Aircraft Flashcards
1
Q
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
A: Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
B: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
C: Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
A
B
2
Q
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft
A: Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
B: Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.
C: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
A
A
3
Q
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
A: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
B: Landplane, seaplane.
C: Normal, utility, acrobatic.
A
C
4
Q
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft
A: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
B: Transport, restricted, provisional.
C: Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
A
A
5
Q
The definition of nighttime is
A: the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
B: sunset to sunrise.
C: 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
A
A
6
Q
Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed
A: VLO.
B: VNE.
C: VA.
A
C
7
Q
Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
A: VFE.
B: VLOF.
C: VFC.
A
A
8
Q
Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
A: VLE.
B: VLO.
C: VFE.
A
A
9
Q
VNO is defined as the
A: normal operating range.
B: maximum structural cruising speed.
C: never-exceed speed.
A
B
10
Q
VSO is defined as the
A: stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration.
B: stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed.
C: stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
A
C
11
Q
Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?
A: VY.
B: VX.
C: VA.
A
B
12
Q
After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?
A: VA.
B: VX.
C: VY.
A
C
13
Q
Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
A: The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook.
B: The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
C: A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.
A
B
14
Q
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
A: Alteration of main seat support brackets.
B: Engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used.
C: Servicing landing gear wheel bearings.
A
C
15
Q
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
A: Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
B: Repair of landing gear brace struts.
C: Repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.
A
A
16
Q
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
A: Only when passengers are carried.
B: Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.
C: When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery.
A
B
17
Q
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any
A: person in a position of authority.
B: authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
C: federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
A
C
18
Q
A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on
A: May 31, 2 years later.
B: May 31, 1 year later.
C: May 3, 1 year later.
A
A
19
Q
For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on
A: July 31, 1 year later.
B: July 31, 2 years later.
C: July 15, 2 years later.
A
B
20
Q
The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?
A: Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.
B: Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator.
C: Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.
A
C
21
Q
What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?
A: An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots.
B: An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller.
C: An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.
A
C
22
Q
Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have
A: received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person’s logbook.
B: an endorsement in that person’s logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.
C: passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector.
A
A
23
Q
In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have
A: received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.
B: made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane.
C: passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane.
A
A
24
Q
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding
A: 24 calendar months.
B: 6 calendar months.
C: 12 calendar months.
A
A
25
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
A: 1929.
B: 1859.
C: 1829.
A
26
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding
A: 24 calendar months.
B: 90 days.
C: 12 calendar months.
B
27
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same
A: make and model.
B: category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.
C: category and class, but not type.
B
28
The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane
A: may be touch and go or full stop.
B: must be to a full stop.
C: must be touch and go.
B
29
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from
A: sunset to sunrise.
B: 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
C: the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
B
30
```
To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in
A: any aircraft.
B: the same type of aircraft to be used.
C: the same category and class of aircraft to be used.
```
C
31
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only
A: 30 days after the date of the move.
B: 90 days after the date of the move.
C: 60 days after the date of the move.
A
32
A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of
A: 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
B: 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
C: 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
B
33
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months
A: at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
B: at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.
C: at least three flights in a powered glider.
A
34
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight
A: There is no exception.
B: If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
C: If the passengers pay all the operating expenses.
B
35
The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is
A: 6 nautical miles.
B: 4 nautical miles.
C: 8 nautical miles.
B
36
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
A: 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
B: the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
C: 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
A
37
Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least
A: 1,000 feet and 3 miles.
B: 2,500 feet and 3 miles.
C: 1,000 feet and 1 mile.
A
38
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the
A: pilot in command.
B: aircraft manufacturer.
C: Federal Aviation Administration.
A
39
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may
A: deviate from the FAR's to the extent required to meet that emergency.
B: deviate from the FAR's to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours.
C: not deviate from the FAR's unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator.
A
40
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator
A: Within 10 days.
B: Within 7 days.
C: Upon request.
C
41
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight
A: The pilot in command.
B: The owner or operator.
C: A certificated aircraft mechanic.
A
42
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found
A: In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
B: On the Airworthiness Certificate.
C: In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.
A
43
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft
A: If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
B: If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration.
C: Only in an emergency.
A
44
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
A: 12 hours.
B: 8 hours.
C: 24 hours.
B
45
Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft
A: In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
B: Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment.
C: Under no condition.
A
46
No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with
A: .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
B: .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
C: .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
C
47
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight
A: Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
B: Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
C: Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
B
48
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include
A: a study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use.
B: an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
C: the designation of an alternate airport.
B
49
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
A: check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
B: review traffic control light signal procedures.
C: determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
C
50
Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during
A: flight in turbulent air.
B: takeoffs and landings.
C: all flight conditions.
B
51
Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened
A: Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
B: Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
C: Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
A
52
With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts
A: The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of safety belts.
B: The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
C: The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight.
B
53
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during
A: all flight conditions.
B: flight in turbulent air.
C: taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
C
54
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when
A: Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.
B: Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
C: Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.
B
55
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight
A: in Class D airspace under special VFR.
B: over a densely populated area.
C: except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
C
56
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic
A: An aircraft on final approach to land.
B: An aircraft in distress.
C: A balloon.
B
57
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on
A: The aircraft on the left shall give way.
B: Each aircraft shall give way to the right.
C: The faster aircraft shall give way.
A
58
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed
A: Glider.
B: Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
C: Airship.
A
59
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way
A: The airplane.
B: Each pilot should alter course to the right.
C: The airship.
C
60
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed
A: Airship.
B: Aircraft towing other aircraft.
C: Gyroplane.
B
61
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course
A: Both pilots should give way to the right.
