Aircraft part 2 Flashcards
1
Q
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace
A: Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL).
B: Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C.
C: Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL).
A
B
2
Q
With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with
A: an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.
B: an operable VOR or TACAN receiver and an ADF receiver.
C: instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.
A
A
3
Q
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when
A: less than 2,500 feet AGL.
B: over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
C: flight visibility is less than 5 miles.
A
B
4
Q
In which controlled airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited
A: All Class G airspace.
B: Class D airspace, Class E airspace designated for Federal Airways.
C: All Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL.
A
B
5
Q
What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight
A: 2,000 feet AGL.
B: 1,500 feet AGL.
C: 1,000 feet AGL.
A
B
6
Q
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than
A: 3 miles.
B: 5 miles.
C: 7 miles.
A
A
7
Q
A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
A: 60 days.
B: 90 days.
C: 120 days.
A
C
8
Q
An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
A: 365 days.
B: 120 days.
C: 180 days.
A
B
9
Q
With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute
A: When intentionally banking in excess of 30°.
B: When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more.
C: When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers.
A
B
10
Q
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft
A: Flight within Class D airspace.
B: Flight under instrument flight rules.
C: Flight over a densely populated area.
A
C
11
Q
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate
A: from the primary airport within Class D airspace.
B: beneath the floor of Class B airspace.
C: over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
A
C
12
Q
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
A: pilot in command.
B: mechanic who performs the work.
C: owner or operator.
A
A
13
Q
The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
A: owner or operator.
B: pilot in command.
C: mechanic who performed the work.
A
A
14
Q
Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by
A: the relicensing date on the Registration Certificate.
B: an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
C: an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date.
A
B
15
Q
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft’s operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated
A: by any private pilot.
B: with passengers aboard.
C: for compensation or hire.
A
B
16
Q
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a
A: Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
B: Private Pilot Certificate.
C: Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic’s certificate.
A
B
17
Q
An aircraft’s annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than
A: July 31, next year.
B: July 13, next year.
C: July 1, next year.
A
A
18
Q
To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the
A: Airworthiness Certificate.
B: Registration Certificate.
C: aircraft maintenance records.
A
C
19
Q
How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid
A: As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
B: Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.
C: As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.
A
A
20
Q
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction
A: Biannual and 100-hour inspections.
B: Annual and 100-hour inspections.
C: Annual and 50-hour inspections.
A
B
21
Q
An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due
A: 1349.6 hours.
B: 1359.6 hours.
C: 1369.6 hours.
A
B
22
Q
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due
A: 3312.5 hours.
B: 3402.5 hours.
C: 3409.5 hours.
A
B
23
Q
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding
A: 6 calendar months.
B: 24 calendar months.
C: 12 calendar months.
A
B
24
Q
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 1993. The next inspection will be due no later than
A: September 30, 1994.
B: September 1, 1995.
C: September 30, 1995.
A
C
25
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive
A: Airworthiness and Registration Certificates.
B: Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot's Operating Handbook.
C: Aircraft maintenance records.
C
26
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified
A: within 7 days.
B: immediately.
C: within 48 hours.
B
27
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office
A: A forced landing due to engine failure.
B: Flight control system malfunction or failure.
C: Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
B
28
Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office
A: An in-flight generator/alternator failure.
B: An in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability.
C: An in-flight fire.
C
29
Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office
A: An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
B: An in-flight generator or alternator failure.
C: An in-flight radio communications failure.
A
30
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody
A: Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
B: Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
C: No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.
B
31
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days
A: 10.
B: 5.
C: 7.
A
32
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB
A: when requested.
B: within 7 days.
C: within 10 days.
A
33
The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are
A: lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
B: lift, weight, gravity, and thrust.
C: lift, gravity, power, and friction.
A
34
When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium
A: During unaccelerated flight.
B: When the aircraft is at rest on the ground.
C: When the aircraft is accelerating.
A
35
(Refer to figure 1.) The acute angle A is the angle of
A: dihedral.
B: incidence.
C: attack.
C
36
The term "angle of attack'' is defined as the angle
A: formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the wing.
B: between the wing chord line and the relative wind.
C: between the airplane's climb angle and the horizon.
B
37
What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight
A: Lift, drag, and weight equal thrust.
B: Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
C: Lift and weight equal thrust and drag.
B
38
How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance
A: Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability.
B: Frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing its lifting capability.
