flashcards

Airframes, Engines, and Aircraft systems Flashcards

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1
Q

What will happen to a piston-powered aircraft if the main electrical system fails?
1. The engine will produce less power but keep running
2 .The engine will continue to operate because the magnetos are a separate system.
3. The propeller will windmill and provide vacuum power for the gyros.
4. The engine will fail when battery power is depleted.

A

The engine will continue to operate because the magnetos are a separate system

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2
Q

Carburetor heat is normally applied

  1. During high power operations.
  2. Before reducing power.
  3. When on the ground while taxiing.
  4. When flying in cloud.
A

Before reducing power

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3
Q

Hot, high, and humid conditions have the effect of

  1. Reducing the engine power output.
  2. Increasing the amount of fuel burned per hour.
  3. Improving propeller efficiency.
  4. Creating a lower density altitude.
A

Reducing engine power output

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4
Q

Abnormally high cylinder head temperature is an indication of the engine being

  1. Overloaded and can cause detonation and pre-ignition.
  2. Underloaded and can cause detonation or pre-ignition.
  3. Sufficiently cooled.
  4. None of the above.
A

Overloaded and can cause detonation and pre-ignition

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5
Q

One difference between the turbocharger and the supercharger is that the

  1. Turbocharger is driven by exhaust gases that would otherwise be wasted.
  2. Supercharger is driven electricity.
  3. Turbocharger does not require maintenance.
  4. Supercharger is not affected by changes in altitude.
A

Turbocharger is driven by exhaust gases that would otherwise be wasted

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6
Q

The primary disadvantage of the supercharger is that it

  1. Is more expensive to run than the turbocharger.
  2. Is more maintenance intensive than the turbocharger.
  3. Takes noticeable power away from the engine to run it.
  4. Compresses the fuel and air mixture before entering the engine.
A

Takes noticeable power away from the engine to run

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7
Q

During which stroke is a vacuum developed in the cylinder?

  1. Exhaust
  2. Intake
  3. Compression
  4. Power
A

Intake

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8
Q

If you smell exhaust in the cockpit while flying, it is best to

  1. Fly to the nearest airport to investigate.
  2. Turn OFF cabin heat and ventilate the cabin for fresh air.
  3. Turn OFF the engine and make a forced approach.
  4. Turn OFF the electronics and plan for a precautionary landing.
A

Turn OFF cabin heat and ventilate the cabin for fresh air

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9
Q

What is the ratio of air to fuel for best power?

1: 14
15: 1
1: 15
14: 1

A

14:1 (note asks for air to fuel, instead of fuel to air)

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10
Q

What would happen if a magneto ground wire or P-lead failed?

  1. The engine will continue to run.
  2. The engine will continue to run and remain live even after aircraft shutdown.
  3. The engine will not start.
  4. The engine would run rough during flight.
A

The engine would continue to run and remain live even after aircraft shutdown

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11
Q

Which statement regarding the operation of the waste gate is false?

  1. The waste gate regulates the speed of the turbocharger.
  2. When the waste gate is closed the engine is turbocharged.
  3. When the waste gate is closed the exhaust gases bypass the turbine.
  4. The waste gate regulates the amount of exhaust gas directed to the turbine.
A

When the waste gate is closed the exhaust gases bypass the turbine

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12
Q

The most basic form of turbine engine is the

  1. Turboprop.
  2. Turbojet
  3. Rocket jet.
  4. Turbofan.
A

Turbojet

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13
Q

In a turbojet engine large amounts of outside air are continuously brought in through the

  1. Turbine.
  2. Compressor.
  3. Inlet.
  4. Nozzle.
A

Inlet

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14
Q

The two main parts of a turboprop is the

  1. Gear box and the core engine.
  2. Propeller and the compressor.
  3. Drive turbine and the inlet.
  4. Core engine and the propeller.
A

Core engine and the propeller

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15
Q

The bypass ratio of a turbofan engine is the ratio of air flowing around the

  1. Turbine to the air that goes around the engine.
  2. Turbine to the air that goes around the core.
  3. Variable stator vanes to the air that goes around the core.
  4. Engine to the air that goes through the core.
A

Engine to the air that goes through the core

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16
Q

The turboshaft engine is similar to the

  1. Turboprop engine.
  2. Turbojet engine.
  3. Diesel engine.
  4. Turbofan engine.
A

Turboprop engine

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17
Q

Which statement regarding the operation of a turbojet engine is incorrect?

