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ATPL Groundschool - Phase 1 > Air Law > Flashcards

Air Law Flashcards

1
Q

What do the terms territory, sovereignty and suzerainty mean?

A

Territory - all the airspace with no vertical limit above the land within its borders and sea extending out by 12nm

Sovereignty - defines that the state can exercise its right to apply its own laws and customs to those in its territory

Suzerainty - is the authority of a dominant state over a subordinate state

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2
Q

When was the International civil aviation organisation founded and what was the outcome?

A

1944 Chicago convention and with it a release of 96 articles supported by 19 annexes

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3
Q

What 2 agreements did the convention produce?

A
  • international air transport agreement

- international air services transit agreement

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4
Q

What is one of the main responsibilities of ICAO?

A

To maintain and develop the 19 annexes which contain the SARPS (standards and recommended practices) which provide the framework for national legislation.

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5
Q

What additional documentation does ICAO produce?

A

Procedures for air navigation services (PANS) which are not mandatory by law but most states abide/ integrate them

Augmenting the PANS are SUPPS which are supplementary procedures that take into account regional requirements

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6
Q

What does IATA stand for and do?

A

International air transport association is a private organisation with strong links to ICAO headquartered in Montreal Canada.

IATA is often used as an agent for inter airline cooperation and represents and leads the airline industry

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7
Q

What is the purpose of ECAC (European civil aviation conference)?

A

Promote the continued development of a safe, efficient and sustainable European air transport system.

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8
Q

What does Eurocontrol do?

A

Controls upper airspace management and air traffic control for the whole of Europe.

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9
Q

What did the European Aviation safety agency take over from and what are their primary responsibilities?

A

The joint aviation authority. They had no legal authority and as such for it to be enforceable had to be made into national law. EASA replaced this and has now enshrined aviation legislation into law.

Primary responsibilities are:

  • rule making
  • inspections, training, and standardisation programmes
  • safety and type certifications of aircraft, engines and parts
  • authorisation of non-EU operators
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10
Q

Define a certificate and rating?

A

Certificate - any approval, license or other documents issued as a result of certification

Rating - statement entered in license, setting forth privileges, special conditions or limitations pertaining thereto.

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11
Q

Provide some definitions of that which define a complex motor powered aircraft?

A
  • maximum certificated take off mass greater than 5700kg or
  • certificated to be able to carry >19 passengers or
  • equipped with turbojet or turboprop engines or
  • certificated to carry a minimum of at least 2 pilots
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12
Q

What are the five freedoms? What agreement are the set out in?

A

IASTA - freedom 1 and 2 - the technical freedoms which allow an aircraft to fly over (1) or into a signatory for technical reasons(2)

IATA - freedoms 3,4 and 5 - the commercial freedoms which allow passengers and freight onboard an aircraft from its registered home state to a signatory state of arrival (3). Allows freight and passengers to be picked up from state of arrival and return to home state (4) and finally allows passengers to be picked up or set down from states other than the home state (5).

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13
Q

What is cabotage?

A

The act of an aircraft registered in state B serving domestic routes in state A

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14
Q

What is the basic structure of ICAO and the count of member states/ individuals in each rung?

A

Assembly (meets every 3 years and elects)—->council (36 member states who seek guidance from)—–> commission (19 individuals were previously it was 15)

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15
Q

The standards within the annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:

A

Binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference

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16
Q

True or false :

According to article 10, all aircraft entering a contracted state territory (unless crossing without landing and have permission to do so) must land at and depart from a customs airport.

A

True

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17
Q

True or false

Article 12 states that ICAO rules and procedures do not apply on the high seas

A

False

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18
Q

Does customs duty apply to aircraft parts, spares and aircraft stores if retained onboard after departure? What article does this apply to and if an aircraft is unserviceable in another contracting state does customs duty apply to the required parts being offloaded for the stricken aircraft?

A

Customs duty does not apply to aircraft parts, spares, stores, fuel, lubricating oils or regular equipment according to article 24.

The parts required to return the stricken aircraft to service are exempt from duty given that the contracting state regulations are upheld and these goods are logged/bonded in a customs store.

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19
Q

What are the documents every contracting state aircraft must carry that is engaged in international navigation?

A 
According to article 29 the following documentation needs to be carried:
Certificate of airworthiness
Certificate of registration 
Crew and passenger manifest containing names, embarkation and departure points
Aircraft radio station license
Cargo manifest of detailed declarations
Appropriate crew licenses
Aircraft journey logbook
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20
Q

Which articles state that appropriate aviation infrastructure and assistance in distress situations is required?