B: The glider pilot should give way to the right.
C: The airplane pilot should give way to the left.
A
62
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
A: that has the other to its right.
B: that is the least maneuverable.
C: at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
C
63
A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way
A: The seaplane.
B: The motorboat.
C: Both should alter course to the right.
A
64
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL
A: 200 knots.
B: 250 knots.
C: 288 knots.
B
65
nless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is
A: 200 knots.
B: 250 knots.
C: 230 knots.
B
66
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
A: 230 knots.
B: 200 knots.
C: 250 knots.
B
67
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
A: 200 knots.
B: 250 knots.
C: 180 knots.
A
68
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere
A: An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
B: An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
C: An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
A
69
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas
A: An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
B: An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft.
C: An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
C
70
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area
A: An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
B: An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
C: An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
C
71
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure
A: 500 feet.
B: 700 feet.
C: 1,000 feet.
A
72
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter
A: Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
B: The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.
C: The elevation of the departure area.
C
73
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting
A: The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
B: The corrected density altitude of the departure airport.
C: The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.
A
74
At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level
A: 24,000 feet MSL.
B: 18,000 feet MSL.
C: 14,500 feet MSL.
B
75
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is
A: an emergency.
B: when the clearance states "at pilot's discretion.''
C: if the clearance contains a restriction.
A
76
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance
A: Immediately.
B: Within 7 days.
C: When requested by ATC.
C
77
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority
A: File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
B: File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible.
C: Take no special action since you are pilot in command.
A
78
A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
A: should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
B: should return for landing.
C: is cleared to land.
C
79
Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi
A: Flashing green.
B: Flashing white.
C: Steady green.
A
80
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be
A: steady red.
B: flashing red.
C: alternating red and green.
A
81
A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
A: taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways.
B: taxi at a faster speed.
C: return to the starting point on the airport.
C
82
An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to
A: exercise extreme caution.
B: hold position.
C: not land; the airport is unsafe.
A
83
While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should
A: exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
B: abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing.
C: discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land.
A
84
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace
A: Class B.
B: Class C.
C: Class D.
C
85
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
A: when the associated control tower is in operation.
B: when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.
C: when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.
A
86
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs
A: at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
B: at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
C: at all tower controlled airports within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
B
87
Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
A: maintain a 3° glide to the runway.
B: maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
C: stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.
B
88
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall
A: maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
B: maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold.
C: remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar.
A
89
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport
A: Make all turns to the left.
B: Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
C: Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
B
90
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace
A: Class E.
B: Class C.
C: Class G.
B
91
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace
A: Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
B: Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
C: Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME.
A
92
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace
A: Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
B: Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
C: Recreational Pilot Certificate.
B
93
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace
A: Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
B: Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
C: Commercial Pilot Certificate.
B
94
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace
A: Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver.
B: Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
C: Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
B
95
An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in
A: Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
B: Class D airspace.
C: Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
A
96
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited
A: Class A.
B: Class B.
C: Class C.
A
97
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane
A: Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B: Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C: Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
B
98
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane
A: Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
B: Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C: Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B
99
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours
A: 3 miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds.
B: 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
C: 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
B
100
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying VFR above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
A: 1 mile.
B: 3 miles.
C: 5 miles.
B
101
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
A: 2,000 feet.
B: 1,000 feet.
C: 1,500 feet.
A
102
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours
A: 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
B: 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
C: 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.
B
103
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL
A: 1 mile.
B: 4 miles.
C: 3 miles.
C
104
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
A: remain clear of clouds.
B: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
C: 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
B
105
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
A: 500 feet.
B: 1,000 feet.
C: 1,500 feet.
B
106
VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of
A: 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
B: 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes.
C: 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.
A
107
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
A: 1 mile.
B: 3 miles.
C: 5 miles.
B
108
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
A: 5 miles.
B: 3 miles.
C: 1 mile.
C
109
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
A: 500 feet.
B: 1,000 feet.
C: 1,500 feet.
A
110
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
A: 5 miles.
B: 3 miles.
C: 1 mile.
A
111
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is
A: 2,000 feet.
B: 1,000 feet.
C: 1 mile.
C
112
During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
A: 1,000 feet.
B: 500 feet.
C: 1,500 feet.
A
113
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the
A: flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
B: ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
C: ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
C
114
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are
A: 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
B: 500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
C: clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility.
A
115
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is
A: at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
B: at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
C: less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
A
116
What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace
A: 1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.
B: 3 miles flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.
C: 1 mile flight visibility.
C
117
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night
A: The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
B: The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
C: The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
C
118
No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the
A: flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds.
B: flight visibility is at least 3 miles.
C: airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
C
119
Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°
A: Even thousandths plus 500 feet.
B: Even thousandths.
C: Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.
C
120
Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.
A: 5,000 feet.
B: 4,500 feet.
C: 5,500 feet.
C
121
Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°
A: 4,500 feet.
B: 4,000 feet.
C: 5,000 feet.
A
122
Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a
A: true course of 0° through 179°.
B: magnetic course of 0° through 179°.
C: magnetic heading of 0° through 179°.
B
123
In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight
A: Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms.
B: Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.
C: Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
C
124
When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable
A: When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
B: When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver.
C: After any inadvertent activation of the ELT.
A
125
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced
A: When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
B: Every 24 months.
C: At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection.
A
126
Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft
A: End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
B: 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
C: Sunset to sunrise.
C
127
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during
A: that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
B: that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.
C: the entire flight time at those altitudes.
A
128
Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of
A: 14,000 feet MSL.
B: 15,000 feet MSL.
C: 12,500 feet MSL.
B
