Aircrew Training Program

Question 1

The “Aircrew Training Program Hierarchy of Manuals” consists of what manuals/entities?

Answer 1

1. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) Federal Aviation Regulations/ Aeronautical Information Manual (FAR/AIM): Has overall authority of Aviation (Civilian and Military).
2. AR 95-1: Highest authority for Military. Regulations and Policies covering all of Army Aviation. Regulatory authority over the Commanders Guide & the Aircrew Training Module (ATM).
3. Department of Aviation Management Office (DAMO-AV) G3/5/7: Only organization authorized to issue exceptions to AR 95-1 guidance via Letter/Memos.
4. TC 3-04.11: Commanders guide has “prescriptive” authority over the ATM. Gives training, records and evaluations guidance for all of Aviation.
5. ATM: Aircraft specific training guidance.
6. Department of Evaluations and Standards (DES): Derives authority from AR 95-1 and can issue exceptions to TC 3-04.11 & ATM via STACOM: Standard Army Communications (STACOM). (Cannot give exceptions to AR 95-1)
7. DOD 7000.14-R Vol 7: Describes the personnel which have authority to issue flight orders and guidance/requirement to have flight pay.
8. AR 600-106 NCM, AR 600-105 RCM: Describes personnel authorized to perform flight duties & be on flight orders

Question 2

What manual has the highest authority for Military Aviation?

Answer 2

AR 95-1:
Highest authority for Military. Regulations and Policies covering all of Army Aviation.
Regulatory authority over the Commanders Guide & the Aircrew Training Module (ATM).

Question 3

What manual gives training, records and evaluation guidance for all Army Aviation?

Answer 3

TC 3-04.11:
Commander’s Aviation Training and
Standardization Program

Question 4

What manual contains

Aircraft specific training guidance?

Answer 4

Aircrew Training Manual (ATM)

Question 5

When are deviations from AR 95-1 allowed?

Answer 5

(a. ) Individuals may deviate from provisions of this regulation during emergencies.
(b. ) Individuals who deviate from this regulation, FAA, or host country regulations must report details of the indecent directly to their unit commander. The incident must be reported within 24 hours after it occurs.

Question 6

When are Crewmembers Prohibited from performing aircrew duties?

Answer 6

(a. ) All crewmembers while attending a NON-flying course.
(b. ) Those disqualified, temporarily suspended or whose aviation service is administratively terminated IAW AR 600-105 or 600-106.
(c. ) Military aviators in an authorized leave status when employed by a contractor to serve as a crewmember.

Question 7

Who is the only person allowed to approve a crewmember flying while on leave status?

Answer 7

There is no regulatory guidance on not being able to fly while on leave, it is up to the COMMANDER to allow the crewmember to perform crewmember duties while on leave.

However; IAW DOD 7000.14-R Vol 7A Chapter 22 Table 22-6: When a crewmember on flying status is on authorized leave in a pay status, do NOT count flights performed while on leave for pay purpose.

Question 8

When does computation of flying time begin?

Answer 8

Flying time starts when an airplane begins to move forward on the takeoff roll or when a helicopter lifts off the ground. Flying time ends when the aircraft has landed and the engines are stopped or the flying crew change.

Question 9

How many days is each crewmember given to deliver individual flight records to their new unit?

Answer 9

Each crewmember must present his or her individual flight records folder (IFRF) and individual aircrew training folder (IATF) to the new unit to which assigned/attached for ATP purposes within 14 calendar days after reporting for duty or placement on flying status orders per AR 600-106.

Question 10

When are seats allowed to be removed from an aircraft?

Answer 10

Authorizations to remove seats and/or seatbelts will be for operational/training necessity only and never for convenience.

Question 11

What does AR 95-1 say about crewmembers wearing seatbelts?

Answer 11

Crewmembers will wear a properly adjusted seat belt and shoulder harness while performing crew duties.

Approved alternate restraining harness is authorized for crewmembers when required to perform specified crew tasks in accordance with aircrew training module (ATM).

Question 12

IAW FAR/CFR Part 91: General Operating & Flight Rules Subpart B- Flight Rules § 91.105,

When should a crewmember be at their crew station?

Answer 12

FAR/AIM on seat belt requirements: IAW FAR/CFR Part 91: General Operating & Flight Rules Subpart B- Flight Rules § 91.105

Flight Crewmembers will be at their Crew Stations: During takeoff and landing, and while enroute each flight crewmember shall-

Be at the crew member station unless the absence is necessary to perform duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft or in connection with physiological needs and keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station

Question 13

Passengers are restricted from what types of flights IAW AR 95-1?