A

Article 28 and 25

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21
Q

When was the Tokyo convention and what did it ratify?

A

1963 and gave jurisdiction to the state of registration of an aircraft in the event of criminal acts or offences committed onboard that aircraft

Tokyo also ratified the PICs authority and responsibilities in such situations and the procedure during unlawful interference

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22
Q

What did The Hague and Montreal conventions ratify? Where this updated and if so where and when?

A

The Hague convention was in 1970 and outlined the jurisdiction over offenders of unlawful seizure and interference including extradition

The Montreal convention 1971 outlined unlawful acts other than hijacking and the penalties and jurisdiction for these acts.

The Montreal and Hague conventions where updated in the Beijing convention in 2010 making the use of a civil aircraft as a weapon and targeting an aircraft using dangerous materials unlawful

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23
Q

What did the Rome and Warsaw conventions set out and when?

A

Warsaw,1929, set out the limit of liability for a carrier in case of serious injury or death of a passenger onboard an aircraft in any operations including embarking and disembarking with a claim period of 2 years

Rome, 1933, 1938 and 1953 was signed to define and provide the limit of liability of a carrier for damages caused to people on the ground.

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24
Q

What is flight time defined as?

A

The moment an aircraft moves under its own power to the moment it comes to rest at the end of a flight.

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25
Q

What is the definition of night?

A

The moment at which civil twilight ends is when the Suns disc is 6 degrees below the horizon and begins in the morning when the centre of the Suns disc is 6 degrees below the horizon

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26
Q

What are considered class ratings under EASA part FCL in annex 1?

A 
SEP(land)
SEP(sea)
MEP(land)
MEP(sea)
SET(land)
SET(sea)
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27
Q

What is the percentage a copilot of an aircraft requiring one can they credit toward a higher grade pilot license?

A

No more than 50%

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28
Q

In what circumstances can a PIC diverge from the rules of the air?

A

When it concerns safety of the aircraft, passengers and or cargo and the situation warrants it.

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29
Q

What are the three main rules of the air when over flying congested areas or open air assemblies?

A
  • be able to glide clear or have sufficient height in case of emergency to not do damage or injury to those on the ground
  • 1000ft above the highest obstacle and not within 600m of the highest obstacle
  • elsewhere 500ft above the highest obstacle
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30
Q

How is a formation flight arranged in controlled and uncontrolled airspace?

A

Uncontrolled - by all the PICs

Controlled - with authority by the appropriate ATSU

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31
Q

What annex are the rules of the air stated in?

A

Annex 2

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32
Q

Describe the rights of way of a power driven heavier than air aircraft for: overtaking, converging and head on?

A

Head on: both aircraft must turn right

Converging: the aircraft with the other on the right must give way

Overtaking: the overtaking aircraft is to do so on the right and the overtaken aircraft always has right of way.

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33
Q

Describe the rules of the air for power driven heavier than air aircraft, gliders, balloons and airships?

A

Power driven heavier than air aircraft give way to: other power driven heavier than air aircraft towing objects, airships, gliders, and balloons

Airships give way to balloons and gliders

Gliders give way to balloons

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34
Q

What rules and regulations do water operations aircraft apply to?

A

International rules for preventing collisions at sea (London 1972)

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35
Q

When can simulated instrument flight be carried out?

A

When:

  • dual controls are present
  • the PIC has appropriate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft
  • a qualified pilot is in the control seat to act as a safety pilot
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36
Q

What lights must be displayed for periods between sunset and rise in flight and on the ground?

A

In flight it is mandatory that all aircraft have navigation and anti collision lights illuminated

For aircraft on the manoeuvring area, an anti collision light is mandatory

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37
Q

When are flight plans mandatory and optional?

A

VFR for those crossing FIRs and IFR operating in advisory space.

Non mandatory but highly recommended in flights over remote areas and >10nm from the coast

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38
Q

If there is a delay in Estimated off blocks time (EOBT) what duration of delay is required before an amendment or refile is required in controlled and uncontrolled space?

A

Controlled - 30mins

Uncontrolled - 60mins

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39
Q

What are the EU differences rules about repetitive flight plans?

A

Repeat flight plans can be filed for IFR routes on the same routes for more than 10 consecutive days of the route flown or operated regularly on the same days on consecutive weeks.

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40
Q

What is an aero drone control service?

A

An air traffic control service for aerodrome traffic

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41
Q

What does altitude mean?

A

The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point measured from MSL

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42
Q

What is taxiing?

A

The movement of an aircraft under its own power in the aerodrome surface, excluding take off and landing?