  1. The exit velocity is greater than the free stream velocity, producing thrust.
  2. The exit velocity of the by-pass air is less than the free stream velocity, producing thrust.
  3. The energy extracted by the turbine is used to turn the compressor.
  4. Instead of needing energy to turn the blades, the turbine extracts energy from the flow of hot air exhausting from the engine by the turbine blades spinning in the exhaust air.
A

The exit velocity of the by-pass air is less than the free stream velocity producing thrust

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18
Q

The compressor of the turbojet acts like many rows of

  1. Nozzles.
  2. Fans.
  3. Airfoils.
  4. Compressor fans.
A

Airfoils

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19
Q 
In a typical jet engine . . . . . lb of air per second is combined with only . . . . . lb of fuel per second.
100, 5
200, 2
1 000, 2
100, 2
A

100, 2

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20
Q

In the turboprop engine most of the energy created by the

  1. Free stream is used to turn the compressor turbine.
  2. Driveshaft is used to turn the power turbine.
  3. Compressor is used to turn the compressor turbine.
  4. Exhaust is used to turn the power turbine.
A

Exhaust is used to turn the power turbine

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21
Q

Fine pitch is used for

  1. Cruise.
  2. Takeoff and climb.
  3. Eliminating propeller drag.
  4. Neutral thrust.
A

Takeoff and climb

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22
Q

For cruise the pilot would set the propeller to

  1. Beta.
  2. Feather.
  3. Fine.
  4. Coarse.
A

Coarse

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23
Q

If not repaired a nick on a propeller blade could lead to

  1. Damage to the engine.
  2. Vibration and roughness.
  3. Snow or ice accumulation.
  4. Cracks developing.
A

Cracks developing

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24
Q

Propeller RPM is controlled by

  1. Varying the propeller blade angle.
  2. The autopilot.
  3. The alternator.
  4. Airspeed and engine power setting.
A

Varying the propeller blade angle

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25
Q

What force applies to tail wheel airplanes when they lift their tail off the runway during takeoff ?

  1. P-Factor
  2. Gyroscopic precession
  3. Slipstream
  4. Torque
A

Gyroscopic precession

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26
Q

The difference between geometric pitch and effective pitch is

  1. applicable to fixed-pitch propellers
  2. propeller slip
  3. propeller torque
  4. propeller efficiency
A

propeller slip

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27
Q

The ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower is

  1. Geometric pitch
  2. Propeller slip
  3. Propeller efficiency
  4. Effective pitch
A

Propeller efficiency

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28
Q

To counteract windmilling propeller the pilot would

  1. Feather the propeller
  2. Lean the mixture
  3. Set coarse pitch
  4. Set Fine pitch
A

Feather the propeller

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29
Q

Torque from the spinning propeller results in

  1. Asymmetric thrust
  2. A turning tendency
  3. P-Factor
  4. Gyroscopic precession
A

A turning tendency

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30
Q

While within the governing range, any changes in engine power and or airspeed the governor will

  1. Maintain a steady RPM if a constant-speed propeller system is used.
  2. Cause changes in RPM even when a constant-speed propeller system is used.
  3. Cause changes in RPM regardless whether fixed-pitch or constant-speed propeller system is being used.
  4. Maintain a steady RPM if a fixed-pitch propeller system is used.
A

Maintain Steady RPM if a constant-speed propeller is used

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31
Q

Which statement is correct regarding blade pitch?

