Aircraft

Question 1

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
A: Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
B: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
C: Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft
A: Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
B: Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.
C: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
A: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
B: Landplane, seaplane.
C: Normal, utility, acrobatic.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft
A: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
B: Transport, restricted, provisional.
C: Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.

Answer 4

A

Question 5

The definition of nighttime is
A: the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
B: sunset to sunrise.
C: 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

Answer 5

A

Question 6

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed
A: VLO.
B: VNE.
C: VA.

Answer 6

C

Question 7

Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
A: VFE.
B: VLOF.
C: VFC.

Answer 7

A

Question 8

Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
A: VLE.
B: VLO.
C: VFE.

Answer 8

A

Question 9

VNO is defined as the
A: normal operating range.
B: maximum structural cruising speed.
C: never-exceed speed.

Answer 9

B

Question 10

VSO is defined as the
A: stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration.
B: stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed.
C: stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

Answer 10

C

Question 11

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?
A: VY.
B: VX.
C: VA.

Answer 11

B

Question 12

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?
A: VA.
B: VX.
C: VY.

Answer 12

C

Question 13

Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
A: The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook.
B: The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
C: A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.

Answer 13

B

Question 14

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
A: Alteration of main seat support brackets.
B: Engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used.
C: Servicing landing gear wheel bearings.

Answer 14

C

Question 15

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
A: Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
B: Repair of landing gear brace struts.
C: Repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.

Answer 15

A

Question 16

When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
A: Only when passengers are carried.
B: Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.
C: When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery.

Answer 16

B

Question 17

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any
A: person in a position of authority.
B: authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
C: federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.

Answer 17

C

Question 18

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on
A: May 31, 2 years later.
B: May 31, 1 year later.
C: May 3, 1 year later.

Answer 18

A

Question 19

For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on
A: July 31, 1 year later.
B: July 31, 2 years later.
C: July 15, 2 years later.

Answer 19

B

Question 20

The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?
A: Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.
B: Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator.
C: Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

Answer 20

C

Question 21

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?
A: An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots.
B: An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller.
C: An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

Answer 21

C

Question 22

Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have
A: received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person’s logbook.
B: an endorsement in that person’s logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.
C: passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector.

Answer 22

A

Question 23

In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have
A: received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.
B: made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane.
C: passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane.

Answer 23

A

Question 24

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding
A: 24 calendar months.
B: 6 calendar months.
C: 12 calendar months.

Answer 24

A

Question 25

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
A: 1929.
B: 1859.
C: 1829.

Answer 25

A

Question 26

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding
A: 24 calendar months.
B: 90 days.
C: 12 calendar months.

Answer 26

B

Question 27

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same
A: make and model.
B: category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.
C: category and class, but not type.

Answer 27

B

Question 28

The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane
A: may be touch and go or full stop.
B: must be to a full stop.
C: must be touch and go.

Answer 28

B

Question 29

The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from
A: sunset to sunrise.
B: 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
C: the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Answer 29

B

Question 30

To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in
A:  any aircraft.
B:  the same type of aircraft to be used.
C:  the same category and class of aircraft to be used.

Answer 30

C

Question 31

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only
A: 30 days after the date of the move.
B: 90 days after the date of the move.
C: 60 days after the date of the move.

Answer 31

A

Question 32

A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot’s logbook a minimum of
A: 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
B: 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
C: 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

Answer 32

B

Question 33

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months
A: at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
B: at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.
C: at least three flights in a powered glider.

Answer 33

A

Question 34

What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight
A: There is no exception.
B: If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
C: If the passengers pay all the operating expenses.

Answer 34

B

Question 35

The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is
A: 6 nautical miles.
B: 4 nautical miles.
C: 8 nautical miles.

Answer 35

B

Question 36

Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
A: 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
B: the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
C: 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

Answer 36

A

Question 37

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least
A: 1,000 feet and 3 miles.
B: 2,500 feet and 3 miles.
C: 1,000 feet and 1 mile.

Answer 37

A

Question 38

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the
A: pilot in command.
B: aircraft manufacturer.
C: Federal Aviation Administration.

Answer 38

A

Question 39

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may
A: deviate from the FAR’s to the extent required to meet that emergency.
B: deviate from the FAR’s to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours.
C: not deviate from the FAR’s unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator.

Answer 39

A

Question 40

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator
A: Within 10 days.
B: Within 7 days.
C: Upon request.

Answer 40

C

Question 41

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight
A: The pilot in command.
B: The owner or operator.
C: A certificated aircraft mechanic.

Answer 41

A

Question 42

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found
A: In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
B: On the Airworthiness Certificate.
C: In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

Answer 42

A

Question 43

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft
A: If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
B: If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration.
C: Only in an emergency.