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43
Q

What is a special VFR flight?

A

A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate in an aerodrome control zone in meteorological conditions below VMC

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44
Q

What is the total elapsed time for IFR flights ?

A

Take off arriving overhead a designated point, defined by navigation aids, from which it is intended that an instrument approach will be commenced

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45
Q

What conditions is an VFR flight not allowed to operate?

A

Taking off or landing in a control zone or entering an ATZ when ceiling is less than 1500ft (450m) or ground visibility less than 5km.

VFR flights are not to operate above FL200 and authorisation to operate above FL290 shall not be cranked were separation minima is 300m (1000ft)

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46
Q

What are the VFR weather minima?

A

Above 10000ft - 8km visibility, 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically clear of cloud

Between 3000 & 10000ft - 5km visibility, 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically clear of cloud

Below 3000ft

Classes B-D
5km Visibility, 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically clear of cloud

Classes E-G
Visibility 5km, clear of cloud and in sight of surface

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47
Q

During a visual approach in controlled airspace (class c) what separation of traffic will occur?

A

ATC will keep other traffic away from any aircraft which is approaching to land. As it is now aerodrome traffic it is a controlled flight.

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48
Q

What is the vertical separation minima above FL290?

A

2000ft

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49
Q

What is the separation minima below FL290?

A

1000ft

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50
Q

If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the PIC aircraft what should occur?

A

The PIC may request and if practicable, obtain an amended clearance

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51
Q

The VMC minima for an airspace classified as G above 10000ft MSL is?

A

1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically clear of cloud and 8km visibility

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52
Q

Changing from IFR to VFR will take place when?

A

Under the initiative of the aircraft commander.

It is advised that the aircraft commander may switch if it is foreseen that a reasonable period will be conducted under VFR.

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53
Q

What is the highest appropriate cruise level below FL290 for an aircraft on a true heading of 002 with variation of 5 degrees east, deviation 2 degrees east and drift 4 degrees starboard?

A

Heading is 002
Variation is 5E therefore 002-5=357 degrees magnetic track

Drift correction for a magnetic heading is 357+4 =001

It is in the odd section of the semi circular rule in which the highest odd FL is FL270

Remember that the rules are based upon magnetic heading

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54
Q

When shall type ratings be established?

A

For any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority

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55
Q

What medical assessment shall the applicant of a Commercial license hold?

A

A current class 1 medical

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56
Q

The holder of a pilot license, when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the PIC the functions and duties of a PIC shall be entitled to be credit with how much flight time toward a higher grade of license?

A

In full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot license.

The applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than 250 hours, either as PIC, or made up by not less than 100 hours as PIC and the necessary flight time as co pilot performing, under the supervision of a PIC, provided the moth of supervision employed is acceptable to the Licensing authority

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57
Q

According to ICAO Annex1, the holder of a pilot license, when acting as a co pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credited with not more than how much flight time toward a higher grade if pilot license?

A

Not more than 50% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot license.

In EU-OPS, 100% can be credited

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58
Q

According to EASA PART-FCL, a class rating shall be established for a single pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating are?

A

All self sustaining gliders

Class ratings shall be established for Single pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating as follows:
SEP LAND
SEP SEA
ALL TOURING MOTOR GLIDERS
EACH MANUFACTURER OF SINGLE ENGINE TURBO PROP AEROPLANES - LAND
EACH MANUFACTURER OF SINGLE ENGINE TURBO PROP AEROPLANES - SEA
ALL MULTI-ENGINE PISTON AEROPLANES - LAND
ALL MULTI-ENGINE PISTON AEROPLANES - SEA

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59
Q

The planned cruising speed for the crushing portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is what type?

A

TAS or MACH no

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60
Q

On a flight plan form what does the estimated total time mean for a VFR flight?

A

It is the estimated time required by the aircraft from take off to arrive overhead he destination airport

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61
Q

When should a controlled flight flight plan be amended or cancelled or refilled ?

A

30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks

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62
Q

For flights in accordance with IFR within advisory airspace a flight plan should be what?

A

Mandatorily filed and any changes to the flight plan reported

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63
Q

If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternative airport (box 16) of the flight plan form what should the pilot write?

A

ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport

If not ALTN then write DEST/ or DEP/

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64
Q

Two aircraft are approaching each other in a controlled airspace class D in VMC at approximately rage same level on converging courses. Aircraft A is flying under IFR and aircraft B under VFR. Who has the right of way?

A

Aircraft B, providing it has “A” on it left.

