Aircraft General Knowledge - Electrics, Systems & Engines Flashcards

1
Q

What are the ideal properties of aircraft materials?

A
Low density 
corrosion resistant
High strength 
High stiffness
Good Fatigue performance 
High operating temp
Low cost
Ease of fabrication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is plastic and elastic deformation?

A

Elastic - a material endures temporary stress but returns to original shape

Plastic - permanent deformation of shape post stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is ultimate stress?

A

It is the stress at which a structure fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where are the design requirements for an aircraft set out?

A

CS23 - light aircraft

CS25 - aircraft >5700kg MTOW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is an alloy of aluminium and its properties?

A

Duralumin - 3-4% copper, 0.5-1.5% magnesium, 0.5-1% manganese

Fatigue tolerant
Heat conductive
High stiffness
Low cost 
High strength and stiffness

Low operating temp
Poor corrosion resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name and describe the 2 types of corrosion?

A

Oxidation - dry corrosion - reaction between material and environment without intervention of an electrolyte

Electrolytically - wet corrosion - one surface becomes anodic (+) the other cathodic (-) and occurs as a reaction in metals in an attempt to become more stable. A substance like impure water allows current to flow and a PD is produced adding material to the cathodic and removing from anodic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the difference between these fuselage structures:
Truss
Monocoque
Semi-monocoque

A

Truss - wooden longerons (struts) run the length of the fuselage held apart by compression struts and were cross braced by wire. The fuselage was often covered by fabric. The frame takes the full load.

Monocoque - the skin of the aircraft takes all load bearing and is maintained by circular formers, longitudinal stringers and doublets to reinforce weaknesses cut into the skin e.g doors and windows.

Semi-monocoque - uses monocoque and frame structures to allow the skin to only be part load bearing. Formers and bulkheads to support the load bearing skin with stringers to support tensile and compression loads. The skin still takes the majority of the load but is supported by the frame structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe a wings internal structure?

A

A wing Is made up of:
Spars running the length of the wing usually 2-3. There is likely to be corrugated skin joining the spars. The outer skin would go on top to produce a torsion box (spar/spar, rib/rib, skin/skin and sometimes stringers make a box which compartmentalise the wing)
Ribs running from leading to trailing
Stringers run along the wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is aerodynamic flutter? When is it most likely? And what can be done to reduce it?

A

Flutter is an undamped oscillation caused by an aerodynamic imbalance.

A light wing is most susceptible to high frequency flutter. Fuel in outboard tanks, engines forward and upset ailerons can all act to push the wings down and can reduce the onset of flutter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a fail safe or damage tolerant structure?

A

A fail safe structure is were there are parallel load paths that allow a component to fail but not make the structure fail allowing replacement at next service

A Damage tolerant structure is were the load is spread over a greater area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The monocoque structure depends on what most heavily for strength?

A

It’s shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the classifications for failure conditions quantitatively and qualitatively?

A

Classification Qualitative Quantitative
Minor Probable <10^-3
Major Remote <10^-5
Hazardous Extremely remote <10^-7
Catastrophic Extremely improbable <10^-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define strain on a material?

A

Strain is defined as deformation caused by the actin of stress - it is the quantifiable effect of stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define buckling?

A

Buckling is the bending or deformation caused by compression load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the design load limit and the safety factor placed on top? What is the term given with applied safety factor?

A

The design load limit (DLL) is the designers expected load the aircraft will see in service based on 2.5g for transport aircraft. Aviation regulation then demands a 1.5 or 150% safety factor applied to this. This is termed the design ultimate load (DUL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the S-N(Wohler) curve depict?

A

The graph depicts amplitude of load against amount of cycles to failure. It shows the greater the amplitude of loading the fewer cycles required for a component to fail and vice versa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is used to reduce the susceptibility of duralumin to corrosion?

A

A pure layer of aluminium covering the duralumin core called Alclad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a a stress concentration factor?

A

Stress concentration factors tend be down to a shape or material being imperfect e.g. A square window has weak corners and is a stress concentration factor. Likewise an impure alloy will have a stress concentration factor at the source of the impurity and may cause a component to fail early.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What electrical systems does a: light aircraft, a twin turbine and a jet airliner have? Why is it called a system and not a battery?

A

Light aircraft - 14v DC system
Twin turbine - 28v DC system
Jet airliner - 200v/115v AC system

These are systems because in reality these aircraft do not have the stated rated voltage battery. The systems pertain to the generator or alternator along with the battery and as such in a light aircraft there is a 12v battery which is recharged by a 14v alternator. Likewise in a turbine, it has a 24v battery and a 28v alternator to charge it. In each case the alternator is 112% more than the battery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of electrical circuits is used in aircraft systems and why?

A

Parallel circuits are used because in parallel circuits if a load or electrical component fails then the other loads do not fail with it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the difference between conventional flow and reality?

A

Until recently, most electrical scientists believed that electricity flows from positive to negative (conventional flow). However, in reality it actually flows from negative to positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the key contributors to resistance in an electrical circuit ?

A
  • wire length
  • wire thickness (the smaller in cross section the higher the resistance )
  • material property (insulator vs. Conductor)
  • temperature (the greater the temp the larger the resistance)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the speed of electricity and how long does it take to travel round the circumference of the earth?

A

3500miles/second and approximately 7seconds to travel 21600nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a positive and negative temperature coefficient resistor?

A

Positive - the greater the temp the larger the resistance (thermistor e.g self regulating heaters, over current protection)
Negative - the opposite occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a semi conductor and some of its properties?

A

A semi conductor in its natural state is an insulator. however, have unique properties such as their temp rises their resistance falls - NTC opposite to that of metals. Likewise, they may only allow conduction in one direction and insulation in another. Some of these materials are silicon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are kirchoffs first and second laws?

A

Law one: the total current flow into a point of a circuit equals the current flow out of that point

Law two: if all the voltage drops are added together in a closed circuit, they will equate to the total voltage applied to the closed circuit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How are ammeters and voltmeters connected in an electrical circuit and what do the both detect? How are ammeters connected up in an aircraft?

A

Ammeter is always connected in series and has low resistance
Voltmeter is always connected in parallel and has high resistance

Both work by detecting current, using a coil in a magnetic field.

The ammeter in an aircraft is connected between the busbar and the battery in series. This allows measurements of current drawn from the battery which will be negative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Name 2 common aircraft ammeters?

A

Zero centre and zero left ammeters

Zero centre - shows positive and negative charge (negative indicates battery discharging)
Zero left - only shows positive charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the purpose of the maximum zero fuel weight (MZFW)?

A

To ensure that bending forces at the wing root do not exceed maximum designed loads in flight (g)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the purpose of stringers?

A

Stringers are used to reinforce the aircraft skin to prevent buckling and support against tensile forces. They also give the fuselage its shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the magnetic lines in a magnetic field called?

A

Lines of flux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When is an electrical field produced?

A

When a positive and negative charge attract an electrical field is produced. It is caused by voltage and creates static electricity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What factors influence the strength of the electrical field?

A

The proximity of poles that attract I.e. Positive and negative the closer together the greater the charge

The amount of charge (Coloumb) or an increasing amount of electrons will increase the charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is direct current and its advantages? Name some components that generate DC electricity.

A

Direct current is a form of electricity which flows in one direction. It is simple to setup and can be stored in batteries for future use.

Batteries, DC generators, AC generators (alternators) via a rectifier (converts AC to DC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the primary purpose for batteries in an aircraft?

A

Starting the engines and APU
In emergency situations such as electrical failure (
by law an aircraft must have 30minutes battery power)
To stabilise voltage during the switching of loads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the 3 main components in a battery?

A

Anode (-)
Cathode (+)
Electrolyte (insulating solution that prevents electrons flowing from the anode to the cathode the shortest way I.e. Inside the battery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the difference between a primary and secondary cell? What are the primary voltages in a small aircraft and a turbine aircraft?

A

Primary cell is the most basic form of battery and is non-rechargeable. 1.5v and not used in aircraft.

A secondary cell is a battery, made up of numerous cells in series, that is rechargeable. In a light aircraft the terminal voltage of a lead acid battery is 13.2v with each cell producing 2.2v. The nominal voltage is 12v under load. In a turbine aircraft a 24v battery is used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the 2 main batteries used in aviation? Explain their advantages and disadvantages

A

Lead acid battery
Advantages:
Cheaper
Predictable life expectancy

Disadvantages
Heavier
Corrosive electrolyte inside that can cause damage if battery split
Slow charge rate
Cannot be left for a long period after being discharged as this may caused sulphation rendering the battery useless
Voltage reduces over time

Nickel cadmium (NiCad)
Advantages:
Lighter than lead acid
Maintain charge even if discharged and left for a period of time
Fast charge rate
Have a wider range in operating temperature (operates better in colder conditions)

Disadvantages:
Susceptible to thermal runaway upon quick recharge, that can cause the battery to catch fire as the battery materials have a negative thermal coefficient
Expensive
When a NiCad battery fails it is unpredictable as it maintains voltage all the way until it fails.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How is the life of a lead acid battery measured and what are the ranges?

A

Given a lead acid battery loses charge as the sulphuric acid corrodes the lead plates turning them into lead sulphate the voltage will drop throughout its life.

To measure this a hygrometer is used to measure the specific gravity of the sulphuric acid. Therefore:
a brand new lead acid battery fully charged should have - 1.25 to 1.30
A discharged battery at low charge - 1.20 to 1.24
A fully discharged battery - 1.17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the main materials, number of cells and voltages for NiCad and lead acid batteries?

A
Lead acid:
Anode - lead 
Cathode- lead peroxide
Electrolyte -sulphuric acid 
Cells - 6
Nominal voltage - 12v(13v)
NiCad:
Anode - iron
Cathode - nickel cadmium
Electrolyte - potassium hydroxide gel
Cells - 10
Nominal voltage - 12v(13v)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a metal alloy and a composite?

A

Alloy - 2 or more metals with desirable properties to produce a new material

Composite - 2 or more materials brought together to give new properties you didn’t have before.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Give 2 construction designs for composite materials and their advantages?

A

Composite - matrix and fibre

Constructs: honeycomb and sandwich structure e.g. Fibreglass, carbon fibre, Kevlar

Advantages: lightweight, good rigidity and strength
Disadvantages: susceptible to core damage under concentrated loads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe 2 forms of maintenance

A

Hard time maintenance - paced urge under which an item must be removed from service before its scheduled maintenace period for inspection or repair. Labour intensive due to detailed inspections and likely un-utilised aircraft time

On-condition maintenance - procedure whereby upon inspection or functional check of items performance may result in item removed from service before potential fail. This include visual inspection, tests or other means without disassembly or overhaul.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the maximum pressure difference between outside air pressure and inside the pressurised fuselage ?