  1. Small blade angles load the engine and increase RPM.
  2. Small blade angles unload the engine and decrease RPM.
  3. Large blade angles unload the engine and increase RPM.
  4. Large blade angles load the engine and decrease RPM.
A

Large blade angles load the engine and decrease RPM

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32
Q

Coarse pitch also means

  1. High pitch.
  2. Flat pitch.
  3. Fine pitch.
  4. Beta pitch.
A

High Pitch

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33
Q

What drives the propeller blades of a full-feathering system towards coarse pitch?

  1. Counterweights and internal springs
  2. Oil pressure to the hub
  3. Aerodynamic forces
  4. Oil pressure to the hub and aerodynamic forces
A

Counterweights and internal springs

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34
Q

Oil pressure boosted by the governor has the purpose of moving the propeller towards

  1. Feathered position in a single-engine aeroplanes.
  2. Coarse pitch in a multi-engine aeroplanes.
  3. Coarse pitch in a single-engine aeroplanes.
  4. Fine pitch in a single-engine aeroplanes.
A

Coarse pitch in single-engine aeroplanes

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35
Q

As the oil pressure drops on a constant-speed non-feathering system the governor would make the propeller

  1. Feather automatically.
  2. Remain fixed in the pitch position.
  3. Full fine.
  4. Pitch not be affected by boasting the oil pressure.
A

Full fine

36
Q

What happens to a centrifugal counterweight and springs propeller system when the engine quits during flight?

  1. Centrifugal latch pins lock the blades in a fine pitch position.
  2. Blades move towards a fine pitch position automatically to reduce drag.
  3. Blades move towards the selected propeller RPM by becoming more coarse.
  4. Blades move towards the selected propeller RPM by becoming more fine.
A

Blades move towards the selected propeller RPM by becoming more fine

37
Q

What drives the governor?

  1. Vacuum
  2. Engine
  3. Electrically
  4. Exhaust
A

Engine

38
Q

After startup a twin-engine aeroplane’s oil pressure

  1. rises moving the propeller into fine pitch.
  2. drops moving the propeller into the feathered position.
  3. rises moving the propeller into coarse pitch.
  4. is too low to change the propeller pitch.
A

Rises moving the propeller into fine pitch

39
Q

During takeoff in a constant-speed aeroplane the propeller blades initially move towards

  1. feathered for least drag.
  2. medium coarse for the best compromise.
  3. full fine for maximum power.
  4. coarse for maximum power.
A

Full fine for maximum power

40
Q

Which aeroplane operation would move the propeller pitch towards the high pitch stop?

  1. Startup
  2. Takeoff roll
  3. High speed descent
  4. Low speed climb
A

High speed descent

41
Q

During an engine failure in a twin-engine aeroplane the . . . . . gauge is best show which engine has failed.

  1. oil pressure gauge and oil temperature
  2. RPM
  3. manifold pressure
  4. EGT
A

EGT

42
Q

When a constant-speed propeller aeroplane is accelerated during the takeoff the blades go from . . . . . pitch to a . . . . . pitch.

  1. coarse, feathered
  2. feathered, coarser
  3. full coarse, finer
  4. full fine, coarser
A

full fine, coarser

43
Q

Manifold pressure is a measurement of the

  1. intake air temperature.
  2. fuel/air ratio pressure.
  3. exhaust air pressure.
  4. fuel pressure.
A

Fuel/air ratio pressure

44
Q

In a normally aspirated engine takeoff manifold pressure at full throttle is expected to be

  1. equal to static manifold pressure.
  2. slightly more than static manifold pressure.
  3. slightly less than static manifold pressure.
  4. an inch more than static manifold pressure.
A

Slightly less than static manifold pressure

45
Q

From before engine start to idle RPM manifold pressure is expected to

  1. rise.
  2. remain around the same.
  3. have no trend.
  4. drop.
A

Drop

46
Q

The manifold pressure gauge, while the aircraft is parked at 5 000 feet ASL with the engine(s) OFF in standard atmosphere, would read

  1. near 5 in Hg.
  2. 29.92 in Hg.
  3. near 10 in Hg.
  4. 24.92 in Hg.
A

24.92 in Hg

47
Q

When an engine fails in flight the manifold gauge is expected to indicate

  1. an immediate and large drop in manifold pressure.
  2. an immediate and large increase in manifold pressure.
  3. no significant change at first unless the throttle is moved.
  4. none of the above.
A

No significant change at first unless the throttle is moved

48
Q

What effect will reducing RPM have on manifold pressure during cruise flight?