C: Frost will cause the airplane to become airborne with a higher angle of attack, decreasing the stall speed.
A
39
In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane
A: Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
B: High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
C: Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.
A
40
The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the
A: gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90° in advance of the point the force was applied.
B: clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the airplane counter-clockwise.
C: propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
C
41
When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left
A: When at high angles of attack.
B: When at high airspeeds.
C: When at low angles of attack.
A
42
An airplane said to be inherently stable will
A: require less effort to control.
B: be difficult to stall.
C: not spin.
A
43
What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane
A: The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
B: The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab.
C: The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.
C
44
What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted
A: The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
B: The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.
C: When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight.
A
45
What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane
A: To control yaw.
B: To control overbanking tendency.
C: To control roll.
A
46
(Refer to figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude
A: 4,600 pounds.
B: 2,300 pounds.
C: 3,400 pounds.
A
47
(Refer to figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude
A: 1,200 pounds.
B: 3,960 pounds.
C: 3,100 pounds.
B
48
(Refer to figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 4,500 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 45° banked turn while maintaining altitude
A: 4,500 pounds.
B: 7,200 pounds.
C: 6,750 pounds.
C
49
The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the
A: position of the CG.
B: abruptness at which the load is applied.
C: speed of the airplane.
C
50
Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight
A: Stalls.
B: Climbs.
C: Turns.
C
51
One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to
A: increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
B: decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
C: permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed.
A
52
What is one purpose of wing flaps
A: To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls.
B: To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
C: To decrease wing area to vary the lift.
B
53
Excessively high engine temperatures will
A: not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.
B: cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
C: cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
B
54
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
A: higher-than-normal oil pressure.
B: the mixture set too rich.
C: too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
C
55
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
A: balanced cylinder head pressure.
B: improved engine performance.
C: uniform heat distribution.
B
56
The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the
A: difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
B: increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
C: automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
A
57
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
A: increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
B: decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.
C: decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
C
58
During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action
A: Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
B: Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
C: Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
A
59
While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture
A: The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
B: There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
C: The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.
A
60
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing
A: Temperature between 20 and 70 °F and high humidity.
B: Temperature between 32 and 50 °F and low humidity.
C: Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.
A
61
The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as
A: high as 70 °F and the relative humidity is high.
B: high as 95 °F and there is visible moisture.
C: low as 0 °F and the relative humidity is high.
A
62
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
A: engine roughness.
B: a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
C: loss of RPM.
C
63
Applying carburetor heat will
A: not affect the fuel/air mixture.
B: result in more air going through the carburetor.
C: enrich the fuel/air mixture.
C
64
What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied
A: The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.
B: A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
C: The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
C
65
Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
A: have no effect on engine performance.
B: increase engine performance.
C: decrease engine performance.
C
66
The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
A: a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
B: a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
C: an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
A
67
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
A: more susceptible to icing.
B: equally susceptible to icing.
C: susceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.
A
68
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause
A: detonation.
B: lower cylinder head temperatures.
C: a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
A
69
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
A: hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
B: the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.
C: the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.
C
70
If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to
A: lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
B: lean the mixture.
C: apply carburetor heat.
A
71
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
A: pre-ignition.
B: detonation.
C: combustion.
A
72
Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges
A: Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
B: Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating.
C: Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure.
A
73
What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available
A: Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.
B: The next higher octane aviation gas.
C: The next lower octane aviation gas.
B
74
Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will
A: prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
B: force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
C: prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
A
75
For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
A: a properly functioning thermostat.
B: the circulation of lubricating oil.
C: air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
B
76
An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
A: operating with a too high viscosity oil.
B: the oil level being too low.
C: operating with an excessively rich mixture.
B
77
What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why
A: Efficiency is reduced due to the increased force of the propeller in the thinner air.
B: Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
C: Efficiency is increased due to less friction on the propeller blades.
B
78
If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected
A: The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
B: The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
C: The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
A
79
Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged
A: Airspeed.
B: Vertical speed.
C: Altimeter.
A
80
Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged
A: Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
B: Altimeter only.
C: Airspeed only.
A
81
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
A: absolute altitude at field elevation.
B: calibrated altitude at field elevation.
C: true altitude at field elevation.
C
82
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter
A: Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
B: Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.
C: Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
A
83
What is true altitude
A: The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
B: The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
C: The height above the standard datum plane.
B
84
What is absolute altitude
A: The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
B: The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C: The height above the standard datum plane.