A

9psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a cantilever wing?

A

A cantilever is a structure that is self supporting and supported at one end only. Therefore, a cantilever wing has no external bracing or support.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How are wing spars produced?

A

They are either fabricated taking many components to make one I-beam or extruded using a malleable metal and pushed through a hole or model to shape it.

If extruded it is called a girder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What kind of doors and windows do we have on a modern transport jet?

A

The plug type - the open inside and when pressurised are pushed into their seals causing a tighter seal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the consequences of a nosewheel landing and a tail strike?

A

Nose wheel:
Damage to the nose wheel assembly specifically the drag struct which holds the nose undercarriage vertical
Damage to the forward pressure bulkhead

Tail strike:
Damage to the rear pressure bulkhead
Damage to the empennage I.e. Tailplane and rear control surfaces etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the structure of the cockpit windscreen ? As such what loads is it subjected to?

A

Three layers of glass with a vinyl (polycarbonate) inter layer. Within the layer is also a heating element

Impact loads specifically air flow/resistance, bird/insect strikes and precipitation. It must also pressurisation/ compression loads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure? Give the equations for pressure

A

It’s the pressure of a fluid as an effect of its height. The higher the fluid the higher the pressure. It acts at 90 degrees to a surface.

Pressure =force/area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are and the differences between a passive and a active hydraulic system ?

A

A hydraulic system is one which allows a fluid to be compressed that applies a small input and a large output therefore a mechanical advantage.

A passive system is one without a pump and pressure is applied when a force is applied. These systems are reminiscent of braking systems and tend to be confined to small aircraft and cars. An active system is one that utilises a pump and is continually doing work whilst a system is active. These systems are categorised as high and low pressure systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the properties of hydraulic fluid and where is it stored?

Name the fluids

A
Properties:
Virtually incompressible
Chemically inert
Stable or has good storage properties 
Non-corrosive
Lubricant 
Reasonably priced and readily available
Non-sludging/foaming

Hydraulic fluid is stored in a reservoir

Mineral oil (oil based so flammable) - DTD580/OM15 (to be replaced by def stan a1-48)
Skydrol (synthetic oil which is phosphate ester based)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Describe a some hydraulic seals and their purpose. What are the combined with to prevent extrusion?

A

O-ring - cheap and bi directional seal but susceptible to extrusion
Square- cheap and bi directional seal but susceptible to extrusion
Chevron - can only be used in the direction of the ‘v’
U-ring

Seals are paired with backing rings to prevent extrusion(rolling out) of the seal. These tend to be only for dynamic seals I.e. Those used to seal moving frictions surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the ramifications of air being present in the hydraulic fluid? What are the actions you would take to rectify this?

A

When air is present in the hydraulic fluid systems for example in a braking system, when the force is applied it will feel spongy.

This is because a gas is very compressible and therefore, makes the fluid more compressible. As such, the hydraulic system must be bled normally whilst simultaneously adding the correct hydraulic fluid in the reservoir until you get air free oil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the difference between an open centred and closed hydraulic system?

A

An open centred system can only provide hydraulic pressure to one system at a time. The closed system is therefore found in more modern jet transport aircraft which often have many pumps allowing multiple systems to be operated at the same time. These systems tend to operate to 3000psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the effect of placing batteries in series vs. Parallel?

A

Series:
Voltage is the sum of all batteries
Same capacity (Amp/hr)

Parallel:
The nominal voltage of 1 battery and current of 1.
The capacity is the sum of all batteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

By law what are the requirements in electrical failure?

A

There must be emergency power from batteries to last 30minutes and 10minutes for emergency lighting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a dipole and uni pole system? How are these used in an aircraft and what are the advantages and disadvantages of the one used in an aircraft?

A

A dipole system is one that is a closed circuit using conductive wiring often used in an aircraft that is made not of a conductive skin e.g. Wood.

In a modern jet airliner, a uni pole system is used whereby electrical components are wiring to the positive terminal but the circuit is completed by conductivity being carried out via the outer skin of the aircraft. The primary advantage of this is saving on weight by cutting out half the wiring required.

The primary disadvantage is that damaged wiring connecting the skin to the negative terminal can cause a short to the earth disabling systems and become a fire risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a busbar and how is it wired in an aircraft ?

A

A busbar is a heavy copper bar that is used to extend electrical power and connect multiple loads. There maybe many busbars in an aircraft and can be connected together much like an extension cable in a home.

Loads are connected to a busbar in parallel which means if a load fails, other components still receive electrical power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Describe what happens to pressure, temperature and velocity of an incompressible fluid flowing through a divergent and convergent duct?

A

Pressure x velocity/ temp = constant

When flowing through a convergent duct: velocity increases, temp and pressure decrease

When flowing through a divergent duct: velocity decreases, pressure and temp increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the definition of a piston engine aircraft?

A

An engine where the working fluid expanded in a cylinder against a reciprocating piston.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the four strokes of a constant volume engine?

A

Induction - mixture added to the combustion chamber
Compression - the mixture is compressed and ignited
Power - pressure energy pushes the piston downwards to produce mechanical energy
Exhaust - exhaust gases are expelled via an inlet valve as the piston comes back up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is meant by TDC and BDC? What is swept volume?

A

Top dead centre - the point at which the piston in a cylinder is at maximum linear travel

Bottom dead centre - the point at which the piston in a cylinder is at minus linear travel

The volume between the two is defined as swept volume.

Swept volume is the piston cross sectional area multiplied by the stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How many degrees does the crankshaft rotate through 1 4 stroke cycle? How many revolutions of the crankshaft does it take to travel through 1 4 stroke cycle?

A

720 degrees and 2 crankshaft rotations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the differences between a petrol and Diesel engine?

A

A petrol engine requires a spark plug to initiate combustion whereas a Diesel engine uses high compression to initiate compression therefore, no spark plugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the differences between the theoretical and practical 4 stroke engine cycle?

A

The theoretical otto cycle has all events occurring at TDC and BDC I.e. Valves opening/closing and all strokes. However, in reality this is very inefficient due to inefficient crank angle and doesn’t optimise the finite volume to optimise peak pressure I.e. Volumetric efficiency

The practical cycle optimises these inefficiencies by using valve lag and lead to optimise volume of air in the cylinder and the expelling of exhaust gases. It also advances/ retards ignition to maximise peak pressure and exploit ineffective crank angle between compression and power strokes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are adiabatic and isochoric processes in terms of a piston engine?

A

Isochoric processes are those that have a pressure change with no change in volume. E.g combustion post spark

adiabatic process is one that has a change in pressure with no heat energy added or removed. E.g. Mechanical work post combustion expanding volume of cylinder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the difference between a single acting and double acting actuator? What are the variances of model?

A

A single acting actuator has one jack ram acting on a piston with an empty volume the other side. There maybe a spring on the jack ram side to operate the actuator in the opposite direction

The double acting actuator works in both ways often used with a 4 port selector valve to allow hydraulic fluid to be pumped in the higher volume side

There are balanced and unbalanced double acting actuators - balanced ones have 2 jack Rams attached to a single equal area piston. These give the same force either side due to the same volumes. An unbalanced variant is where there is a larger volume on the other side of the piston to where the jack ram is.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is an active vs. Passive hydraulic system? What are the standard pressures for a low and high active hydraulic system?

A

An active hydraulic system is one that is powered and doesn’t rely on an input to work. They have pumps. A passive system relies on a force being applied to work and therefore have no pump.

Standard pressures for a low pressure hydraulic system are up to 2000psi but can be as low as 1000psi. For a high pressure hydraulic system standard pressures are 3000psi but can be as high as 5000psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is an engine drive pump and a rotary actuator? When are both used?

A

An EDP is a gear type pump found in most light aircraft and can be used as backup pumps in larger aircraft. The EDP is also known as the constant volume pump and by this it means that a constant amount of hydraulic fluid fed to the teeth is consistent not same volume in/out

A rotary actuator is another form of actuator that can provide mechanical advantage to services requiring a rotary motion. These are made up of a number of small Pistons attached to an angled swash plate that is immovable and as such the force causes a rotary motion. These actuators are often used for flaps and undercarriage. They also can be used to drive backup electrical generators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Name and describe each valve.

A

Rotary Selector valves - 2 ror 4 port selector valves that have multiple fluid paths.

Spool/pilot valves - sliding valve type that has land and grooves that blocks and allows oils flow respectively

Non-return valves - made up of a ball and Spring and have many variants e.g. PRV, TRV and check valves that are construction ally the same but serve different purposes. They all do not allow fluid to flow in its opposite direction unless they are pressure or temperature calibrate (PRV/TRV)

Shuttle valves - often used as redundancy if one hydraulic flow to a system fails shuttle valves engage upon one failing due to the pressure difference ensuring hydraulic fluid is supplied to the system.
Pressure maintain/priority valves - in the event of hydraulic failure these valves prioritise primary flight controls and wheel brakes ensuring that there is sufficient pressure to maintain priority services.

Restrictor valves - restrict flow in either one or both directions with the aim of reducing the speed of an operation e.g. Retraction flaps or undercarriage

Flow control valves more sophisticate form of restrictors that tend to be positioned upstream of hydraulic motors

Throttling valves - another more sophisticated restrictors

Sequencing valves - ensure that one hydraulic operation is completed before another commences. They can be hydraulic or mechanical and are fitted to the pressure supply circuit.

Hydraulic fuses - valves that are flow rate sensitive and are used to isolate a leak.

Modulators are valves with a piston inside that contains a very small opening through the middle that is often used in anti skid systems to provide fine control of brake pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What does PLANE/PLANK calculate?

A

Indicated horse power or the theoretical power of a piston engine:

Pressure
Length of stroke
Area of piston
Number of cylinders 
RPM/2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is volumetric, mechanical and thermal efficiency?

A

Mechanical is the indicated horsepower the frictional horse power

Volumetric is the ratio of mass of air induced into the cylinder by comparison to the mass of air in ISA conditions

Thermal efficiency is the ratio of work done by the propeller crankshaft by comparison to the heat lost in combusting the fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the volumes in a cylinder? How are these used to calculate compression ratio?