  1. Cause a drop
  2. Cause a rise
  3. No predictable nature
  4. Will remain unchanged
A

Cause a rise

49
Q

What effect will increasing RPM have on manifold pressure during cruise flight?

  1. Cause a drop
  2. No predictable nature
  3. Remain unchanged
  4. Cause a rise
A

Cause a drop

50
Q

The . . . . . prevents stumbling when the throttle is opened to develop maximum horse power.

  1. economizer valve
  2. turbocharger
  3. accelerator pump
  4. atomizer
A

Accelerator pump

51
Q

Conditions which can lead to carburetor icing are

  1. temperature range of -13°C to +38°C with high humidity.
  2. fog, hail, or snow, and temperatures near 0°C.
  3. visible moisture in the atmosphere.
  4. dry air and temperatures near 0°C.
A

Temperature range of -13°C to +38°C with high humidity.

52
Q

What indication may be a signal that your aircraft has carburetor ice?

  1. A rapid decrease in exhaust gas temperature.
  2. Engine roughness at certain RPM ranges or manifold pressures.
  3. A slow increase in RPM or manifold pressure.
  4. A gradual decrease in RPM or manifold pressure.
A

A gradual decrease in RPM or manifold pressure

53
Q

Use of the carburetor heat while taxiing

  1. could cause dust and contaminants to enter the engine.
  2. prevents fowling of the spark plugs.
  3. decreases the engine’s warm-up time.
  4. tests the system.
A

Could cause dust and contaminants to enter the engine

54
Q

The engine begins to run roughly after applying carburetor heat. What does this indicate and what should you do?

  1. There is carburetor ice and it is melting. Continue with carburetor heat until the roughness is gone.
  2. A malfunction in the ignition system. Turn OFF the carburetor heat and select one mag only.
  3. This is normal whenever carburetor heat is used. No action is necessary.
  4. Induction icing is present. Lean the mixture.
A

There is carburetor ice and it is melting. Continue with carburetor heat until the roughness is gone.

55
Q

Which is true when referring to induction system icing?

  1. Impact icing affects only engines with carburetors.
  2. Throttle ice forms in the induction system of a fuel injection engine.
  3. Impact ice can form on both carburetor and fuel injected engines.
  4. Fuel ice only forms in fuel injected engines.
A

Impact ice can form on both carburetor and fuel injected engines

56
Q

Fuel injection can be more efficient than a carburetor because

  1. there is no need for a heavy heating system.
  2. only a low pressure fuel pump is required.
  3. fuel injection provides a more uniform flow to the cylinders.
  4. exhaust is not diverted into the induction system.
A

fuel injection provides a more uniform flow to the cylinders

57
Q

Carburetor heat is not needed for a fuel injection system because

  1. there is higher speed of air entering the engine, warming it sufficiently.
  2. the alternate air system compensates for lack of heating.
  3. the injection system has no throttle plate.
  4. there is no venturi and associated temperature drop.
A

There is no venturi and associated temperature drop

58
Q

One advantage that fuel injection has over a carburetor is

  1. much easier to start when the engine hot.
  2. easier cold weather starting.
  3. no need for an air filter.
  4. not being subject to throttle plate icing.
A

Easier cold weather starting

59
Q

If impact icing is suspected, the correct action by the pilot of a fuel injected aircraft would be

  1. alternate air ON.
  2. carburetor heat OFF.
  3. induction heat ON.
  4. carburetor heat ON.
A

Alternate air on

60
Q

What kind of icing are fuel injected engines subject to?
Select one:
1. Throttle and induction icing
2. Venturi and throttle icing
3. Air filter icing only
4. Injector nozzle icing and induction icing

A

Throttle and induction icing

61
Q

One advantage of an alternator over a generator is
Select one:
1. an alternator can produce sufficient power at low RPM.
2. that alternators do not need a current conversion to work with the electrical system.
3. that alternators can also power the magnetos.
4. an alternator can be used on both piston and turbine engines.