Answer 43

A

Question 44

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
A: 12 hours.
B: 8 hours.
C: 24 hours.

Answer 44

B

Question 45

Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft
A: In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
B: Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot’s compartment.
C: Under no condition.

Answer 45

A

Question 46

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with
A: .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
B: .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
C: .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

Answer 46

C

Question 47

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight
A: Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
B: Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
C: Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.

Answer 47

B

Question 48

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include
A: a study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use.
B: an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
C: the designation of an alternate airport.

Answer 48

B

Question 49

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
A: check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
B: review traffic control light signal procedures.
C: determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.

Answer 49

C

Question 50

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during
A: flight in turbulent air.
B: takeoffs and landings.
C: all flight conditions.

Answer 50

B

Question 51

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened
A: Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
B: Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
C: Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

Answer 51

A

Question 52

With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts
A: The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers’ use of safety belts.
B: The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
C: The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight.

Answer 52

B

Question 53

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during
A: all flight conditions.
B: flight in turbulent air.
C: taxi, takeoffs, and landings.

Answer 53

C

Question 54

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when
A: Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.
B: Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
C: Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.

Answer 54

B

Question 55

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight
A: in Class D airspace under special VFR.
B: over a densely populated area.
C: except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

Answer 55

C

Question 56

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic
A: An aircraft on final approach to land.
B: An aircraft in distress.
C: A balloon.

Answer 56

B

Question 57

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on
A: The aircraft on the left shall give way.
B: Each aircraft shall give way to the right.
C: The faster aircraft shall give way.

Answer 57

A

Question 58

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed
A: Glider.
B: Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
C: Airship.

Answer 58

A

Question 59

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right-of-way
A: The airplane.
B: Each pilot should alter course to the right.
C: The airship.

Answer 59

C

Question 60

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed
A: Airship.
B: Aircraft towing other aircraft.
C: Gyroplane.

Answer 60

B

Question 61

What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course
A: Both pilots should give way to the right.
B: The glider pilot should give way to the right.
C: The airplane pilot should give way to the left.

Answer 61

A

Question 62

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
A: that has the other to its right.
B: that is the least maneuverable.
C: at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

Answer 62

C

Question 63

A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way
A: The seaplane.
B: The motorboat.
C: Both should alter course to the right.

Answer 63

A

Question 64

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL
A: 200 knots.
B: 250 knots.
C: 288 knots.

Answer 64

B

Question 65

nless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is
A: 200 knots.
B: 250 knots.
C: 230 knots.

Answer 65

B

Question 66

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
A: 230 knots.
B: 200 knots.
C: 250 knots.

Answer 66

B

Question 67

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
A: 200 knots.
B: 250 knots.
C: 180 knots.

Answer 67

A

Question 68

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere
A: An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
B: An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
C: An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

Answer 68

A

Question 69

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas
A: An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
B: An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft.
C: An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

Answer 69

C

Question 70

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area
A: An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
B: An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
C: An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

Answer 70

C

Question 71

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure
A: 500 feet.
B: 700 feet.
C: 1,000 feet.

Answer 71

A

Question 72

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter
A: Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
B: The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.
C: The elevation of the departure area.

Answer 72

C

Question 73

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting
A: The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
B: The corrected density altitude of the departure airport.
C: The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.

Answer 73

A

Question 74

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level
A: 24,000 feet MSL.
B: 18,000 feet MSL.
C: 14,500 feet MSL.

Answer 74

B

Question 75

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is
A: an emergency.
B: when the clearance states “at pilot’s discretion.’’
C: if the clearance contains a restriction.

Answer 75

A

Question 76

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance
A: Immediately.
B: Within 7 days.
C: When requested by ATC.

Answer 76

C

Question 77

What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority
A: File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
B: File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible.
C: Take no special action since you are pilot in command.

Answer 77

A

Question 78

A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
A: should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
B: should return for landing.
C: is cleared to land.

Answer 78

C

Question 79

Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi
A: Flashing green.
B: Flashing white.
C: Steady green.

Answer 79

A

Question 80

If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be
A: steady red.
B: flashing red.
C: alternating red and green.

Answer 80

A

Question 81

A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
A: taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways.
B: taxi at a faster speed.
C: return to the starting point on the airport.

Answer 81

C

Question 82

An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to
A: exercise extreme caution.
B: hold position.
C: not land; the airport is unsafe.

Answer 82

A

Question 83

While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should
A: exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
B: abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing.
C: discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land.

Answer 83

A

Question 84

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace
A: Class B.
B: Class C.
C: Class D.

