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general > Airframe > Flashcards

Airframe Flashcards

1
Q

What is another name for GTA welding?

A

TIG welding

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2
Q

What is used as the electrode in GTA welding?

A

tungsten wire

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3
Q

What are the three types of power that can be used for GTA

A

DC straight polarity
DC reverse polarity
AC

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4
Q

Which type of power provides the greatest heat and deepest penetration in GTA welding?

A

DC straight polarity

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5
Q

Which type of power is used for GTA welding aluminum and magnesium?

A

DC reverse polarity

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6
Q

Should a riveted joint fail in shear or in bearing?

A

Shear

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7
Q

Most important consideration when selecting materials for a sheet metal repair?

A

Material must duplicate the strength of the original structure

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8
Q

why should aluminum alloy rivets be driven with as few blows as is practical?

A

prevents work hardening the rivet and making them harder to drive

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9
Q

what determines whether a piece of sheet metal should be dimpled or countersunk when installing flush rivets?

A

Thickness of the sheet.
(countersinking should be done only when the thickness of the sheet is greater than the thickness of the rivet head.)

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10
Q

what should be done to protect a riveted joint between aluminum alloy and magnesium alloy from corrosion.

A

coat surface and dip rivets in corrosion inhibiting primer.
(drive them while wet)

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11
Q

what is the purpose of the beehive spring on a rivet gun?

A

holds the rivet set in the gun and allows the gun to vibrate the set

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12
Q

what must be done to an aircraft fuel tank before it can be repaired by welding?

A

purge gas fumes for 30 minutes by:
steam
soaking in hot water
filling with nitrogen
filling with C02

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13
Q

when drilling out rivets on an airplane or drilling holes for a repair, what precaution should be taken?

A

don’t allow drill to enter space behind the structure

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14
Q

what are two advantages of laminated construction over riveted sheet metal?

A

light weight
&
rigidity

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15
Q

what are two popular types of CORE material used in laminated structure?

A

foam & honeycomb

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16
Q

what are two popular types of MATRIX material used in laminated structures?

A

polyester & epoxy resins

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17
Q

what are the two parts of a polyester matrix material?

A

resin & catalyst

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18
Q

what are the two parts of an epoxy matrix material?

A

Resin & hardener

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19
Q

what are the three materials that may be used to reinforce the matrix material for aircraft structure?

A

fiberglass
Kevlar
graphite

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20
Q

what is meant by a uni-directional fabric?

A

major fibers run in same direction

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21
Q

what is meant by ribbon direction of a honeycomb material?

A

the direction in a piece of honeycomb material that is parallel to the length of the strips that make up its core

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22
Q

what kind of repair can be made to a small damage of the core material and one face sheet of a piece of aluminum alloy honeycomb structure?

A

potted compound repair

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23
Q

how do you grind the point of a twist drill that is to be used for drilling transparent acrylic material?

A

cutting edge to a ZERO rake angle

angle of the tip 140

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24
Q

what is a warp clock in a structural repair manual?

A

an alignment indicator for orientation of the plies

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25
Q

what are two types of repair to a damaged honeycomb core composite material?

A

room temperature cure repair

hot-bond repair

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26
Q

if a mechanic gives a 100 hour inspection to an aircraft that proves to be unairworthy, what must the mechanic give the owner or operator of the aircraft?

A

signed & dated list of all the discrepancies that keep the plane from being airworthy

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27
Q

where can you find the recommended statement to use for recording the approval or disapproval of an aircraft for return to service after a 100 hour?

A

14 CFR 43.11

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28
Q

under what conditions can an aircraft be operated with a 100 hour overdue?

A

no more than 10 hours after inspection is due for the purpose of flying to a place for inspection

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29
Q

for how long can an aircraft be operated if a 100 hour is overdue?

A

10 hours, which must be subtracted from when the next inspection is due

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30
Q

under what condition can an aircraft due for an annual inspection be operated?

A

only with a special flight permit

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31
Q

what certification is required for a mechanic to be able to approve an aircraft for return to service after a 100 hour inspection?

A

A&P

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32
Q

what determines whether or not an aircraft must be given a 100 hour inspection?

A

if they carry persons for hire
&
flight instruction for hire

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33
Q

what is the difference between an annual inspection and a 100 hour?

A

the inspections are identical.

only an I.A can do an annual

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34
Q

what certification is required for a mechanic to conduct an annual inspection and approve the aircraft for return to service

A

inspection authorization

(IA)

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35
Q

what is a progressive inspection?