A

An alternator can produce sufficient power at low RPM

62
Q

What action should be taken if a circuit breaker is tripped?

  1. Never reset the breaker unless the ammeter shows a discharge.
  2. The aircraft should not be flown and if in flight land immediately.
  3. Reset the breaker as many times as necessary.
  4. Reset the breaker once only as repeated tripping is a sign of a more serious problem.
A

Reset the breaker once only as repeated tripping is a sign of a more serious problem

63
Q

What is the purpose of a load meter?

  1. Indicates whether the alternator is producing power.
  2. Indicates the battery’s state of charge.
  3. Indicates the battery’s remaining life in minutes.
  4. Indicates the total current draw on the electrical system.
A

Indicates the total current draw on the electrical system

64
Q

What will happen if both sides of the master switch is turned OFF while during a flight?

  1. The battery will continue supplying power.
  2. The battery will be discharging because the alternator is no longer working.
  3. The electrical system will be deactivated but the engine will continue to run.
  4. The alternator will stop producing power and the engine will stop.
A

The electrical system will be deactivated but the engine will continue to run.

65
Q

Why are circuit breakers or fuses installed in an aircraft?

  1. To regulate the generator output.
  2. To provide overload protection for electrical circuits.
  3. For the purpose of allowing a circuit to be disabled intentionally.
  4. To convert alternating current from the alternator to direct current.
A

To provide overload protection for electrical circuits

66
Q

What are the purposes of lubrication?

  1. Cooling, sealing, lubricating, and cleaning.
  2. Cooling, sealing, vibration damping, and filtration.
  3. Fuel flow management and cooling.
  4. Sealing, lubricating, and power management.
A

Cooling, sealing, lubricating, and cleaning

67
Q

What does viscosity mean in relation to lubricating oil?
Select one:
1. Shows how well an oil can disperse contaminants.
2. Refers to the resistance of oil to flow.
3. An expression of the ability of oil to be filtered.
4. A measure of the amount of synthetic oil used in the blend.

A

Refers to the resistance of oil to flow

68
Q

Non-detergent oil is used for
Select one:
1. older engines which are nearing overhaul.
2. new engines during the break-in period.
3. normal use, after an engine has been broken-in.
4. only turbine engines.

A

New engines during the break-in period

69
Q

What is the main difference between wet sump and dry sump lubrication?
Select one:
1. Wet sump is only used on older engines.
2. Dry sump does not use a pump to distribute oil.
3. Wet sump uses a separate tank of oil rather than storing oil in the crankcase.
4. Wet sump contains the oil in the crankcase while dry sump uses an external tank.

A

Wet sump contains the oil in the crankcase while dry sump uses an external tank

70
Q

The purpose of a vent in the lubricating system is to
Select one:
1. allow the oil to be drained during oil changes.
2. provide a means of adding new oil.
3. allow fuel vapors to escape.
4. prevent too much pressure if the system is overfilled.

A

Prevent too much pressure if the system is overfilled

71
Q

With 100/130 octane rated avgas the number 100 means the
Select one:
1. maximum compression ratio allowed.
2. amount of heptane in the fuel. The other number refers to its octane.
3. fuel’s lean octane rating.
4. boiling point of the fuel under standard conditions.