B
85
What is density altitude
A: The height above the standard datum plane.
B: The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
C: The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
C
86
What is pressure altitude
A: The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
B: The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
C: The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
A
87
Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude
A: If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
B: When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.
C: When at sea level under standard conditions.
C
88
If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs
A: 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.
B: 70-foot increase in density altitude.
C: 70-foot increase in indicated altitude.
A
89
The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument
A: Airspeed indicator.
B: Altimeter.
C: Vertical-speed indicator.
A
90
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will
A: remain the same regardless of altitude.
B: decrease as the true airspeed decreases.
C: decrease as the true airspeed increases.
A
91
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent
A: Maneuvering speed.
B: Turbulent or rough-air speed.
C: Never-exceed speed.
C
92
(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration
A: Upper limit of the white arc.
B: Upper limit of the green arc.
C: Lower limit of the green arc.
C
93
(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range
A: The lower limit of the white arc to the upper limit of the green arc.
B: The white arc.
C: The green arc.
B
94
(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration
A: Upper limit of the white arc.
B: Lower limit of the white arc.
C: Upper limit of the green arc.
B
95
(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum structural cruising speed
A: 100 MPH.
B: 208 MPH.
C: 165 MPH.
C
96
What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators
A: Maneuvering speed.
B: Maximum structural cruising speed.
C: Never-exceed speed.
A
97
(Refer to figure 5.) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
A: angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30°.
B: attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis.
C: movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axis.
C
98
(Refer to figure 6.) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be
A: calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.
B: periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.
C: set prior to flight on a known heading.
B
99
(Refer to figure 7.) The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the
A: horizon bar to the miniature airplane.
B: horizon bar to the level-flight indication.
C: miniature airplane to the horizon bar.
C
100
(Refer to figure 7.) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated
A: By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).
B: By the direction of deflection of the banking scale (A).
C: By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar (B).
A
101
Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
A: difference in the location between true north and magnetic north.
B: magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.
C: presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.
B
102
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if
A: a right turn is entered from a north heading.
B: an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
C: a left turn is entered from a north heading.
A
103
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if
A: an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
B: an aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.
C: a left turn is entered from a north heading.
C
104
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if
A: a left turn is entered from a west heading.
B: an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
C: a right turn is entered from an east heading.
B
105
In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when
A: the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.
B: a right turn is entered from a west heading.
C: a left turn is entered from an east heading.
A
106
In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
A: correctly when on a north or south heading.
B: a turn toward the south.
C: a turn momentarily.
A
107
In the Northern Hemisphere, if a glider is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
A: a turn toward south while accelerating on a west heading.
B: correctly only when on a north or south heading.
C: a turn toward north while decelerating on an east heading.
B
108
During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate
A: During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°.
B: Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.
C: As long as the airspeed is constant.
B
109
An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be
A: stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed.
B: a longer takeoff run.
C: difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.
C
110
Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be
A: less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low speeds.
B: less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at high speeds.
C: less stable at all speeds.
C
111
If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is
A: lower than pressure altitude.
B: higher than pressure altitude.
C: equal to pressure altitude.
B
112
Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance
A: High temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude.
B: Low temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude.
C: High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude.
C
113
What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance
A: It increases takeoff performance.
B: It increases engine performance.
C: It reduces climb performance.
C
114
(Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25 to 50 °F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000 feet
A: 1,650-foot increase.
B: 1,200-foot increase.
C: 1,400-foot increase.
A
115
(Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude with an indicated altitude of 1,380 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 28.22 at standard temperature.
A: 3,010 feet MSL.
B: 2,991 feet MSL.
C: 2,913 feet MSL.
A
116
(Refer to figure 8.) Determine the density altitude for these conditions:Altimeter setting 29.25Runway temperature +81 °F Airport elevation 5,250 ft MSL
A: 8,500 feet MSL.
B: 5,877 feet MSL.
C: 4,600 feet MSL.
A
117
(Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 3,563 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.96.
A: 3,556 feet MSL.
B: 3,527 feet MSL.
C: 3,639 feet MSL.
B
118
(Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 30 to 50 °F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL
A: 1,100-foot decrease.
B: 1,300-foot increase.
C: 900-foot increase.
B
119
(Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.97.
A: 1,451 feet MSL.
B: 1,341 feet MSL.
C: 1,562 feet MSL.