A

Same as an annual, but performed on a schedule not requiring the plane to go out of service

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36
Q

what certification is required for a mechanic to conduct a progressive inspection?

A

Inspection authorization
(IA)

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37
Q

where can you find the requirements for inspecting the altimeter and static systems of an aircraft operated under instrument flight rules?

A

14 CFR part 43 appendix E

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38
Q

where can you find the requirements for inspecting the ATC transponder?

A

14 CFR part 43 appendix F

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39
Q

what items must be inspected on a helicopter in accordance with the instructions for continued airworthiness?

A

1 drive shafts,
2 main rotor
3 main rotor center section
4 auxiliary rotor
5 transmission gear box,

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40
Q

where would an aviation mechanic find required special inspections?

A

aircraft maintenance manual

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41
Q

what are the three basic brake actuating systems?

A

power break system
(only uses hydraulic system)

independent system
(doesn’t use hydraulic system)

booster system
(hydraulic system intermittently)

42
Q

what would cause the warning horn to sound when the throttles are pulled back reducing the engine power for landing?

A

if landing gears are not down and locked

43
Q

what is indicated by a red light in the landing gear position indication portion of the annunciator panel?

A

landing gear is not in a safe condition for landing

44
Q

what information is given to a pilot to indicate that all of the landing gears are down and locked?

A

3 green lights

45
Q

is a Chevron seal a one way or two way seal?

A

one way

46
Q

which side of a Chevron seal should the pressure be applied?

A

the open side

47
Q

is an O-ring seal a one way or two way seal?

A

2 way

48
Q

how can you be sure of getting an O-ring made of the correct material for a specific hydraulic component?

A

correct part number

49
Q

on which side of an O-ring should the back up ring be placed?

A

on the side away from the source of pressure

50
Q

what should be done to the sharp edges of threads and actuator pistons when installing O-rings?

A

cover with paper

51
Q

what are the two main gases that make up our atmosphere

A

oxygen
nitrogen

52
Q

what is used to check an oxygen system for leaks?

A

leak detector liquid that is a form of non-oily soap

53
Q

why must fittings in an oxygen system not be tightened to stop a leak when there is pressure on the system?

A

the tube is expanded slightly when pressurized

54
Q

what kind of gaseous oxygen must be used to service an aircraft oxygen system?

A

aviators breathing oxygen
(no moisture)

55
Q

what identification must be stamped on an oxygen bottle carried in an aircraft?

A

indentification DOT 3AA or 3HT

date of manufacture

date of hydrostatic tests

56
Q

to what pressure and how often should DOT 3AA oxygen cylinders be hydrostatically tested?

A

5/3 of their working pressure every 3 years

57
Q

to what pressure and how often should DOT 3HT oxygen cylinders be hydrostatically tested, and when should the be retired from service?

A

tested to 3083 psi every three years

retired after 15 years or 4380 pressurizations

58
Q

what kind of lubricant can be used for installing fitting in an oxygen system component?

A

Teflon tape
or
special water base lubricant

59
Q

what is used to check for leaks after replacing a fitting in an oxygen system?

A

special leak detector liquid that is non-oily soap

60
Q

what cleaning solutions can be used to clean parts used in an oxygen system?

A

anhydrous ethyl alcohol

isopropyl alcohol,

freon

61
Q

what may be used to dry components in an oxygen system after the have been cleaned?

A

water pumped dry nitrogen

62
Q

what may be used to purge the lines in an oxygen system after it has been opened for servicing?

A

water pumped dry nitrogen

63
Q

what must be done before any maintenance can be done on an oxygen system?

A

the oxygen supply must be turned off at the bottle valve

64
Q

how is the heat removed from an aircraft cabin with the vapor cycle air conditioning system?

A

cabin heat is absorbed by the refrigerant in the evaporator, then carried outside the aircraft where it is given up to the outside air in the condensor

65
Q

what produces the cool air in the vapor cycle air conditioning system?

A

cabin heat is absorbed by the refrigerant in the evaporator, the air that leaves the evaporator is cool

66
Q

what is used as the refrigerant in a vapor cycle air conditioning system?

A

freon type liquid
(refrigerant 12)

or

more environmentally friendly R-134a

67
Q

what is the state of the refrigerant as it leaves the compressor?

A

high pressure gas

68
Q

what is the state of the refrigerant as it leaves the condenser?