A

The total volume = swept + clearance

Swept = TDC-BDC volume

Clearance =TDC - remainder

Compression ratio = total volume: clearance or (swept -clearance)/clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is detonation? How is detonation avoided in high compression ratio engines like diesels?

A

Detonation is when the mixture reaches it auto ignition point changing the steady burn 60-80ft per second to in excess of 1000ft per second closer to an explosion. This can produce severe engine and piston damage

The reason petrol engines cannot reach a higher compression ration is because there is minimal way of stopping the fuel detonating at higher compression ratios. Diesels avoid this because fuel as it is injected in auto ignites under the extreme pressure and temperature of the compressed air in the cylinder. Detonation is impossible as detonation requires a large mixture to all be at the auto ignition point, instead the fuel is injected at its auto ignition point causing an immediate burn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the following components made of:

  • crankcase
  • piston
  • cylinder head and barrel
  • crankshaft
A

Crankcase - magnesium
Piston - aluminium alloy
Crankshaft - steel alloy
Cylinder head and barrel - aluminium alloy and steel respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What valves are used by the inlet and exhaust valve? What are the differences between the 2?

A

Poppet valves

Inlet valve tends to be larger to allow as much air into the system (LP Inside vs out), the exhaust valve tends to get hotter than the inlet as it vents hot exhaust gases therefore tends to be made hollow and filled with sodium to absorb some of the heat up the valve stem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the importance of tappet clearance?

A

Tappet clearance is important in the appropriate operation of the inlet and exhaust valves to ensure they are not late or early in their opening or closing. Likewise it allows for thermal expansion of metals at high temps

Most modern engines have hydraulic tappets that allow hydraulic fluid to set the best tappet clearance automatically rather than relying upon manual calibration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is cracking and re seating pressure?

A

Pressure relief valves and their variants that are pressure sensitive will be cracked or their ball unseated at a specific pressure, when the system pressure drops and the ball is re seated by the string this is the feasting pressure

A pressure refile if valve that can support the full flow rate of the pump are called full flow pressure relief valves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is cavitation?

A

It is the process whereby very low pressure is produced in the hydraulic system causing high temps and ‘hammering’ of services and their uneven movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

When must a automatic cut off (ACOV) valve be used and with what other systems and why?

A

An ACOV valve is used with a constant volume/displacement pump as it cannot regulate its out put and therefore system pressure. Therefore, there must be protection mechanisms in place to protect against over or under pressurisation to prevent cavitation

An accumulator is also used alongside an ACOV and a full flow relief valve that exceeds the ACOV pressure setting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

An accumulator pre charged with nitrogen to 1500psi with the hydraulic system depressurised. With the system operating the accumulator pressure gauge will read?

A

System pressure.

This is once hydraulic fluid exceeds the charge pressure of 1500psi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

At start up, a variable volume EDP is set at?

A

Maximum stroke by spring pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

When is a RAT (ram air turbine) used?

A

As an emergency means of keeping hydraulic pressure to the primary flight controls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Low hydraulic pressure sensors would be fitted where?

A

The outlet to the EDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What hydraulic systems are used in light and large aircraft? Describe their salient component parts

A

In a light aircraft generally using one hydraulic service namely undercarriage deployment and retraction will use a hydraulic power pack. It is made up of a self contained: reservoir, linear actuators (3 - rear and nose gear), shuttle, non-return valves and pressure relief valves (and TRVs) as well as a single electrical motor. In case of electrical failure free fall control is provided to deploy the undercarriage.

In larger aircraft, extensive closed centred systems are used to run multiple hydraulic systems often comprising of 4 or more services. These are often duplicated and triplicated using PTUs, have numerous hydraulic EDPs per system as well as back up electrical pumps. Emergency pumps such as RATs are also present. Numerous pressure maintaining, NRVs and other valves make up the system. The systems are finely interlinked and therefore each hydraulic system is often colour coded to identify it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which cooling mechanism is more efficient and why? Liquid cooled or air cooled

A

Liquid cooled is more efficient as you have greatest temperature control. This is due to increasing/ decreasing flow of liquid to the amount of heat generated in a specific state of flight. An air cooled engine has no such control and Cylinder Head temperature varies with 4 factors (of which 3 are in the pilots control):

  • power produced by engine
  • mass flow flowing over the engine
  • mixture ratio
  • cooling air temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When should the engine oil be checked in a wet and dry sump system and why?

A

Dry - immediately after shutdown
Wet - after at least 20 minutes post shutdown

In a wet sump, the oil cools and lubricates using splash lubrication. As the dipstick takes a measure from the sump, gravity needs time to work the oil back into the sump.

In a dry sump, because oil is stored in a tank, the most oil is in that tank during operation hence the ‘dry sump’ therefore, checking immediately after shutdown will be most accurate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the primary properties of the engine oil ?

A

Primary properties:
Lubrication
Cooling

Secondary properties:
Corrosion protection
Cleaning
And hydraulic operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

In a dry sump system are the 2 pumps the same and if not why not?

A

The dry sump system contains the pressure pump and the scavenge pump. To maintain a dry sump, the scavenge pump must output more volume than the pressure pump otherwise oil will begin to pool in the sump.

Precisely, the scavenge pump is approximately double the capacity of the pressure pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What does the ignition switching system do? How is each magneto selected?

A

Each magneto is controlled by its own ignition switch. The switch Isolates the magnetos ignition circuit by connecting the primary circuit to earth.

The magneto is turned off by earthing the primary circuit and therefore, turned on by removing the earth connection. This is fail safe in the air as a broken wire does not affect the ignition but means that a broken wire on the ground leaves the mags live.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the problems of a small and excessively large gap within a spark plug?

A

A spark plug with too large a gap may not spark at all whereas, a small gap may produce a weaker spark and therefore, effect engine output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the three mechanisms to provide a larger spark upon engine start?

A

Impulse magneto - a spring is wound, which upon release dramatically increases the spin of the magnet inducing a larger voltage therefore, larger spark.
High tension booster coil - commonly used on larger engines, the HT booster coil induces a large current in the secondary winding while the battery powers the primary winding. A trembler interrupter is used to interrupt the primary winding circuit to produce high voltage pulses in the secondary winding
Low tension booster coil- requires the battery to work and feeds boosted battery power to the primary winding to improve slow speed power generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is a magneto and How does a magneto generate electrical power?

A

A magneto is an AC generator, transformer and distribution system providing high voltage current to spark plugs.

It Rotates a permanent magnet within a ferro-magnetic core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is spark plug fouling?

A

Fouling of the spark plug occurs when deposits like carbon, lead and oil clog the gap between the spark plug electrodes inhibiting or delaying a spark.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What valve or selector operates an actuator and returns fluid back to the reservoir simultaneously?

  • pressure reducing valve
  • a selector
  • shuttle valve
  • TRV
A

A selector because it provides fluid to an actuator and simultaneously allows fluid to return from the actuator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The system pressure of a hydraulic system fitted with a variable volume ‘swash plate’ pump is controlled by?

A

A control piston because it is a constant pressure/variable volume pump, it is self regulating not requiring an ACOV. Therefore, the output of constant pressure pumps is regulated by an internal control piston which alters the stroke of the piston.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is a depressurising solenoid?

A

The depressurising solenoid is energised by the selection from the cockpit to offload the engine driven hydraulic pump on engine start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

A hydraulic fluid has what of these properties:

  • high viscosity at all temps
  • high flame point, low flash point
  • low viscosity at all temps
  • low flame point and flash point
A

Flash point - the point at which there is enough vapour to support a momentary flame
Flame point - the lowest temperature at which there is enough vapour to support a continuous flame

Therefore, a hydraulic fluid must have high of each.

It cannot have a high viscosity at all temp ranges due to excessive pressures. Therefore, it muse have low viscosity at all temps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

When does a one way check valve has its flow stopped.

A

When input pressure is less that output pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is a floating separator used for?

A

To separate gas and liquid inside of an accumulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the affect of over or under charged gas within an accumulator?

A

The effects for both tend to be the ACOV operating more often and rapid pressure fluctuations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the main pumps used in a light aircraft vs modern transport aircraft?

A

Light aircraft:
- spur gear constant volume pumps

Larger aircraft
- constant pressure piston pumps (with constant volume pumps sometimes used as backup)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is a hydraulic fuse and where is it used in a system?

A

A hydraulic fuse is a one time operated device which remains open until system is reset. It is a flow rate sensitive device which tend to be used to stop leaks and are often used in exposed pipes and brake systems.

They are always placed upstream side of the hydraulic actuator I.e. On the supply side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the primary purpose for the valve spring and what is the tappet clearance measured between?

A

The primary purpose of the springs is to close the valve which are opened by the rocker arm. The tappet clearance is measured between the valve stem and rocker pad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What will the MAP gauge on a normally aspirated engine read at full throttle?

A

Slightly less that atmospheric pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Where does valve overlap occur?

A

The inlet valve closes before top dead centre on the exhaust phase and exhaust closes after top dead centre on the induction phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the purpose of a condenser within the ignition system?

A

A condenser is a capacitor. It stores a brief amount of electrical potential to assist in the breakdown of primary current and prevent arcing at the contact breaker points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Where does the primary circuit of the magneto receive its initial current from?

A

The magneto primary circuit normally derives its voltage by induction, it needs no battery to start.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

As RPM increases what happens to the spark of the ignition system?

A

It is advanced so that peak ignition comes close to the start of the power stroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Where is the oil cooler located on a wet sump system?

A

After the pressure pump (and micronic filter) but before the engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

How is engine displacement calculated?

A

Displacement = piston area x no cylinders x stroke length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is the difference between a reversible and non-reversible control system?

A

A reversible control system is a power assisted system in which the pilot is connected directly to the controls but control movements can be hydraulically assisted in larger aircraft

A non-reversible control system is one in which the pilot is not connected to the control system, but instead is connected to a power control unit and an artificial feel unit either by cable runs or electronically in fly by wire systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is a fly by wire control system?

A

Fly by wire removes any connection from a control column to the PCU. It is placed in a powered control system in which pilot control column actions are sent in analogue form to actuator control electronics.

The ACE computes the control deflection sends it in digital format to another ACE which then converts it to an analogue signal to be issued to the PCU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is a gear change system and what control surface is it most often fitted to?

A

A gear change system is in an effort to match large control deflections at low speed whilst safe guarding against over stress at high speed.

This type of system is most used on the rudder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

On an aircraft fitted with powered leading edge and trailing edge high lift devices what is retracted first?