Answer 13

(1. ) Maintenance, engineering, functional or experimental test flights.
(2. ) Aerobatics flights.
(3. ) Aerial demonstrations (only mission essential personnel authorized) as defined by DODI 5410.19 and AR 360–1.
(4. ) Flight crew emergency procedures training.
(5. ) Night Vision Device (NVD) qualification or refresher training.
(6. ) Aeronautical record attempts.
(7. ) Aircraft acceptance flights.

Question 14

What are the four Hands-on performance tests for Army Aviation personnel on flight status?

Answer 14

Standardization flight evaluation
Proficiency Flight Evaluation (PFE)
Post-mishap flight evaluation
Medical flight evaluation

Question 15

Why are Post-mishap flight evaluations administered?

Answer 15

Post-mishap flight evaluation are administered to an aviator or nonrated crew member to determine their ability to perform required duties following an aircraft mishap.

Aviators or nonrated crew members performing crew duties involved in a Class A ($2 million or more) or B ($500,000 or more but less than $2 million) mishap will be suspended from flight duties until successful completion of a flight evaluation.

Aviators or nonrated crew members performing crew duties involved in a Class C ($50,000 or more but less than $500,000) or lower mishap may be suspended from flight duties and required to successfully complete a flight evaluation at the discretion of the commander.

Question 16

Why would a Proficiency Flight Evaluation (PFE) be administered to a NRCM?

Answer 16

To determine an individual’s proficiency.

To determine which phase of training is appropriate for entry into or continuing in the ATP (including RL progression evaluations).

Question 17

No-notice proficiency evaluations may be what four types of evaluations?

Answer 17

No-notice proficiency evaluations may be
written examinations,
academic evaluations,
aircraft flight evaluations, or
compatible flight simulator evaluations (RCM only).

Question 18

What does a Medical flight evaluation measure?

Answer 18

Medical flight evaluation measures an aviator’s or nonrated crew member’s ability to perform required duties after incurring a medical disability.

Question 19

Who is the only person who can recommend a Medical flight evaluation?

Answer 19

The evaluation will be administered on the recommendation of the flight surgeon.

Question 20

When a crewmember fails to meet ATP requirements, Who will start an investigation, and what is the maximum amount of days to complete it?

Answer 20

When ATP requirements are not met, the commander will investigate. The commander has 14 days after notification to complete the investigation.

Question 21

After completing an investigation for failure to meet ATP requirements, what actions can the commander take?

Answer 21

Authorize the crew member up to 30-day extension to complete the requirements. (The 30-day extension will start after the commander completes his investigation).

Request a waiver of requirements per paragraph 4-2.

Flight Evaluation Boards (FEB) are for RCMs only.

Question 22

Can a commander authorize their own 30-day extension to complete ATP requirements?

Answer 22

No.

Commanders are not authorized to grant themselves a 30-day extension.

Question 23

What are aircraft currency requirements IAW AR 95-1?

Answer 23

To be considered current in an aircraft, individuals must take part in flight once every 60 days at a crew station. Individuals must perform designated duties in a crew station authorized on the Commanders Task List.

If 60 days have elapsed since the last flight, the crewmember will be administered a PFE in the aircraft.

Question 24

What flights are crew and passenger manifests required for?

Answer 24

A crew and passenger manifest is required for ALL flights.

For tactical or tactical training flights the passenger manifest will be prepared and retained by the supported unit.

Question 25

What is a Safety of Flight Message (SOF)?

Answer 25

SOF messages:

High priority messages that require an immediate action prior to the next operation.

Question 26

When are aircrews/passengers required to use oxygen on flights?

Answer 26

On flights above 10,000 feet pressure altitude for more than 1 hour.

On flights above 12,000 feet pressure altitude for more than 30 minutes.

Aircraft crews and ALL other occupants:
On flights above 14,000 feet pressure altitude for any period of time.

Question 27

What Protective clothing and equipment will be worn by all personnel while performing crew duties IAW AR 95-1?

Answer 27

Identification tags, under layer clothing (cotton, wool, nomex, or approved materials), flight suit, boots, flight gloves, and flight helmet.

Notice: ID card requirements are not in AR 95-1, but per AR 600-8-14 it says: “it shall be in the personal custody of the member at all times.”

Question 28

What are the 5+1 Survival Equipment items required for each crewmember?

Answer 28

(1. ) First aid kit.
(2. ) Extraction device.
(3. ) Approved survival knife.
(4. ) Fire starter.
(5. ) Signaling device.

(+1) Survival radio.

Question 29

How much “bank time” is authorized for crewmembers regarding flight pay?

Answer 29

CM’s are authorized to “carry forward” flight pay that has been banked for up to 5 months as well as have a 3 month grace period.

