AIRFRAME AND SYSTEM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The anti-skid system would be used:

A. for take off on icy runways.
B. on landing runs only.
C. for both take off and landing runs.
D. on take o runs only.

A

C. for both take off and landing runs.

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2
Q

The amount of wear on a reinforced, ribbed tread tyre is indicated by:-

A. the offset wear groove
B. grey cushion rubber
C. marker tie bars
D. concentric wear rings

A

C. marker tie bars

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3
Q

Which of the following statements will produce the shortest landing run:

  1. crossing the threshold at the correct height and speed
  2. applying full anti-skid braking as quickly as possible after touchdown
  3. using maximum pedal pressure but releasing the pressure as the wheels start to skid
  4. the use of cadence braking
  5. use of minimum braking pressure early in the landing run and maximum pressure towards the end
  6. application of reverse thrust as early as possible in the landing run
  7. deployment of the lift dumpers/speed brakes as early as possible in the landing run

A.1, 5, 6, 7
B. 1, 4, 6, 7
C. 1, 3, 6, 7

D. 1, 2, 6, 7

A

D. 1, 2, 6, 7

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4
Q

Creep (slippage):

A. can damage the braking system.

B. can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel rim.
C. may cause excess wear.
D. never occurs on new tyres.

A

B. can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel rim.

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5
Q

The tyre pressures are checked after a long taxi to the ramp following landing. The pressures will have:

A. risen by 15% from their rated value.
B. remained constant.
C. risen by 10% of their original weight-on-wheels value.
D. fAllen by 15% from their rated value.

A

C. risen by 10% of their original weight-on-wheels value.

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6
Q

A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is:

A. the aircraft is incorrectly loaded.
B. the tyre pressures are too high.

C. a torque link is worn or damaged.
D. aircraft is overweight.

A

C. a torque link is worn or damaged.

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7
Q

The movement of the gear on lowering is normally damped to:

A. make the lowering time greater than the raising time.
B. counteract the force of gravity which would bring the gear down too fast.
C. prevent the hydraulic fluid becoming overheated.

D. prevent the uid becoming aerated.

A

counteract the force of gravity which would bring the gear down too fast.

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8
Q

The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a large aircraft comes from:

A. the hydraulic reservoir.

B. the pilots brake pedals.
C. a self contained power pack.
D. the aircraft main hydraulic system.

A

D. the aircraft main hydraulic system.

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9
Q

Tyre wear when taxying can be reduced:

A. restricting the use of brakes and using thrust reversers.

B. taxying at less than 25 knots.
C. staying on the smoothest parts of the taxiway.
D. taxying at less than 40 kph.

A

D. taxying at less than 40 kph.

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10
Q

A nose wheel steering control system:

A. prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times.
B. allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position.

C. prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralized.
D. allows the nosewheel to caster freely at all times.

A

B. allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position.

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11
Q

When the landing gear is selected UP the sequence of lights is:-

A. out, red, green
B. red, out, green
C. green, red, out
D. red, green, out.

A

C. green, red, out

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12
Q

The formula which gives the minimum speed (Vp) at which aquaplaning may occur is:

A. Vp = 34 X √P where P is kg/cm2 and Vp is in mph.
B. Vp = 9 X √P where P is psi and Vp is in knots.
C. Vp = 9 X √P where P is kg/cm2 and Vp is in knots.

D. Vp = 9 X √P where P is psi and Vp is in mph.

A

B. Vp = 9 X √P where P is psi and Vp is in knots.

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13
Q

The most likely cause of brake unit dragging is:

A. grease on the rotor assembly.
B. dirt between the rotor and stator assemblies.
C. the brake pressure being too high.

D. incorrect operation of the adjuster assemblies.

A

D. incorrect operation of the adjuster assemblies.

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14
Q

When inflating a tyre ed to an aircraft, the tyre pressure reading on the gauge should be modified by:

A. 10%.
B. 4psi.
C. 10psi.
D. 4%.

A

D. 4%.

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15
Q

To prevent scrubbing the tyres while taxying , you should:

A. use tyres with fusible plugs.
B. deflate the tyres to a minimum pressure.

C. turn no sharper than the minimum specified radius.
D. make sharp turns only if you have high speed tyres ed.

A

C. turn no sharper than the minimum specified radius.

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16
Q

The nose wheel assembly must be centered before retraction because:

A. there is limited space in the nose wheel bay.
B. the aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose wheel is not straight.

C. it will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on take-off.
D. the tyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is not straight.

A

A. there is limited space in the nose wheel bay.

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17
Q

In the event of an approach to land being made with the throttle levers retarded towards idle and the flaps down and the gear up, the warning given to the pilot will be a;-

A. stick shaker

B. continuous bell
C. buzzer
D. hom

A

D. Hom

18
Q

Creep (Slippage):

A. is not a problem with tubeless tyres

B. alignment can rip out the inflation valve on tubed tyres, and de ate the tyre
C. refers to the movement of the aircraft against the brakes
D. can be prevented by painting lines on the wheel and tyre

A

B. alignment can rip out the inflation valve on tubed tyres, and de ate the tyre

19
Q

A green fusible plug is designed to deflate the tyre if a temperature of ________ is reached.