A

Leading edge devices are retracted after trailing edge devices.

Therefore, trailing edge devices first.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the primary causes for detonation? If detonation is occurring how can you know and what is a remedy?

A

Over weak mixture
Low RPM and high power settings
Applying heat when engine config. Is in high power situations
Fuel usage with low anti-knock qualities

Detonation causes auto ignition of the fuel vapour with air and as such sounds like a knocking in the engine. The best solution is to increase RPM and ensure fuel mixture is rich in an attempt to bring the temperature down. If climbing, a shallower angle of attack to allow more airflow over the cylinders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What does the 100LL or 100/130 stand for in aviation gasoline naming convention?

A

LL - low lead (tetra ethyl lead added to aviation gasoline to lessen chance of detonation)
100 is the octane of the fuel at lean mixture

100/130 - the 130 refers to the octane of the fuel when fully rich

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the relationship with CHT and EGT as mixture weakens?

A

Due to the slower burn cylinder head temp will increase as there is more time for the burn to transfer its heat energy to the engine body. Conversely as mixture weakens the burn temperature decreases therefore, exhaust gas temp decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the stochiometric combustion mixture? Why is this not used in normal operations?

A

This is also known as the chemically correct mixture or ideal ratio. Is optimal combustion ration is 15 parts air 1 part fuel. It represents maximum power and heat released from combustion.

This is not used in Normal operations because it is a relatively weak mixture by carburettor and piston engine requirements. This mixture runs very close to high temps and as such detonation risk. Hence, why in piston engines it tends to be 12 parts to 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the purpose of the pressure balance duct in a carburettor?

A

To ensure that mixture ratio is appropriate across all flight conditions and range of air speeds.

It pipes the throat to the carb. Chamber. This ensures the pressure in the throat equals the carb chamber therefore, ensuring that mixture doesn’t get progressively weaker. At high forward speed, pressures in the intake can rise above atmospheric meaning a lower pressure in the fuel chamber and as such lack of fuel flow.

122
Q

What is the purpose of the diffuser?

A

Ensures that at all engine speeds the mixture ratio is correct.

An increase in mass flow of air entering the Venturi, will have a four fold drop in pressure. Therefore, this represents a LP in the intake vs the float chamber. This means the greater the mass flow the richer the mixture.

The diffuser is a perforated tube fed by air from the pressure balanced duct, which lets a specific amount of fuel into the mixture. It also AIDS the atomisation of the fuel as the air is added to the fuel at the perforations.

123
Q

Carburettor icing is caused in what conditions and why does it occur?

A

Up to plus 30 degrees centigrade and 30% humidity. In the induction system the large draw back of the carburettor system and the Venturi throat is that with a large pressure drop also induces a large temp drop as much as 25-30 degrees centigrade.

Therefore, at low RPMs (throttle closed) is when icing is most prevalent

124
Q

What are the components in an aviation carburettor?

A
MAIN METERING - diffuser/main jet
IDLE - idle jet
STOPPING - idle cut off 
HALTITUDE - mixture control
ACCELERATION - throttle pump
POWER ENRICHMENT - economiser
125
Q

What is the difference between indirect and direct fuel injection systems?

A

The indirect injection system is also the continuous flow injection system. It delivers pressurised fuel of a set ratio to a manifold valve that distributes it to the injectors in the cylinders.

A direct or common rail system delivers a precisely metered quantity of fuel injected into the cylinders. This is used in Diesel engines

126
Q

What are the primary advantages of a fuel injected system over a carburettor?

A
  • large reduction in icing risk: no need for a Venturi or other restrictions within induction system.
  • quicker throttle response: no lag in waiting for a differential in pressure to deliver correct fuel mixture from carb/intake to engine
  • even and reliable fuel delivery: an even amount of fuel is delivered to each cylinder via dedicated injectors. With a carb. Metering done using a differential in pressure wasn’t precise per cylinder. Allows the aircraft to fly in more varied flying conditions e.g. Inverted flight.
127
Q

How do you set power cruise and economy cruise using the EGT?

A

Power - lean mixture back until peak EGT then add a little more mixture till it drops slightly (approx 12:1)

Economy - lean mixture back till peak EGT and then lean further by a set amount till EGT drops slightly (due to colder burn, approx 17:1 but watch CHT)

128
Q

What are the primary functions of the manifold valve in a fuel injection system?

A
  1. Shut off fuel flow with mixture at ICO

2. Divide metered fuel between all cylinders

129
Q

How is turbocharger control achieved?

A

It is done by varying the speed of the turbocharger impeller. This is done by varying the exhaust gas flow to the turbine via the use of a wastegate.

130
Q

In an automatic wastegate control mechanism for a turbocharger, what controllers operate at which stages of throttle movement?

A

The pressure differential controller measures the difference in deck pressure either side of the butterfly throttle valve and tries to maintain a constant pressure difference. This works at all throttle settings other than fully open (full throttle)

The density controller is sensitive to deck pressure and temperature. Its job is to measure top temp and pressure in the pipe and ensure these thresholds are not breached. As such, this is only pertinent at throttle open (full throttle)

131
Q

What are the primary differences between an internal and external supercharger?

A

The internal supercharger is an engine mounted turbine attached to the crankshaft and therefore is downstream of the carb. Compressing the total mixture

The turbo charger or external supercharger is not affixed to the engine, uses exhaust gases to spin the turbine and as such is not dependent on the crankshaft and due to its high operating RPMs and temps it ONLY compresses air hence its placement upstream of the carb.

132
Q

What is a full throttle height and what is the difference between a critical altitude?

A

An FTH is dependent upon power setting but it is the height/altitude achieved when that power setting is at full throttle

A critical altitude is a FTH equivalent but for turbo/supercharged engines. It is the altitude or height at which the turbo/supercharger can provide sustained pressure from the compressor before power begins to fall like a naturally aspirated engine.

133
Q

What is a rated power, rated altitude and rated boost? Likewise what is their relationship?

A

A rated power is a manufacturers designated power output in which the rated altitude can be achieved giving continuous power. After rated altitude power begins to decrease at approximately 3.5% per 1000ft in a naturally aspirated engine.

The rated boost is the pressure in the manifold required to achieve rated power and therefore rated altitude.

134
Q

What will a boost gauge or MAP gauge read on the ground with engine switched off?

A

Atmospheric pressure

135
Q

What is the difference between A boost gauge and MAP gauge?

A

The gauge is the same other than its face and units. An MAP reads manifold pressure in inches of mercury. A boost gauge is a zero centred gauge which reads PSI

136
Q

Were does the Diesel engines operate in terms of power output? At the chemically correct mixture?

A

The Diesel engine operates naturally lean because of the less risk of detonation and as the fuel is operated right at the last minute. This is also why there’s no mixture control lever.

137
Q

What is specific fuel consumption?

A

The weight of fuel used to produced 1 bhp per hour

138
Q

What does the power jet needle do in a carb?

A

The power jet uses a throttle operated cam to open an extra enrichment jet at high power settings only.

139
Q

The operating principle of the float type carb. Is based on?

A

Carbs work in the pressure difference produced by the Venturi principle to the pressure in the float chamber which is the same as the air inlet pressure.

140
Q

In a piston engine indirect fuel injection system, fuel enters were?

A

Fuel is continuously delivered into the inlet manifold

141
Q

If the turbocharger waste gate seized in one position during a climb, what would happen to the manifold pressure?

A

The manifold pressure would drop. This is because in a normal climb, air density will decrease and the wastegate would in normal operation progressively close to direct more exhaust gases to maintain turbine RPM. Therefore, if seized, MAP would drop and turbine RPM would drop.

142
Q

When a supercharged engine is climbed at rated boost but with a lower rpm than normal for that boost what would occur?

A

Full throttle height will decrease.

The boost is controlled by engine RPM and the throttle butterfly. Therefore, if rated boost is maintained at lower RPM, the throttle butterfly must be more open than normal meaning FTH is achieved earlier.

143
Q

When increasing RPM on a constant speed VPP what is the sequence of events and why?

A

High MAP at low RPM can cause detonation. When increasing power it is: mixture, RPM and then throttle.

Rev up, throttle down

144
Q

What is the uses of the charged gas and mineral oil in the oleo pneumatic shock absorber strut in landing gear?

A

The oleo pneumatic struts are piston rods inside of a cylinder. Charged gas, nitrogen, is placed between a free floating separator with mineral oil (DTD 585) the other side.

The gas is used to support the aircraft on the ground and absorb landing shocks - it is akin to a spring. The oil is used to control the speed of compression and expansion. It’s use is the dampening of landing load and recoil action.

145
Q

Large transport aircraft use what type of landing gear system?

A

Oleo pneumatic shock absorbing strut tends to be used on larger retractable undercarriage aircraft.

These systems can only absorb vertical loads

146
Q

What is the most likely emergency gear retraction mechanism in a large transport aircraft?

A

Gravity free-fall

147
Q

What type of locks are used to secure the retraction and the deployment of the gear?

A

Uplocks are used to secure the retraction. These are also known as hook locks and require hydraulic force to dislodge them.

Down locks are used to secure the gear upon deployment and these are usually over centre or geometric locks

148
Q

What is the sinusoidal motion of the nose wheel referred to as?

A

Shimmy is the sinusoidal motion of the nose wheel whilst taxiing in the ground

149
Q

What is the relationship of VLE and VLO?

A

VLE - maximum speed for landing gear extended
VLO - maximum speed in which to operate the landing gear

VLE is usually greater than VLO

150
Q

In what conditions are the torque links experiencing most stress?

A

During heavy loads and tight turns

151
Q

What is the purpose of the torque links and name other bracing mechanisms for the gear?

A

Torque links ensure that there is no rotation of the inner piston (which is what causes shimmy) and that it is inline with the aircraft centre.

There are other bracing mechanisms that ensure side loads and the gear remains in positions:

  • side stays: side load bracing
  • fore stays: ensure the gear doesn’t collapse rear wards (rearward retracting gear)
  • drag stays: ensure that the gear doesn’t collapse forwards (foreword retracting gear)
152
Q

Large aircraft fitted with body gear steering can reduce their turning radius in the ground by?

A

Body gear is automatically activated beyond 20 degrees of nosewheel deflection and will steer in the opposite direction to the nose to reduce turning radius

153
Q

If thrust reverse is selected with auto brakes in operation what happens to the auto braking?