5 Months Forward
3 Months Back

Question 30

True or False:

Advance 120-day removal from flight duty notice is not applicable for personnel receiving noncrewmember flight pay.

Answer 30

True

Question 31

How many days do crewmembers require to be removed from flight duty?

Answer 31

All crewmembers will be notified at least 120 days before being involuntarily removed from duty through no fault of their own.

Question 32

Advance notice is not required and entitlement to HDIP for Flying Duty will be terminated if removal from flying status is the result of what five (5) reasons?

Answer 32

(1. ) AWOL.
(2. ) Confinement.
(3. ) Relief for cause.
(4. ) Medical unfitness, including failure to maintain a current medical examination.
(5. ) Unsatisfactory participation in an RC unit.

Question 33

What are the NRCM flying hour requirements?

Answer 33

Active Component: 4 hours/month (24 hours semi-annually).

Reserve Component: 2 hours/month (12 hours semi-annually).

All NVG RL1 NRCM: 5 hours/semi-annual performing crew duties and wearing NVGs.

Question 34

NRCMs will receive academic training IAW the ______.

Answer 34

ACAT.

Question 35

Describe the “T/D/N/G/C” column on the MTL.

Answer 35

T- Technical Task (May be trained in any/all modes of flight).

D/N/G/C- Performance Task (Must be trained in the indicated mode of flight).

Question 36

__________ is/are used to develop individual and crew proficiencies that support collective tasks.

Answer 36

Readiness Levels

Question 37

What are the four phases of the evaluation sequence?

Answer 37

Phase 1 (Introduction)

• Review IATF
• Confirms the purpose of the evaluation.

Phase 2 (Academic Evaluation)
- Scenario based and according to the units METL utilizing the ACAT.

Phase 3 (Flight Evaluation)

• Brief tasks to be evaluated.
• Flight tasks according to the MTL and CTL.

Phase 4 (Debriefing)
- Identify weaknesses and training needs.

Question 38

What qualities should an evaluator possess, based on the fundamental evaluation principles?

Answer 38

Technical qualifications, demonstrated performance, objectivity, ability to observe, and the ability to provide constructive comments.

Question 39

In what phase of the evaluation sequence is a FI/SI able to evaluate any task performed during the flight (as long as the task is listed on the ACM’s CTL).

Answer 39

Phase 3 (Flight Evaluation).

Question 40

Where would completion of initial training be annotated?

Answer 40

Completion of initial training will be annotated on the individuals DA Form 7122.

Question 41

On what two forms will “Extensions, Waivers, and Suspensions” be annotated on?

Answer 41

DA Forms 7122 (Crew Member Training Record)

DA Form 759 (Individual Flight Record and Flight Certificate)

Question 42

What is a DA Form 7120?

Answer 42

DA Form 7120

Commander’s Task List

Question 43

What is a DA Form 7122

Answer 43

DA Form 7122

Crew Member Training Record

Question 44

What is a DA Form 759?

Answer 44

DA Form 759
Individual Flight Record and Flight Certificate
(AIRCRAFT CLOSEOUT)

Question 45

What publications describe personnel authorized to perform flight duties & be on flight orders (NCM)?

Answer 45

AR 600-106
FLYING STATUS FOR NONRATED ARMY AVIATION PERSONNEL

AR 600-105
AVIATION SERVICE OF RATED ARMY OFFICERS

Question 46

What are the grading considerations regarding academic evaluation?

Answer 46

The examinee must demonstrate a working knowledge and understanding of the required topics listed in the ACAT in the aircraft ATM.

Question 47

When do ATP requirements start for Active Duty and

M-Day/RC/Technician ACMs?

Answer 47

Active Duty- ATP requirements at RL1.

M-Day/RC/Technicians- ATP Requirements at RL2.

Question 48

How many days do Active Duty ACMs have to progress from one RL level to the next?

Answer 48

Active Army ACMs, AGR ACMs, and all RC FTS ACMs with flying as a condition of their military duty or technician employment, have 90 consecutive days to progress from one RL to the next.

Question 49

How many days do M-Day ACMs have to progress from one RL level to the next?

Answer 49

RCs (including M-Day ACMs, troop program unit (TPU) ACMs, and those on ADOs orders assigned to non-aviation/non-flying duty assignments but volunteer to maintain ATP requirements) have 1 year to progress from one RL to the next.

Question 50

If a ACM fails to progress from one RL to the next, what action must be taken?

Answer 50

The commander must investigate, determine the reason, and take appropriate action IAW AR 95-1.

Question 51

If a ACM is unable to fly for over 30 days, what actions must be taken regarding proration?

Answer 51

Reduce flying hour minimums by 1 month for each 30 day period the ACM was unable to fly.