A. 199°C
B. 155°C
C.277 °C
D.177°C

A

D.177°C

20
Q

Lowering the gear using the free fall system will result in the main landing gear doors :-

A. remaining open
B. being jettisoned
C. closing hydraulically

D. closing mechanically

A

A. remaining open

21
Q

With RTO (rejected take-off) selected and armed the brakes will be automatically applied if:-

A. one o f the thrust levers is returned to idle
B. reverse thrust is selected at any time
C. V1 is not reached after a predetermined distance

D. Vr is not reached after a predetermined distance

A

B. reverse thrust is selected at any time

22
Q

Oil is used in an oleo strut to:

A. support the weight of the aircraft.
B. lubricate the piston within the cylinder.
C. limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut.
D. limit the speed of compression of the strut.

A

C. limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut.

23
Q

The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is:

A. dry powder.
B.. freon.
C. CO2.
D. water.

A

A. dry powder.

24
Q

Landing gear ground locking pins are:

A. fitted after flight to maintain a hydraulic lock in the down lock jack.
B. removed prior to flight and returned to stores.
C. fitted before flight to ensure the landing gear locks are fully cocked.

D. removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where they are visible to the crew.

A

D. removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where they are visible to the crew.

25
Q

The ply rating of a tyre:

A. is the index of the tyre strength.
B. never indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass.
C. always indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass.

D. indicates whether or not an inner tube should be fitted.

A

A. is the index of the tyre strength.

26
Q

Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on the ground is:

A. the responsibility of the first officer when he is on the aircraft.
B. prevented by the ground/air logic system.
C. not possible because the system is not powerful enough.
D. always a danger after the ground locks have been removed.

A

B. prevented by the ground/air logic system.

27
Q

A hydraulic gear extension/retraction mechanism consists of sequence valves, uplocks and:

A. torque links.

B. downlocks.
C. an anti-skid braking system.
D. a shock absorber.

A

B. downlocks.

28
Q

At an aircraft taxying speed of 10mph the antiskid braking system is:

A. operative.
B. operative only on the nosewheel brakes.
C. operative only on the main wheel brakes.

D. inoperative.

A

D. inoperative.

29
Q

The most likely cause of brake fade is:

A. the brake pads overheating.

B. the pilot reducing the brake pressure.
C. oil or grease on the brake drums.
D. worn stators.

A

A. the brake pads overheating.

30
Q

An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi, its minimum aquaplaning speed will be:

A. 135 knots.
B. 145 mph.
C. 145 knots.
D. 135 mph.

A

C. 145 knots.

31
Q

The purpose of pulley wheels in cable control systems is:

A. to prevent the cable from slackening
B. to ensure smooth operation of the system
C. to change the direction of the control cable
D. to ensure the cable tensions are equal throughout the system

A

C. to change the direction of the control cable

32
Q

In a cable control system cables are tensioned to:

1 - remove backlash from the control linkage

2 - provide tension on the turnbuckles

3 - provide positive action in both directions

4 - ensure the full range is achieved

5 - compensate for temperature variations

A. all the above
B. 3 only

C. 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 5 only

A

D. 1, 3 and 5 only

33
Q

To yaw the aircraft to the right:

A. the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left

B. the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left
C. the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the right

A

C. the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the right

34
Q

The advantages of a cable control are:

1 - light, very good strength to weight ratio

2 - easy to route through the aircraft

3 - less prone to impact damage

4 - takes up less volume

5 - less bolted joints

A. 3 and 5 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. all the above
D. 1, 2 and 5 only

A

C. all the above

35
Q

To roll the aircraft to the right:

A. the rudder control is moved to the right, the right aileron moves up and the le down
B. the aileron control is moved to the left and the right aileron moves up and the left down
C. the aileron control is moved to the right, the right aileron goes up and the left one down

D. the aileron control is moved to the right and the right elevator goes up and the left one down

A

C. the aileron control is moved to the right, the right aileron goes up and the left one down

36
Q

The purpose of the primary stops in a control system is:

A. to set the control surface neutral position

B. to set the range of movement of the control surface
C. to enable the secondary stops to be correctly spaced
D. to limit control movement to one direction only

A

B. to set the range of movement of the control surface

37
Q

In a manual flying control system the control inputs to the primary control surfaces:

1 - are reversible

2 - are irreversible

3 - are instinctive for the movement required

4 - are opposite for the movement required

5 - are limited in range by fl ight deck obstructions

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 5 only
D. 1 and 3 only

A

D. 1 and 3 only

38
Q

The purpose of the secondary stops in a control system is:

A. to remove the excess backlash in the controls
B. to limit the secondary control system from excessive movement

C. to reduce the control loads on the primary stops
D. to limit control surface range in the event of primary stop failure

A

D. to limit control surface range in the event of primary stop failure

39
Q

The purpose of the fairleads in a cable control system is to:

A. alter the angle of de ection of the cables
B. to attach the cables to chain drives
C. to keep the cable straight and clear of structure
D.to guide the cables on to the pulley wheels

A

C. to keep the cable straight and clear of structure

40
Q

In a cable control system the cables are mounted in pairs to:

1 - remove backlash from the control linkage

2 - provide tension on the turnbuckles

3 - provide positive action in both directions

4 - ensure the full range is achieved

5 - compensate for temperature variations

A.4 only
B. 3 only
C. all the above
D. 1, 3 and 5 only

A

B. 3 only