A

Auto braking delivers constant g deceleration based on pilot selection. Therefore, if a further lift dumping device is activated to slow the aircraft down the auto braking force will be reduced to maintain selected deceleration rate.

154
Q

Anti skid protection is cancelled in what conditions?

A

When an emergency brake selection is made the anti skid system is made inoperative

155
Q

What effect does Failure of the anti skid system have on landing distance?

A

Increases it by up to 50%

156
Q

What are the protections anti skid provides?

A

Locked wheel protection - will dump all pressure to the wheels if they have stopped spinning
Touch down and bounce protection- if brakes applied by the pilot before touchdown, touch down protection will ensure these aren’t applied. Bounce protection ensures that if a bounce occurs that all pressure from the affected wheels is released.
Normal skid control

157
Q

What is a fusible plug and what occurs when you find one that has been activated?

A

A fusible plug is fitted to wheel rims that house a small piston under gas pressure. These are sensitive to temperature and when temp exceeded in tubeless tyres then it creates a hole in the tyre to vent excess pressure - stoping them from exploding

When one fusible plug is discovered to be spent the rest are replaced as well.

158
Q

What is the construction of aircraft tyres and what determines their strength rating of a tyre?

A

The tyre carcass is made of a lattice or layered ply of nylon or rayon material that is either cross layered (cross ply) or layered on top of each other in the direction of travel (radial ply). The more layers the stronger the tyre. A radial tyre which is tubeless is used in most large aviation safety transport aircraft. Whereas, radial tubed tyres tend to me used for lighter aircraft

159
Q

The hydro planning speed increases with what?

A

Greater tyre pressure

160
Q

When are marstrand tyres fitted?

A

To castoring nose wheels to counteract shimmy.

161
Q

How will the shortest possible landing distance be achieved?

A

Crossing threshold at correct speed and height, applying maximum braking from the anti skid system up in touchdown and by applying the reverse thrust and extending the speed brakes or lift dumping devices asap.

162
Q

What are hydraulic sequencing valves used for during landing gear extension?

A

Ensure the doors close after the main strut is extended.

These valves ensure that the undercarriage doors (D doors) open and close at the appropriate times.

163
Q

When are how is wear inspected on the brakes?

A

When the brakes are applied and between the brake housing to the disc.

This maybe coupled with an automatic brake wear adjuster which in which the pun is visually inspected to see how much is present.

164
Q

Rotation of a main landing gear bogie around the shock strut axis is prevent by what?

A

The torque links.

Torque links prevent piston rotation but also keep the wheel in line with aircraft centre and prevent the wheel castoring

165
Q

Why is gear extension movement normal damped?

A

Counteract the force of gravity in which it would normally bring down the gear too fast.

166
Q

How is a fly by wire system correctly described?

A

Mechanical inputs are converted to electrical signals which are integrated with electrical inputs from the flight control computers and then turned into mechanical outputs to deflect the control surfaces.

Pilot input ->mechanical converted to electrical digital in an ACE ->other flight computers take input from other systems to compute a digital demand and electrical signal sent to second ACE -> analogue conversion sent to PCU which converts it to hydraulic force -> control surface movement

167
Q

What prevents inadvertent retraction of the gear on the ground?

A

Ground system logic

A safety lick physically prevents the gear selector from being moved when the air/ground logic system senses ground. Additionally many systems use geometric locks and bracing struts.

168
Q

What are the strongest shapes starting from weakest to strongest of fuselage structures?

A

Weakest: square
Middle: double bubble
Strongest: circular

169
Q

What are the 2 deformation modes that cause wing flutter?

A

Torsion and bending

Bending, torsion and shear are loads imposed on the wings during flight. But torsion and bending can combine to cause flutter

170
Q

What are the three elements of the fuselage structure of a large transport aircraft?

A

Skin, frames and stringers

171
Q

Significant torsion effects in a wing during flight are caused when?

A

When The aileron deflects

The effects can be reduced by up rigging the ailerons in order to produce less lift in their at rest position

172
Q

When a wing bends downwards, aileron flutter might occur if the aileron deflects in which direction and why?

A

Upwards because the location of the aileron CoG lies behind the hinge line

If the wing bends up and the control bends and twists down, then this can eco cyclic and flutter can occur.

173
Q

What is the purpose of a shuttle valve?

A

A shuttle valve is used to allow one service to be operated by 2 independent supplied at different times for instance a normal and an emergency supply

174
Q

What is the purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system?

A

To damp the fluid pressure variations

Accumulators are fitted to:
Store fluid under pressure
provide a limited supply in an emergency
Dampen out pressure fluctuations
Allow for thermal expansion
Cater for small internal leaks
175
Q

A constant delivery system pump pressure is not all controlled by?

A

ACOV

Fixed volume, constant displacement pump controlled by an automatic cut out valve.

176
Q

Can pneumatics be used in primary or secondary flight control systems? If yes, which?

A

They cannot be used in primary flight control systems because pneumatics cannot provide rapid response or precise movement. However, can be used in secondary flight controls like flaps.

177
Q

What is bleed air from a constant supply system considered to be?

A

Low pressure comparatively and available at high volume

178
Q

Compared to a hydraulic system, what are the principle disadvantages of a pneumatic system?

A
  • leaks are harder to trace

- cannot provide rapid response of precise movement of control surfaces

179
Q

What is the major problem of ram air heaters used in light aircraft?

A

The risk of CO poisoning from exhaust leaks.

180
Q

What does the term deck pressure mean and how is it used for cabin heating?

A

Describes the outlet pressure of a piston engine turbo charger.

Larger turbo charged piston engine aircraft can make use of some of the deck pressure air from the turbo compressor for cabin heating

181
Q

The cold air unit of an air conditioning systems consists of what components?

A

A compressor and turbine

This is the cold air unit it an air cycle machine

182
Q

Cabin pressure is modulated using what valve?

A

Outflow or discharge valve

The pressure is controlled by a large valve fitted in the outside skin of the pressure hull called the outflow or discharge valve.

183
Q

How is cabin pressurisation achieved?

A

Pressurisation is achieved by feeding air through the air conditioning packs and restricting its flow out.

184
Q

What warnings are displayed to the crew of decreasing cabin air pressure or climbing cabin altitude?

A

Audible and visual warning at 10000ft, at 13000ft outflow valves automatically close and at 14000ft passenger oxygen masks are automatically donned.

There is a legal limit of 15000ft

185
Q

What is the structural maximum pressure differential in modern transport aircraft?

A

7-9PSi

As the pressure in the cabin increases the difference between the cabin pressure and ambient pressure will increase. This difference is called the differential pressure.

186
Q

What is the aircraft doing to maintain constant cabin pressure?

A

In the pressure controller, the altitude selector maintains isobaric range which involves continually opening and closing the outflow valve to maintain cabin altitude

187
Q

What are the 3 categories of decompression and their time lengths?

A

Explosive - 0-3 seconds
Rapid - 4-6 seconds
Normal - 6-10 seconds

188
Q

Define Ohms law

A

V=IR

The current in a circuit is directly proportional to voltage

189
Q

What are the purpose of static wick discharges?

A

Dissipate static charge of the aircraft in flight thus avoiding radio interference as a result of static electricity

Static is discharged to the atmosphere through static wicks on the trailing edges of control surfaces

190
Q

If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned perpendicular to a magnetic field what happens?

A

A force will be exerted on the conductor

A coil of wire with a current passing through it has a magnetic field. When it is placed between the poles of a permanent magnet the attraction and repel cause torque to be produced. Lorenz force is produced which is perpendicular to the current and perpendicular to the magnetic field.

191
Q

What is electrical bonding and why is it needed?

A

Electrical bonding is an effort to ensure that the aircraft skin is all one voltage which deters sparking/lightning effects due to Voltage differences between surfaces. It also provides a single earth for all devices.

This is done by bonding or electrically connecting all aircraft parts with a conductor. Inadequate bonding can be seen by the presence of corrosion at joints in the aircraft skin, or static noise on the radio.

192
Q

Define a fuse and a circuit breaker? What are their limits and do a specific number have to be carried?

A

Fuses and circuit breakers are used as over current protection in an aircraft. A fuse is a small tube which contains a thin metal wire that melts at a specific current (stated on the fuse) breaking the circuit. A circuit breaker does the same thing as a fuse but works differently. A bimetallic circuit breaker utilises the thermal expansion properties of 2 different metals to break an electrical circuit by popping switches which have expanded due to over current.

You can only reset a circuit breaker once
You can only replace a fuse once

By law, 10% of each fuse must be carried or 3 which ever is greater

193
Q

Name 2 types of circuit breaker, their respective disadvantages and disadvantages

A

Bi-metallic
Adv:
Cheap

Disadvantages:
Slow tripping response time
Tend to be non-trip free I.e. They can be replaced more than once and their service will continue working regardless of danger posed

Magnetic
Adv:
Quick tripping response time as it works on the principle of magnetism not thermal properties of metals
Tends to be trip- free I.e. If you reset more than once the service is still disabled and not reactivated

194
Q

What is a rectifier and inverter?

A

Rectifier - AC to DC conversion

Inverter - DC to AC conversion

195
Q

What is the purpose of a voltage regulator?

A

To control the output voltage of the generator at varying loads and speeds.

If the output voltage of generators is not controlled it would vary with RPM and system loads. Constant Voltage is optimal running of electrical services.

196
Q

How is the power output of a generator controlled?

A

By varying the strength of the magnetic field.

Varying the field strength is best achieved by altering the current flowing through the field coils. The larger the current, the greater the output voltage and the greater the magnetic field.

197
Q

What is the difference between an AC alternator and a DC generator ?

A

The difference is in the constructor specifically around the rotor or armature and the stator.

Alternator - AC output - the armature is the magnet and the stator is the field coils.

DC generator - DC output - the armature are the rotating field coils with the stator being a stationary magnet.

198
Q

When generators are connected to the same busbar, how are they connected and voltage controlled?

A

Generators are connected in parallel to a busbar which ensure that if one fails the other does not. They are voltage regulated by such devices like a carbon pile regulator or on large aircraft electronically. The generators need to load share and therefore, an equalising circuit is connected between the return lines to the generators.

If any part of the equalising circuit fails, it will mean that one generator may work harder than the other and as such load shedding should occur to limit stress on the generator.

199
Q

How are voltage regulators connected with the generator?

A

Voltage regulators are always connected in series with the shunt field coil windings

200
Q

Why are DC generators connected in parallel?