B
120
(Refer to figure 8.) Determine the density altitude for these conditions:Altimeter setting 30.35Runway temperature +25 °FAirport elevation 3,894 ft MSL
A: 2,000 feet MSL.
B: 2,900 feet MSL.
C: 3,500 feet MSL.
A
121
(Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on the density altitude from 90 °F and 1,250 feet pressure altitude to 55 °F and 1,750 feet pressure altitude
A: 1,300-foot decrease.
B: 1,700-foot decrease.
C: 1,700-foot increase.
A
122
What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance
A: It has no effect on performance.
B: It decreases performance.
C: It increases performance.
B
123
What force makes an airplane turn
A: The vertical component of lift.
B: Centrifugal force.
C: The horizontal component of lift.
C
124
When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used
A: Ailerons neutral.
B: Aileron down on the downwind side.
C: Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
C
125
Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds
A: Ailerons neutral.
B: Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
C: Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
B
126
Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane
A: Quartering headwind.
B: Direct crosswind.
C: Quartering tailwind.
C
127
(Refer to figure 9, area A.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind
A: Left aileron up, elevator down.
B: Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
C: Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
B
128
(Refer to figure 9, area B.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind
A: Right aileron up, elevator down.
B: Right aileron down, elevator neutral.
C: Right aileron up, elevator up.
C
129
(Refer to figure 9, area C.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind
A: Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
B: Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
C: Left aileron down, elevator down.
C
130
(Refer to figure 9, area C.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind
A: Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
B: Left aileron down, elevator down.
C: Left aileron up, elevator down.
B
131
In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin
A: Stalled.
B: Partially stalled with one wing low.
C: In a steep diving spiral.
A
132
During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled
A: Neither wing is stalled.
B: Only the left wing is stalled.
C: Both wings are stalled.
C
133
The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
A: increase if the CG is moved forward.
B: remain the same regardless of gross weight.
C: change with an increase in gross weight.
B
134
What is ground effect
A: The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an airplane to the point where the wings will no longer support the airplane in flight.
B: The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.
C: The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an airplane.
B
135
Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at
A: a higher-than-normal angle of attack.
B: twice the length of the wingspan above the surface.
C: less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.
C
136
What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect
A: Wingtip vortices increase creating wake turbulence problems for arriving and departing aircraft.
B: Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.
C: A full stall landing will require less up elevator deflection than would a full stall when done free of ground effect.
B
137
Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem
A: Settling to the surface abruptly during landing.
B: Inability to get airborne even though airspeed is sufficient for normal takeoff needs.
C: Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.
C
138
During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to
A: have a tendency to spin.
B: stall at a higher airspeed.
C: be more difficult to control.
B
139
Angle of attack is defined as the angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the
A: pitch angle of an airfoil.
B: rotor plane of rotation.
C: direction of the relative wind.
C
140
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a
A: heat exchange.
B: pressure differential.
C: movement of air.
A
141
What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points
A: Coriolis force.
B: Unequal heating of the Earth's surface.
C: Variation of terrain elevation.
B
142
A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition
A: Good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft.
B: An increase in temperature as altitude is increased.
C: Clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft.
B
143
The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
A: terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
B: warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
C: the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.
A
144
Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high
A: Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
B: Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain.
C: Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation.
A
145
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level
A: 59 °F and 29.92 millibars.
B: 59 °C and 1013.2 millibars.
C: 15 °C and 29.92" Hg.
C
146
If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication
A: Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
B: Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
C: Altimeter will indicate .15" Hg higher.
B
147
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude
A: When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
B: When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.
C: When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
A
148
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value
A: At standard temperature.
B: At sea level, when the temperature is 0 °F.
C: When the altimeter has no installation error.
A
149
If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A: lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
B: higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C: the actual altitude above sea level.
A
150
If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A: the actual altitude above sea level.
B: lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
C: higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C
151
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude
A: When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.
B: In warmer than standard air temperature.
C: In colder than standard air temperature.
C
152
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude
A: Air temperature lower than standard.
B: Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
C: Air temperature warmer than standard.
C
153
Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport
A: An increase in barometric pressure.
B: An increase in ambient temperature.
C: A decrease in relative humidity.
B
154
The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
A: stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
B: stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
C: friction between the wind and the surface.
C
155
What is meant by the term "dewpoint''
A: The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.
B: The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
C: The temperature at which dew will always form.
B
156
The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the
A: stability of the air.
B: dewpoint.
C: air temperature.
C