Answer 84

C

Question 85

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
A: when the associated control tower is in operation.
B: when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.
C: when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.

Answer 85

A

Question 86

Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs
A: at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
B: at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
C: at all tower controlled airports within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

Answer 86

B

Question 87

Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
A: maintain a 3° glide to the runway.
B: maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
C: stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.

Answer 87

B

Question 88

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall
A: maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
B: maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold.
C: remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar.

Answer 88

A

Question 89

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport
A: Make all turns to the left.
B: Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
C: Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.

Answer 89

B

Question 90

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace
A: Class E.
B: Class C.
C: Class G.

Answer 90

B

Question 91

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace
A: Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
B: Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
C: Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME.

Answer 91

A

Question 92

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace
A: Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
B: Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
C: Recreational Pilot Certificate.

Answer 92

B

Question 93

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace
A: Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
B: Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
C: Commercial Pilot Certificate.

Answer 93

B

Question 94

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace
A: Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver.
B: Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
C: Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.

Answer 94

B

Question 95

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in
A: Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
B: Class D airspace.
C: Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.

Answer 95

A

Question 96

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited
A: Class A.
B: Class B.
C: Class C.

Answer 96

A

Question 97

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane
A: Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B: Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C: Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.

Answer 97

B

Question 98

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane
A: Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
B: Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C: Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Answer 98

B

Question 99

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours
A: 3 miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds.
B: 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
C: 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

Answer 99

B

Question 100

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying VFR above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
A: 1 mile.
B: 3 miles.
C: 5 miles.

Answer 100

B

Question 101

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
A: 2,000 feet.
B: 1,000 feet.
C: 1,500 feet.

Answer 101

A

Question 102

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours
A: 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
B: 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
C: 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.

Answer 102

B

Question 103

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL
A: 1 mile.
B: 4 miles.
C: 3 miles.

Answer 103

C

Question 104

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
A: remain clear of clouds.
B: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
C: 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

Answer 104

B

Question 105

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
A: 500 feet.
B: 1,000 feet.
C: 1,500 feet.

Answer 105

B

Question 106

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of
A: 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
B: 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes.
C: 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.

Answer 106

A

Question 107

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
A: 1 mile.
B: 3 miles.
C: 5 miles.

Answer 107

B

Question 108

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
A: 5 miles.
B: 3 miles.
C: 1 mile.

Answer 108

C

Question 109

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
A: 500 feet.
B: 1,000 feet.
C: 1,500 feet.

Answer 109

A

Question 110

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
A: 5 miles.
B: 3 miles.
C: 1 mile.

Answer 110

A

Question 111

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is
A: 2,000 feet.
B: 1,000 feet.
C: 1 mile.

Answer 111

C

Question 112

During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
A: 1,000 feet.
B: 500 feet.
C: 1,500 feet.

Answer 112

A

Question 113

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the
A: flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
B: ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
C: ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

Answer 113

C

Question 114

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are
A: 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
B: 500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
C: clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility.

Answer 114

A

Question 115

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is
A: at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
B: at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
C: less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.

Answer 115

A

Question 116

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace
A: 1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.
B: 3 miles flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.
C: 1 mile flight visibility.

Answer 116

C

Question 117

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night
A: The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
B: The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
C: The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.

Answer 117

C

Question 118

No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the
A: flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds.
B: flight visibility is at least 3 miles.
C: airplane is equipped for instrument flight.

Answer 118

C

Question 119

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°
A: Even thousandths plus 500 feet.
B: Even thousandths.
C: Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.

Answer 119

C

Question 120

Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.
A: 5,000 feet.
B: 4,500 feet.
C: 5,500 feet.

Answer 120

C

Question 121

Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°
A: 4,500 feet.
B: 4,000 feet.
C: 5,000 feet.

Answer 121

A

Question 122

Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a
A: true course of 0° through 179°.
B: magnetic course of 0° through 179°.
C: magnetic heading of 0° through 179°.

Answer 122

B

Question 123

In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight
A: Radio operator’s permit, and repair and alteration forms.
B: Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner’s manual.
C: Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.

Answer 123

C

Question 124

When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable
A: When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
B: When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane’s communication radio receiver.
C: After any inadvertent activation of the ELT.

Answer 124

A

Question 125

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced
A: When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
B: Every 24 months.
C: At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection.

Answer 125

A

Question 126

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft
A: End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
B: 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
C: Sunset to sunrise.

Answer 126

C

Question 127

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during
A: that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
B: that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.
C: the entire flight time at those altitudes.

Answer 127

A

Question 128

Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of
A: 14,000 feet MSL.
B: 15,000 feet MSL.
C: 12,500 feet MSL.

Answer 128

B