Aircraft part 2 Flashcards
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace
A: Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL).
B: Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C.
C: Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL).
B
With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with
A: an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.
B: an operable VOR or TACAN receiver and an ADF receiver.
C: instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.
A
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when
A: less than 2,500 feet AGL.
B: over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
C: flight visibility is less than 5 miles.
B
In which controlled airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited
A: All Class G airspace.
B: Class D airspace, Class E airspace designated for Federal Airways.
C: All Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL.
B
What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight
A: 2,000 feet AGL.
B: 1,500 feet AGL.
C: 1,000 feet AGL.
B
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than
A: 3 miles.
B: 5 miles.
C: 7 miles.
A
A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
A: 60 days.
B: 90 days.
C: 120 days.
C
An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
A: 365 days.
B: 120 days.
C: 180 days.
B
With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute
A: When intentionally banking in excess of 30°.
B: When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more.
C: When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers.
B
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft
A: Flight within Class D airspace.
B: Flight under instrument flight rules.
C: Flight over a densely populated area.
C
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate
A: from the primary airport within Class D airspace.
B: beneath the floor of Class B airspace.
C: over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
C
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
A: pilot in command.
B: mechanic who performs the work.
C: owner or operator.
A
The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
A: owner or operator.
B: pilot in command.
C: mechanic who performed the work.
A
Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by
A: the relicensing date on the Registration Certificate.
B: an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
C: an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date.
B
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft’s operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated
A: by any private pilot.
B: with passengers aboard.
C: for compensation or hire.
B
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a
A: Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
B: Private Pilot Certificate.
C: Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic’s certificate.
B
An aircraft’s annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than
A: July 31, next year.
B: July 13, next year.
C: July 1, next year.
A
To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the
A: Airworthiness Certificate.
B: Registration Certificate.
C: aircraft maintenance records.
C
How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid
A: As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
B: Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.
C: As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.
A
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction
A: Biannual and 100-hour inspections.
B: Annual and 100-hour inspections.
C: Annual and 50-hour inspections.
B
An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due
A: 1349.6 hours.
B: 1359.6 hours.
C: 1369.6 hours.
B
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due
A: 3312.5 hours.
B: 3402.5 hours.
C: 3409.5 hours.
B
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding
A: 6 calendar months.
B: 24 calendar months.
C: 12 calendar months.
B
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 1993. The next inspection will be due no later than
A: September 30, 1994.
B: September 1, 1995.
C: September 30, 1995.
C
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive
A: Airworthiness and Registration Certificates.
B: Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot’s Operating Handbook.
C: Aircraft maintenance records.
C
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified
A: within 7 days.
B: immediately.
C: within 48 hours.
B
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office
A: A forced landing due to engine failure.
B: Flight control system malfunction or failure.
C: Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
B
Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office
A: An in-flight generator/alternator failure.
B: An in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability.
C: An in-flight fire.
C
Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office
A: An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
B: An in-flight generator or alternator failure.
C: An in-flight radio communications failure.
A
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody
A: Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
B: Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
C: No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.
B
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days
A: 10.
B: 5.
C: 7.
A
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB
A: when requested.
B: within 7 days.
C: within 10 days.
A
The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are
A: lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
B: lift, weight, gravity, and thrust.
C: lift, gravity, power, and friction.
A
When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium
A: During unaccelerated flight.
B: When the aircraft is at rest on the ground.
C: When the aircraft is accelerating.
A
(Refer to figure 1.) The acute angle A is the angle of
A: dihedral.
B: incidence.
C: attack.
C
The term “angle of attack’’ is defined as the angle
A: formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the wing.
B: between the wing chord line and the relative wind.
C: between the airplane’s climb angle and the horizon.
B
What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight
A: Lift, drag, and weight equal thrust.
B: Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
C: Lift and weight equal thrust and drag.
B
How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance
A: Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability.
B: Frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing its lifting capability.
C: Frost will cause the airplane to become airborne with a higher angle of attack, decreasing the stall speed.
A
In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane
A: Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
B: High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
C: Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.
A
The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the
A: gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90° in advance of the point the force was applied.
B: clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the airplane counter-clockwise.
C: propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
C
When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left
A: When at high angles of attack.
B: When at high airspeeds.
C: When at low angles of attack.
A
An airplane said to be inherently stable will
A: require less effort to control.
B: be difficult to stall.
C: not spin.
A
What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane
A: The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
B: The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab.
C: The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.
C
What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted
A: The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
B: The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.
C: When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight.
A
What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane
A: To control yaw.
B: To control overbanking tendency.
C: To control roll.
A
(Refer to figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude
A: 4,600 pounds.
B: 2,300 pounds.
C: 3,400 pounds.
A
(Refer to figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude
A: 1,200 pounds.
B: 3,960 pounds.
C: 3,100 pounds.
B
(Refer to figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 4,500 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 45° banked turn while maintaining altitude
A: 4,500 pounds.
B: 7,200 pounds.
C: 6,750 pounds.
C
The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the
A: position of the CG.
B: abruptness at which the load is applied.
C: speed of the airplane.
C
Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight
A: Stalls.
B: Climbs.
C: Turns.
C
One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to
A: increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
B: decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
C: permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed.
A
What is one purpose of wing flaps
A: To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls.
B: To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
C: To decrease wing area to vary the lift.
B
Excessively high engine temperatures will
A: not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.
B: cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
C: cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
B
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
A: higher-than-normal oil pressure.
B: the mixture set too rich.
C: too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
C
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
A: balanced cylinder head pressure.
B: improved engine performance.
C: uniform heat distribution.
B
The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the
A: difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
B: increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
C: automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
A
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
A: increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
B: decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.
C: decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
C
During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action
A: Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
B: Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
C: Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
A
While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture
A: The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
B: There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
C: The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.
A
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing
A: Temperature between 20 and 70 °F and high humidity.
B: Temperature between 32 and 50 °F and low humidity.
C: Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.
A
The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as
A: high as 70 °F and the relative humidity is high.
B: high as 95 °F and there is visible moisture.
C: low as 0 °F and the relative humidity is high.
A
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
A: engine roughness.
B: a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
C: loss of RPM.
C