A

high pressure liquid

69
Q

what is the state of the refrigerant as it leaves the thermostatic expansion valve?

A

low pressure liquid

70
Q

what is the state of the refrigerant as it leaves the evaporator?

A

low pressure vapor

71
Q

how is the compressor lubricated?

A

refrigeration oil is mixed with the refrigerant

72
Q

what is the function of the thermostatic expansion valve?

A

meters just enough liquid refrigerant into the evaporator that all of it will be evaporated when it leaves the evaporator coils

73
Q

how is refrigerant put into the system?

A

through service valves on the low side of the system using a manifold gauge set

74
Q

how should the components in the low side of a properly operating vapor cycle cooling system feel?

A

cool

75
Q

how is a vapor cycle cooling system checked for refrigerant leaks?

A

hold probe of an electronic leak detector below any suspected leak, tone will sound

76
Q

what safety equipment should be worn when charging a vapor cycle cooling system?

A

safety face shield

77
Q

what are the two types of air conditioning systems that may be installed on an aircraft?

A

air cycle

vapor cycle

78
Q

why is a fuel jettisoning or dump system required for some aircraft?

A

to lower gross weight to allowable landing weight

79
Q

what is used as the sensor in the fuel tank for an electronic type fuel quantity indicating system?

A

tubular capacitors

extend across the fuel tank from top to bottom

80
Q

what is the principle upon which the electronic type fuel quantity indicating system operates?

A

tubular capacitors change their capacitance as fuel level changes.

81
Q

what is used as a sensor in the fuel tank for the older resistance type fuel quantity indicating system?

A

Variable resistor

arm is moved by float

82
Q

what is the purpose of a drip gauge in the fuel tank of a large aircraft?

A

you can check fuel level from the bottom of the tank

83
Q

when must the fuel quantity indicating system indicate zero?

A

during level flight when fuel in tank is equal to unusable fuel supply

84
Q

what size generator must be used in an aircraft electrical system if the connected electrical load is 30 amp, and there is no way of monitoring the generator output?

A

the load must be no more that 80% of the rated output.

37.5 (practically a 40 amp generator would be used)

85
Q

what is meant by flashing the field of a generator?

A

restoring residual magnetism to the frame of the generator. By passing current through the coils in the direction it normally flows when operating.

86
Q

what is meant by paralleling the generators in a multi engine aircraft?

A

adjusting voltage regulators so all the generators share the load equally

87
Q

what are the three types of voltage regulators used with aircraft generators?

A

vibrator

carbon pile

solid state

88
Q

what is meant by a trip free circuit breaker?

A

If there’s a fault in the system the circuit breaker won’t close

89
Q

what is meant by slow blow fuse?

A

fuse will allow more current that its rating to flow for a short period of time

90
Q

what is the function of a fuse or circuit breaker in an aircraft electrical circuit?

A

protects wiring from excess current. Will open the circuit if enough current flows to heat the wire

91
Q

what are two principles upon which circuit breakers operate?

A

magnetic circuit breakers

thermal circuit breakers

92
Q

what circuit in an aircraft electrical system is not required to have a circuit protective device?

A

main circuit for starter motors used for starting only

93
Q

is an automatic reset circuit breaker approved for aircraft electrical circuits?

A

No. Manual only.

94
Q

how does a vibrator type voltage regulator maintain a constant voltage?

A

when voltage rises above desired value, electromagnetic relay opens and inserts a resistor in the generator field circuit

95
Q

what two components are normally housed with a vibrator voltage regulator in a single unit generator control?

A

current limiter

reverse current cutout relay

96
Q

what two frequencies does the emergency locator transmitter operate?

A

121.5 megahertz

243.0 megahertz

97
Q

where is the ELT transmitter normally located?

A

In the tail or as far aft as possible

98
Q

how often should ELT batteries be replaced or recharged?

A

after 1 hour of cumulative use

at battery expiration date

when 50% of their useful life has expired

99
Q

how can you know when an ELT batter must be replaced?

A

date marked on the outside of the transmitter

100
Q

how often must ELTs be inspected for proper installation, battery corrosion, operation of the controls and sensor, and the presence of the radiated signal?

A

every 12 calendar months

101
Q

what causes and ELT to actuate?

A

and inertia switch that detects an impact parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft

102
Q

how is an ELT tested to determine that its working?

A

actuate the test switch and listen on 121.5 or 243.0 MHz. during the first 5 minutes of the hour. Only operate for 3 sweeps

general (3 decks)

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