A

To provide maximum power

201
Q

What are the properties of multiple batteries connected in parallel and series?

A

Parallel: same voltage, same current, sum of all battery capacities (Amp/hr)
Series: sum of all battery voltages, same current and same battery capacity

202
Q

What is field flashing and when is it used?

A

Field flashing is when the residual magnetism in a self exciting generator is depleted and as such current is used to replenish it.

203
Q

What is a self exciting generator?

A

A self exciting generator relies upon residual magnetism in the iron core to provide a small magnetic field upon startup. Once current begins to be generated this can be directed through the field coils to increase output.

204
Q

Name the three types of generator and their properties?

A

Parallel/shunt - current split between loads and therefore, decreasing output voltage. The more services turned on the more output current in the main circuit.

Series - maximum voltage/current through coils therefore more loads increases output current. As max output goes through coils, smaller amount of field windings but of heavier wire. Hard to control and not used in aircraft

Compound - mixture between the 2, at a constant speed output voltage remains the same as services are turned on.

Aircraft use either shunt or compound generators

205
Q

What are the formulae for computing ohms law and power? How are these applied to parallel and series circuits?

A

Ohms law:
V=IR
I=V/R
R=V/I

Power=VI or I(I)R or V(V)/R

Series Resistance = R1+R2+R3
Parallel Resistance = 1/R1+1/R2+1/R3

206
Q

What is the minimum capacity a battery must have before it’s fitted to an aircraft?

A

80%

207
Q

Immediately after starting engines with no other electrical services switched on, an ammeter showing high charge rate to a battery is an indication of?

A

Would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists

208
Q

When carrying out battery condition check using the aircrafts voltmeter what should be done?

A

A load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication if condition

209
Q

When does the flap load limiter operate?

A

There is a placard indicating flap load relief trigger speeds.

The speed is sensed electrically and when the speed exceeds the threshold its retracted. Remember that flap load limiter ONLY activates when exceeded.

210
Q

When will hydraulic fluid in the reservoir vary?

A

With jack operation and temperature

211
Q

When powering a up a hydraulic system, what will happen to the contents of the reservoir?

A

It will decrease slightly because accumulators will fill with hydraulic fluid

212
Q

How is gear retraction prevented whilst on the ground?

A

An electrical control system (air-ground sensing logic) detects weight via the compressed landing gear switches and therefore, disconnects an electrical circuit that prevents the gear switch from being active.

There are also gear lever locks to stop accidental retraction of the Undercarriage

213
Q

When are specific jet engine aircraft at their most efficient?

A

Turbo prop - at medium alts at about 300kts
Turbojet - most efficient at very high airspeeds
High bypass turbofan - at higher altitudes at high subsonic Mach numbers as they accelerate a larger mass of air more slowly than a turbojet

214
Q

When are the highest: temp, pressure and velocity of air within a gas turbine engine?

A

Highest temp during combustion
Highest pressure upon exit of the diffuser
Highest velocity upon entering the turbine

215
Q

What is a gas turbine often called and what cycle does it follow?

A

Constant pressure engine - fuel is burnt at constant pressure

The brayton cycle - forms an elongated trapezium equivalent to the otto cycle for piston. Gas turbines continuously combust and go through compression, combustion, expansion and exhaust.

216
Q

What is a spool and why are there multi spool gas turbine designs?

A

A spool is the assembly that comprises of a compressor and turbine connected by a shaft.

Multi spool gas turbine engines have multiple compressor-turbine assemblies each running at their optimum RPM making them more inherently efficient than a single spool. They tend to comprise of a Low pressure and High pressure spool and in the case of a triple spool a fan (LP), intermediate pressure compressor-turbine and HP compressor turbine. Multi spools also tend to be low bypass and turbo fans which have triple spools are high by pass engines. This is in an effort to increase mass flow and take in a larger volume of air at slower acceleration thereby increasing propulsive efficiency

217
Q

What is propulsive efficiency?

A

How efficiently is kinetic energy turned into propulsive force or how well am I using the thrust produced

218
Q

What is the thrust equation for a gas turbine?

A

Thrust =mass(air) x (velocity of jet - velocity of flight)

219
Q

What is pressure thrust?

A

Pressure thrust is generated when the exhaust propelling nozzle is choked as the air exits supersonic. Due to the pressure difference from the inside of the nozzle vs the outside it produces a thrust force in the direction of travel - pressure thrust

Can be calculated by
PT= area of nozzle(nozzle static pressure - atmospheric pressure)

220
Q

In a DC Motor when is the maximum torque produced?

A

When the armature coils are at 0 degrees to the magnetic field or when the coil lay parallel with the magnetic field

221
Q

What are the three types of DC motor?

A

Series - high torque used in starter motors but hard to control, prone to overspeed with no loads and speed reduces as mechanical load increases.

Parallel/shunt wound - constant speed motors, low torque and current flow but much more controllable

Compound - a mixture of the 2. 60-70% of the magnetic field created by the shunt windings whereas the remainder by the series.

222
Q

What types of voltage regulator are there and how do they work?

A

Carbon pile regulator - most common regulator

Vibrating contact - used in low current systems normal light aircraft using a contact breaker switch opening/closing 50-200times a second.

Transistorised/ electrical - most modern and used in commercial aircraft. Uses a network of transistors and diodes to sense output voltage.

The carbon pile regulator works by altering the resistance of a set of carbon discs using compression. The more the compression the lesser the resistance and vice versa. It is always wired in series with the field coil.

223
Q

How can the rotation of flow of a DC motor be reversed?

A

By changing the direction of current flow in the field coil

224
Q

Why are there holes present in the ribs of the wing structure?

A

To save weight but to also stiffen the structure

225
Q

What is the most common method for providing emergency oxygen in the event of a depressurisation?

A

O2 generated from a chemical generator which feed drop down masks located above the passenger heads. This feeds a continuous flow system which is not activated in the risk/event of a fire/fumes

226
Q

What type of oxygen system does the crew utilise? What are its main controls? When does 100% oxygen get utilised?

A

The crew utilise a supplemental/ gaseous oxygen system fed by a diluted demand system which legally must work for 2hours constant use.

Control 1 - ON/OFF
Control 2 - 3 position switch: Normal, emergency and test
Control 3 - 100% ON/OFF

100% O2 is fed either by manual selection or automatically at and above 32000’ cabin altitude (in which the air metering valve will fully close)

227
Q

What protective breathing equipment do cabin crew use and what is their legal breathing requirement?

A

Smoke hoods used with a 15minute O2 reserve from a small gas bottle

228
Q

What is the minimum requirement for the carriage of therapeutic oxygen?

A

2 minimum and enough oxygen for 2% of the passengers for the time above 8000’

229
Q

What occurs if an over pressure is detected in the gaseous oxygen bottle?

A

The high pressure is detected by a valve that directs the contents of the bottle overboard; thus bursts the green safety disc leaving a red hole in the aircraft skin

230
Q

What are the main advantages/disadvantages of gaseous vs chemical generator oxygen and what systems use which?

A

Chemical generator used in passenger O2 and gaseous used in crew O2

Chemical generator:

  • low maintenance and 5 year self life
  • lightweight and inexpensive
  • one charge and if set off, cannot be stopped

Gaseous

  • refillable externally
  • self contained and larger capacity
  • flow of O2 can be regulated
  • Heavy!!
231
Q

What are the three precaution measures installed to avoid a stall and subsequent surge in a compressor?

A

Variable inlet guide vanes and variable stator vanes - vanes set to optimum angle (which are variable depending on engine conditions) to guide air towards the first stage of the compressor

Inter stage bleed valves - release pressure in later stages of the compressor to preserve axial flow

Acceleration control unit - rapid throttle movements can cause fuel flow surge and possibly a reversal sending flames through the intake. Therefore, this control unit slowly increases power output on application of the throttle

232
Q

What is a compressor stall and surge?

A

Compressor stall - when a single stage of the compressor cannot accelerate air rearward a due to a too high angle of attack of air hitting the compressor blade

Surge - multiple or all stages are stalled and a deep surge is a reversal of air often leading to a flame through the inlet

233
Q

What is a stage and its constituent parts? What occurs to pressure temperature and velocity over these parts?

A

1 stage of a compressor forms a rotor followed by a stator. There are multiple stages in a compressor

A rotor is a twisted blade from root to tip. A stator is a stationary vane used to direct air at the optimum angle to the next set of rotors. The rotor accelerates air, pressure increases and as does temperature. At the stator, it forms a divergent duct and therefore, velocity decreases but pressure and temperature increase.

One stage represents an increase of approximately 1.1-1.2 (10-20%) pressure and about 25 degrees Celsius

234
Q

What is the pressure ratio of a compressor?

A

The pressure ratio is a measure of compressor delivery pressure to the diffuser vs. Inlet pressure. Latest axial flows can produce upwards of 35:1.

235
Q

What is the shape of the compressor section, why is it such?

A

Remember that the compressor is a continuous cycle of increasing pressure and temperature. Given that high pressure flows to low pressure, it would want to flow back to the inlet - to stop this the whole compressor assembly is a convergent duct - air annulus .

Being a convergent duct allows this increasing pressure to continually flow through the compressor without reversal.

236
Q

Which compartments are fire detectors and smoke detectors not required?

A

Flight deck and passenger compartments do not require fire of smoke detection systems - Class A compartments

237
Q

What is the correct operation of a fire handle?

A

Pulling the handle cuts off the fuel and twisting fires the extinguishant

238
Q

Describe the 2 types of smoke detector?

A
  • optical - utilise the principle of smoke refracting light onto a light sensitive cell to set off an alarm
  • ionisation - a small quantity of radioactive material is used that generates an electrical current. Smoke interrupts this elegiacally current and therefore an alarm sounds
239
Q

How does one fight a brake fire and with what?

A

Always approach head or behind on as there is a risk of tyreexplosion which emanates debris sideways.

Spray water mist to cool the brakes at a slow pace

240
Q

Name and describe 2 forms of heat detection system?

A

Resistive/ capacitative FireWire (FFFD) - uses 2 or duplicated loops of FireWire which has a central conductive core surrounded by an insulating layer in a capillary tube. Fire heats up the FireWire insulating material which has a negative temp coefficient reducing the resistance with greater heat and at a point a current can be transferred to earth sounding an alarm. A capacitative circuit contains a charging and measuring unit which reduces the chance for false alarm by measuring the capacitance of the electrical charge against a reference threshold. The capacitative circuit prevents false readings if for example FireWire is crushed.