A

Fuel’s lean octane rating

72
Q 
Do all types of fuel have FSII?
Select one:
1. All Jet A-1 fuel will.
2. It varies depending on the FBO.
3. All Avgas 100LL fuel will.
4. All Jet A fuel will.
A

It varies depending on the FBO

73
Q

The purpose for grounding during fueling operations is to
Select one:
1. allow different components to pass electrical charges.
2. prevent a static discharge and possible fire.
3. energize the fuel pumps to assist in fuel transfer.
4. prevent overfilling the tanks and a subsequent spill.

A

Prevent a static discharge and possible fire

74
Q

Why do low wing aircraft require fuel pumps?
Select one:
1. Low wing aircraft have an aft centre of gravity requiring the fuel to flow against gravity.
2. Low wing aircraft usually have smaller fuel tanks than high wing aircraft.
3. The fuel tank location does not have gravity to assist in feeding fuel to the engine.
4. High wing aircraft use rubber bladders which do not require a pump.

A

The fuel tank location does not have gravity to assist in feeding fuel to the engine

75
Q

The most commonly recommended practice for preventing condensation in the fuel tanks is to

  1. fill each fuel tank after every flight.
  2. strain all fuel as it is put into the tanks.
  3. install a quick drain gascolator.
  4. drain a pint of fuel from the tank sumps each night.
A

Fill each fuel tank after every flight

76
Q

How should you identify and confirm the fuel in a drum before fueling?

  1. by the color of the drum.
  2. by the label on the drum.
  3. by the weight of the drum.
  4. by the appearance and odour of the fuel.
A

By the appearance odour of the fuel

77
Q

Hot fueling from drums should be done only:

  1. under controlled conditions in compliance with CAR 602.09
  2. during an emergency.
  3. if it is approved in the Company Operations Manual.
  4. All of the above.
A

All of the above

78
Q

What is the major hazard in fueling from a drum during winter operations?

  1. Dry winter air and blowing snow builds up more static energy on the aircraft body.
  2. Risk of frostbite.
  3. Risk of hypothermia.
  4. Risk of falling on the ice.
A

Dry winter air and blowing snow builds up more static energy on the aircraft body

79
Q

Identify the proper sequence of grounding.

Drum to pump
Pump to aircraft
Drum to ground.
Nozzle to aircraft.
Aircraft to ground.

5, 1, 2, 4
3, 1, 2, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 4, 5

A

3, 1, 2, 4

80
Q

Increased pumping pressure with a go-no-go filter indicates presence of water in the fuel.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

81
Q

A vacuum pump is used for

  1. drawing air through the venturi.
  2. powering gyro instruments.
  3. regulating cabin pressure.
  4. returning excess oxygen to the oxygen tanks.
A

Powering gyro instruments

82
Q

How is cabin heat usually provided in a single-engine piston powered aircraft?

  1. By routing outside air over a shroud attached to the exhaust system.
  2. By using bleed air from the high pressure turbine.
  3. By an electrical heater.
  4. Through an outlet valve on the turbocharger or supercharger.
A

By routing outside air over a shroud attached to the exhaust system

83
Q

What is the difference between a de-icing or an anti-icing system?

  1. Anti-icing systems cannot be used during takeoff, while de-icing systems can be.
  2. Anti-icing systems are only used once ice has been built up.
  3. De-icing systems can ony be used on jets due to their high power demands.
  4. De-icing systems are used when ice is already present.
A

De-icing systems are used when ice is already present

84
Q

What is the difference between the demand and the constant-flow oxygen system?
Select one:
1. Constant-flow systems can only be used on propeller aeroplanes and not on jet aeroplanes.
2. Demand systems are usually used on commercial aircraft as the drop down mask.
3. Constant-flow systems do not waste as much oxygen.
4. Demand systems only provide oxygen when inhaled.

A

Demand systems provide oxygen only when inhaled

85
Q

The purpose of an outflow valve is to
Select one:
1. regulate the flow of oxygen to the mask.
2. allow fuel transfer between tanks to be automated.
3. balance vacuum pressure for an aircraft with multiple vacuum pumps.
4. regulate cabin pressure.

A

Regulate cabin pressure

Commercial Pilot Written Exam (2 decks)

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