Systron Donner - a gas pressure activated system in which a core of titanium hydride is surrounded by pressurised helium gas stopped by 2 switches. As heat is applied, the core releases hydrogen gas increase gas pressure by which the alarm switch is tripped at 40 PSI

241
Q

What are overheat detectors, were are the normally found and how do they work?

A

Overheat detectors are little gas tubes containing 2 sides of a spring like metal holding 2 contacts. As heat is applied and the gas expands it pulls the metal bringing the contacts closer together and when they touch an electrical circuit is made showing a light on the flight deck

They tend to be found in the Engine bay, APU bay and wheel bay

242
Q

Where is it mandatory that fire detection is present?

A

Class B-E compartments, galleys and toilets

243
Q

Were is automated fire suppression found and do these systems work?

A

Automated suppression systems are found in unmanned compartments and engine bays. These areas require 2 shots of an extinguishant system.

These systems tend to be controlled by the fire handle for engines in which a pill shuts off fuel and arms extinguishers and a rotation let and right fires both shots. Extinguishers use squibs, small gunpowder charges, which gives a temporary spike in pressure against an actuator allowing extinguishant to release via an open pipe.

244
Q

What are the warnings for a fire on the flight deck?

A
  • steady red light and an audible warning bell/noise

- overheat detection shown as a red flashing light

245
Q

Describe the combustion process in a gas turbine engine

A

Compressed gas leaves the diffuser at approximately 110m/sec and 20% enters flame tube and 80% goes through the outer air casing.

The 20% needs to be slowed down and enters through swirl vanes into the primary zone which recirculates it into a doughnut shape and this is what fuel is sprayed into and burnt.

The air in the outer air casing is then reintroduced into the secondary and dilution zones to cool the air from 2100 degrees to temperatures that the turbine can handle approximately 1000-1500 degrees

246
Q

What are the three designs of a combustor?

A

Multi combustion chamber - ultimate combustion chambers surrounding engine connected via interconnections to allow the flame to propagate and equalise the pressure.
Tuboannular or canannular - multiple flame tubes surrounded by an outer casing
Annular - single circular flame tube making it shorter and more even distribution of thermal loads on the turbine

247
Q

What is the difference between piston and gas turbine combustion?

A

Gas turbine combustion is done at constant pressure and therefore there is no sudden spike of pressure as you get in the piston engine as fuel is ignited close to TDC.

248
Q

What type of fuel nozzles are there for gas turbine engines?

A

Pressure, spray and atomiser nozzles

The spray uses compressed air from the LP compressor and takes fuel into an annular nozzle and ejects into amongst the turbulent air atomising it.

Vaporiser (pressure) nozzles simply eject atomised fuel into the air and use the heat to atomise - not good at low RPMs were heat is low and in conditions were atomisation is poor

Atomiser burner (pressure) - uses a check valve and a fixed size orofice to eject atomised fuel (duplex)

249
Q

What are the stages in a turbine? What are the blades used in the turbine called and how do they work?

A

Stage in a turbine is Stator (nozzle guide vane) and rotor

The blade in a turbine is called an impulse - reactive blade because the stagger angle of the blade increases to its max at the tip and therefore is twisted along its length which accomplishes equal work done along the length of the blade.

Impulse blading is found at the bottom of the blade and reaction at the tip with 50% of both found in the middle.

Pure Impulse - produces a convergent duct increasing gas velocity and decreasing static pressure and temperature - this enacts a force onto the rotor making it spin

Pure Reaction - nozzle guide vanes form a parallel duct to change the direction of airflow only therefore pressure, velocity and temp the same.

250
Q

What are turbine blades made of and what cooling methods are used in turbine blades?

A

Nickel alloy and sometimes have a thermal ceramic coating

Convection - cooling voids inside blade promote heat transfer by convection

Impingement - jets of cooling air played onto internal blade faces which are ejected holes on the trailing edge

Film - internal air passages are fed with high pressure cooling air. This exits through fine drilled holes into the faces and forms a protective film of cooling air across the surface

251
Q

What happens to voltage and current in AC electricity?

A

Current and voltage are constantly change in magnitude and polarity

252
Q

What is the formula for frequency, RMS and line voltage ?

A

RMS = 0.707 x peak voltage

Frequency = RPM x pole pairs / 60

Line voltage (VL) = 1.73 x phase voltage

253
Q

What does CIVIL stand for and what is the relationship with reactance?

A

In a capacitor (C), (I) current leads (V) voltage and voltage lead (I) current in and inductor (L)

Xc is capacitive reactance(ohms) = 1/ (2pieFC) therefore it can be seen that with increasing frequency Xc reduces and therefore less current opposing flow

XL is inductive reactance = 2pieFL

254
Q

What is the purpose of the gas turbine exhaust system?

A

Exhaust waste gases

Suppress noise

255
Q

What use does jet efflux have? What is its relevance to aircraft braking?

A

Used in reverse thrust systems. This allows for less strain to be placed on the aircraft braking systems.

It uses the exhaust gases from the hot or cold stream (engine dependent) to provide a retarding force.

256
Q

Name and describe three aircraft thrust reversers?

A

Bucket doors - an external thrust reverser that is hydraulically operated using 2 sheathes to redirect hot gases which provided approximately 10-20% reverse thrust

Clamshell doors - internal system used to open cascade vanes from inside the hot section of the exhaust stream. These are pneumatic ally operated

Colder stream reverser - high bypass reverses use cold stream reversal as a large proportion of the thrust is produced from the greatest mass flow. therefore, pneumatic ally operated jack Rams move the nacelle backwards opening cascade vanes for the cold air to exit.

257
Q

What precautions are in place to prevent a pilot from inadvertently using reverse thrust?

A

1 cockpit operated and 2 engine interlocks

  1. Air/ground sensing logic senses weight on wheels therefore in the ground
  2. Engine RPM idle
  3. Full Thrust reverse not available till control mechanism at full travel.
258
Q

In the exhaust system what causes noise and how is it made quieter?

A

The rapidly exiting gases cause violent turbulence and rapid shearing. This causes high amplitude vibrations.

The best mitigation is the use of a high bypass engine in which large amount of energy is absorbed from the hot engine core but is also sheathed with a vastly superior mass flow around the engine core dampening it. This means gases exit considerably slowly and therefore, produce less noise.

Low bypass engines use mixer chutes in an attempt to quieten exhaust gases and turbojets are retrofitted with hush kits which lengthen the exhaust pipe

259
Q

Aerodynamically what is occurring in the exhaust at the moment of exit from turbine to the propelling nozzle?

A

As the gases leave the last stage of the turbine, it enters a divergent duct between the exhaust cone and exhaust casing releasing kinetic energy to static pressure. The supports trust and cone remove any residual turbulence.

As it travels to the propelling nozzle it enters a convergent duct which speeds up the velocity of the air trading static pressure for dynamic.

260
Q

Why are temperature exceedences important to report on a gas turbine engine?

A

The gas turbine operates at close to maximum power in most stages of flight and therefore, exceedences of temperature can be detrimental to the lifespan of turbine discs, and blades (typically highest stress areas). Therefore, these must be logged - this is why short haul aircraft experience much more high cycle fatigue than long haul.

261
Q

How does a gas turbine engine drive accessory units?

A

The ancillary or accessory gear box. This contains a number of gears and linkages to oil, fuel, pumps, starter motor and other ancillary devices.

Non essential devices maybe attached using a quill shaft that may shear at a threshold to prevent loads on the gear box.

262
Q

What is the most common gas turbine oil system? Where is oil temp, pressure measured and what are the main components requiring lubricating?

A

The most common system is the full flow system which superseded the relief valve system as it had disadvantages of over oiling at low engine RPMs.

The main components requiring oil are the main ball and roller bearings in the main drive shafts.

Oil temperature is measured on the return to the oil tank and pressure is measured before entering engine before the bearings

263
Q

What are the properties of oil used in a gas turbine engine? What type is normally used?

A

Low viscosity oils tend to be used that can support wide operating range of temperatures. This means fully synthetic is used.

Low viscosity oils can be used as compression forces like that seen in the reciprocating engine are not present in a gas turbine (only rotational loads) so they aren’t required to be as viscous

264
Q

What is a Hydro-mechanical FCU and What constituents a FADEC system?

A

A hydro-mechanical fuel control unit is the precursor to FADEC (full authority digital engine control). The FCU would have a governor which would provide fuel to the engine in all flight conditions.

FADEC is an electronic system that releases the pilot from engine monitoring and control. FADEC utilises an electronic engine control couple with a fuel management unit and protects the engine from compressor surge, stall, overheat and temperature, manages ACC and VSVs. There are always 2 FADEC controllers per engine for redundancy and cross checking of information.

265
Q

What are the main functions if the internal air system?

A

Internal engine and accessory cooling
Bearing chamber sealing
Prevention of hot gas ingestion into turbine disc cavities
Engine anti icing

266
Q

How are the main bearings within a gas turbine engine cooled and what is special about the seals?

A

Main bearings are cooled using oil. They also utilise high pressure air from the compressor along with groove and thread seals to prevent oil leakage. These are known as labyrinth seals - these are used in lieu of ordinary rubber seals because of the intense temperatures.

267
Q

What is the LP booster pump source of power in the fuel tanks? What do they feed and what type of pump are they?

A
  1. AC 115v, 3 phase, 400hz electricity
  2. They feed fuel to the high pressure (HP) pump
  3. They are electrical centrifugal pumps (constant pressure - typical operating range 20-30 psi)
268
Q

What is the cross feed system used for in an aircraft fuel system?

A

In the event of a fuel imbalance to equalise wing tanks or in the event of engine failure, to enable all fuel tanks to feed remaining engine

269
Q

What is the jet pump used for in the fuel system? How does it work?

A

The jet pump tends to keep the feeder box full of fuel to ensure adequate supply to the low pressure (LP) pumps.

It works on the principle of increased fuel pressure flowing through a venturi. As fuel is pushed into the Venturi it sucks in surrounding fuel whilst not letting any out.

270
Q

What type of fuel tanks are there? What are used in various aircraft and their principle disadvantages?

A

-Rigid tanks are standard shape tanks made of aluminium alloy often used in light aircraft and in some larger aircraft fuselages. They do not make use of all available space.

Flexible tanks are rubber bags fastened with chord and buttons. They are very light and used in situations where integral tanks are not possible. However, they can be punctured and form folds which can trap water and fuel.

Integral tanks utilise the wing as a sealed fuel tank. This is used in most commercial aircraft. They utilise baffles and baffle check valves to control fuel movement in manoeuvres and fuel pooling in the wing tips. If over pressures do occur this can cause structural damage to the wing.

271
Q

Why are fuel tanks pressurised? What methods are used to pressurise the fuel tanks in commercial aircraft?

A

Fuel tanks are pressurised to prevent vapour locking. As the aircraft climbs pressure drops and can boil the fuel meaning the pumps stop working and provide no fuel flow. Therefore to stop this occurring, the tank is pressurised.

pressurisation can be done via the bleed air system pressurising the tank up to 5psi. The B737 and others use the ram air supplied by the vent system to pressurise the fuel tank.

272
Q

In an AC circuit where the effects of capacitive reactance equals the effects of inductive reactance, what is this circuit called?

A

Resonant circuit were impedance is totally resistive.

273
Q

Explain reactive, true and apparent power? What are their respective units? How does this relate to the efficiency of an AC circuit?

A

Reactive power (KVAR - kilovolt amps reactance) is also known as watt less power - it’s the wasted power required for a generator to balance/ make the circuit resonant

True power (KW) is the power remaining post reactive power

Apparent power (KVA) is the total power true + reactive

The power factor is a direct relation of AC circuit efficiency. I.e. Power factor = useful or true power / total power.

274
Q

How are AC generators made to deliver a constant frequency?

A

The use of a hydro-mechanical constant speed drive unit (CSDU) is connected between the engine and the generator via a dog clutch that adjusts torque and thus its RPM to output a constant frequency.

A CSDU is often coupled with a generator in modern systems and these are called integrated drive units

275
Q

What are the main AC motors and their principal differences?

A

Synchronous and induction motors

A synchronous motor is a constant speed motor which is construction ally identical to a 3 phase alternator. The reason it is a motor is because current is fed to the stator coils to turn a magnet instead of vice versa (magnet turning to produce current). Used for constant speed applications e.g. A tachometer.

An induction motor uses field coils as its rotor instead of a magnet. Therefore, as the stator coils generate an electromagnetic field, it produces a field in the rotor coils. The rotor chases the stator field and never quite is fast enough. This is spill speed. Induction motors are self starting but as load increases they slow down. Used for fuel and hydraulic pumps, AC actuators and gyros.

276
Q

What are AC wild generators and what are they used for?

A

AC wild generators do not have RPM control and as such their frequency and output isn’t controlled. They tend to be fitted to simpler aircraft but can be used in commercial aircraft to power non-inductive devices such as: engine and prop anti icing, heating and non-fluorescent lighting.

They typically provide 22 KVA at a frequency range of 280-400hz (but this varies per aircraft e.g. ATR wild gen is 343-488hz).

277
Q

What are the effects of oil warning lights on CSDU? If the disconnect is used when can it be reset?

A
  • low oil level
  • low oil pressure
  • high oil temp

These may indicate a CSDU that is about to fail. Warning lights in the cockpit will light if at least oil pressure and temp is low or high respectively.

If the CSD disconnect is operated, a warning light will also display in the cockpit. It can be operated at any time during flight or when engines are running on the ground. It cannot be reset unless on the ground with engines off and only then by an engineer

278
Q

What does the below symptoms indicate:

  • low and stable rpm
  • no EGT rise
  • some indicated fuel flow
A

A wet start or a failure to light.

Fuel is being injected into the exhaust which means upon next start torching may occur. Therefore, a dry run must be done prior to restarting

279
Q

What is the engine pressure ratio (EPR)? What occurs with the P1 nozzle in the intake freezes?

A

It is the ratio of compressor inlet pressure to exhaust outlet pressure. EPR may over read in icing conditions.

280
Q

Gas turbine starting is carried out by what and how does it work?

A

Engine starting is done either by an electric starter motor (in smaller gas turbines which also double as a generator) or by a pneumatic or air starter motor.

The air starter unit is able to take the engine to approximately 20% RPM. It does this by turning the HP compressor via the drive shaft. Because of the huge RPMs this motor attains (120k) it gets very hot and therefore, it must only be used sparingly. After every attempt, it must be allowed to cool down to a maximum of three starts whereby it will require at least an hour.

281
Q

What is a step up transformer and how does it work?

A

A step up transformer has more coil windings around its output that on its input. It uses the principle of EM induction, if power is assumed constant, a current will create a magnetic field in the primary windings and the core will magnetise to produce another EM field in the secondary field windings. Double the coils in the secondary windings, double the voltage but half the current.

The principle is opposite for a step down

282
Q

describe a split busbar and parallel AC distribution system?

A

In a split busbar system, each generator is connected to its own AC busbar. In normal operations, each the BTB joining the busbars is open. This is because the generators cannot be paralleled unless of a failure in one were the BTB would close so as the remaining generator can power the rest of the system.

A parallel system works of the principle that a synchronising busbar joins each generator AC busbar. For this to work each generator must be operating on the same voltage, frequency and be in phase. These systems tend to be used more in more than 2 engined aircraft or large 2 engined aircraft. The BTBs in normal operation here are closed to allow power to be synchronised.

283
Q

How are the 28v DC busbars powered from 115/200v 3 phase 400 hz AC generators?

A

They use transformer rectifier units (TRUs) usually one for each DC busbar. The TRUs also charge the batteries.

284
Q

What does the GCU protect the generator against and if these protections are tripped what happens?

A

The generator control unit forms a number of sensitive relays that protect the generator from:
Over/under voltage
Over/under frequency
Excess current

If any of these occur the GCU will operate the excitation control breaker (ECB) to stop the generator from producing electricity and operate the generator control breaker (GCB) to stop it supplying electricity to the AC busbar. BTB operation also occurs but this is dependent upon the AC distribution system (split or parallel).

285
Q

Condition for ground spoiler deployment = spoiler lever armed as well as aircraft weight on wheel. What logic operator is required for spoilers to activate?

What other logic operators are there?

A

AND as both inputs are required - I.e. Positive logic - there is only one outcome that allows for 1 - 1:1 all other outcomes are zero.

Other operators:

  • OR: 3 outcomes provide 1 and 0:0 provides zero
  • NOT: inverter gate which changes its input to the opposite
  • NAND: inverts the AND into opposite/negative logic
  • NOR: inverts the NOT into opposite/negative logic with only 1 outcome producing 1 and the rest zeros
286
Q

What fuel gauging system do light aircraft use and what do they indicate?

A

Resistive circuit float or electric float gauges. These indicate volume not mass

287
Q

What does the jettisoning system have to be able to do and what does it use to do it?

A

Capable of jettisoning in 15 mins fuel from MTOM to MLM
Have stops in place that allow the aircraft to retain fuel enough to climb to 10000ft, cruise for 45 minutes

Jettisoning is done via the LP booster pumps

288
Q

What is the maximum refuelling pressure and what system does it use?

A

50 psi and a -5 psi for defueling. It uses the same refuelling pipe work and connection to fuel and de-fuel

289
Q

An aircraft fitted with a reference/compensating unit in the fuel tank half filled with fuel at 0.78 SG. What happens if the fuel temp increases?

A

The volume of the fuel will increase as due to thermal expansion and some vaporisation. Therefore, the volume will increase. However, the reference capacitor is at the bottom of the tank and will read the actual capacitance of the fuel and in doing so keep the quantity the same of the fuel gauge.

290
Q

Where would the fuel flow meter on a jet aircraft be normally located?

A

Flow meter fitted after the HP cock, between the fuel control unit and the engine

291
Q

When are icing conditions set to exist?

A

TAT +10 degrees Celsius and with visible moisture of visibility less than 1500m

Airframe icing tends to be at temps of about +5 degrees

292
Q

What parts of the propeller use anti icing protection and what is their source?

A

The first third and at most half is de/anti iced. Usually electrically. The remainder is not due to the centrifugal forces stopping ice from settling.

293
Q

What do modern commercial aircraft use as an anti-icing system? Where is it applied?

A

The bleed air system is used for leading edges and engine jet engine intakes as well as the first stage of the compressor inlet guide vanes.

Turboprop intake lips are usually electrically heated.

All engine icing protection is anti ice to prevent ingestion of ice.

294
Q

What ice detection mechanisms are there?

A
  • vibrating rod
  • pressure operate
  • rotary serrated rod
  • visual: heated rod on pilot side screen and ice detection lights for leading edges of wings
295
Q

Which condition will tend to cause an increase in blade angle of attack (AoA)?

A

As forward speed increases, the blade coarsens. Therefore, the AoA decreases as the chord line comes closer to the relative airflow.

The opposite occurs at slower speeds and therefore, AoA increases

296
Q

For a prop producing forward thrust what is ATM and CTM?

A

ATM - aerodynamic twisting moment
CTM - centrifugal twisting moment

CTM is the dominant of the 2 and naturally sends the blade to fine with noting stopping it. ATM is the opposite and acts to coarsen the blade due to the thrust acting displaced from the pivot point of the blade

297
Q

What is the alpha and beta range?

A

Alpha - the flight ranges

Beta - ground and reverse thrust ranges

298
Q

On a single and twin engine aircraft, what are the differences in setup of the PCU if the engine were to fail?

A

SEP - the blade would not feather but allow CTM to take it to fine - this is intentional as it will cause windmilling which will enable better restart ability even though higher drag is present

MEP - the increase prop drag of a windmilling prop in asymmetric flight can cause drastic handling difficulties therefore, they are set to fail feathered.

299
Q

What is the difference between a single and double acting PCM?

A

PCM - pitch change mechanisms

A single uses oil pressure alters the pitch of the propeller in one direction whereas an opposing spring adjusts it in the other. A double uses oil pressure to adjust it both ways.

300
Q

What is propeller ‘beat’ usually caused by?

A

Unsynchronised propeller engines I.e. The props have a minorly different RPM from one another

301
Q

What is synchro phasing and when should it be carried out?

A

Synchronising - synchroniser control unit using a master engine sets the RPM of all prop engines to be the same

Synchro phasing - sets each engine propeller blade angle slightly different whilst maintaining the same RPM to reduce prop noise.

Synchronising the props must occur first before synchro phasing

302
Q

In a standard 2 lever propeller control system, what adjusts reverse thrust?

A

Power lever

With prop control set to Max RPM, the power lever is used to select the beta range. Within this range the power lever overrides the CSU and removes the alpha range flight fine pitch stops.

Within Beta power lever operates prop blade angle and engine power