N.B- this has nothing to do with priority of aircraft IFR vs. VFR. As the VFR pilot should be looking out, therefore, they should determine whether they are on a converging course and determine whether they have right of way by being on the right.

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65
Q

Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC?

A

Continue to fly VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report the arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate ATC unit.

If comms failure occurs in VMC:

  • fly VMC
  • land at nearest suitable aerodrome
  • report arrival by the most expeditious means to appropriate ATC
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66
Q

Warning of manoeuvring areas in a poor state is indicated in the signal square by?

A

Red square with one yellow diagonal

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67
Q

A flashing green light to an aircraft in flight means?

A

Return to this airfield to land

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68
Q

Glider flying in progress is indicated by what?

A

A horizontal double white cross in the signals square

69
Q

While taxiing, an aircraft receives a series of red flashes. What does this mean?

A

Must vacate the landing areas is in use

70
Q

What do the following signals mean to aircraft in flight and on the ground?

A

Signal Aircraft in flight Aircraft on ground
Steady green Clear to land. Cleared to take off
Steady red Do not land. Stop
Flashing green Return to airfield to land Clear to Tracy
Flashing red. A/D unsafe, do not land. Landing area in use
Flashing white Land and proceed to apron. RTN to start on A/D
Red pyrotechnic. Not withstanding previous,
Do not land for time being

71
Q

If a marshalled raises his arm, with fist clenched, horizontally in front of the body, then extends fingers. What does this indicate?

A

Release brakes

72
Q

A signalman to the aircraft: - arms fully extended and wands at a 90 degree angle to sides then slowly moves arms to above the head until the wands cross. What does this mean?

A

Stop

73
Q

What are the common signals a pilot will indicate to a marshaller?

A

Brakes on/off - palm open to clenched fist and opposite for off
Chocks in/out - 2 open palms across face coming together and crossing. Opposite for out
Engine start: indicate on one hand which endings to start (port-starboard 1-4)

74
Q

If a marshalled raises his arm, with fist clenched, horizontally in front of the body, then extends fingers. What does this indicate?

A

Release brakes

75
Q

A signalman to the aircraft: - arms fully extended and wands at a 90 degree angle to sides then slowly moves arms to above the head until the wands cross. What does this mean?

A

Stop

76
Q

What are the common signals a pilot will indicate to a marshaller?

A

Brakes on/off - palm open to clenched fist and opposite for off
Chocks in/out - 2 open palms across face coming together and crossing. Opposite for out
Engine start: indicate on one hand which endings to start (port-starboard 1-4)

77
Q

What does the red square with 2 yellow diagnols in it mean?

A

Landing prohibited and likely prolonged

78
Q

What does a white horizontal dumbbell signify in a signals square? What is the significance of black vertical lines in the dumbbell heads?

A

A white dumbbell means landing, take off, and taxi confined to runways and taxiways. The black vertical lines mean that landing and take off confined to runways but other manoeuvres not confined to these areas.

79
Q

Deviations from SARPs must be notified to ICAO in what time frame?

A

BGS question bank - such deviations must be notified to ICAO within 6 months of ICAO publishing the SARP

BGS book - deviations from SARPs must be notified to ICAO within 3 months of adoption and publication by ICAO, plus an additional month allowed for preparation and transit.

80
Q

In response to a command from the interceptor, an intercepted aircraft regularity switches on and off all available lights. This means what?

A

I cannot comply with your command

81
Q

The standard phrase with the meaning descend for landing for use by an intercepting aircraft is?

A

Descend pronounced DEESEND repeated twice. This means descend for landing

82
Q

If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, what should the intercepted aircraft do?

A

Follow the instructions if the intercepting aircraft and request immediate clarification.

83
Q

Which manoeuvre will be executed by the intercepting aircraft which signifies ‘you may proceed’?

A

An abrupt break away consisting of a climbing 90 degree turn or more not crossing the Line of flight of the intercepted aircraft

84
Q

An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio. Comms on what channel(s)?

A

121.5 MHz and if no contact established, and if practicable, repeat call on 243mhz

85
Q

What signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without without requiring immediate assistance?

A

Repeated switching on and off of landing lights or navigation lights in a manner that distinguishes it from other nav lights

86
Q

Whilst flying in an aerodrome a traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. What does this mean?

A

Flashing green: return to landing (clearance to land will be given in due course)

87
Q

The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be how much in cm? Also what length on the tail?

A

50cm on the wing

30cm on the tail and fuselage

88
Q

According to ICAO Annex 8, a CoA shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to whose laws?

A

The state of registry.

The state of registry is require under annex 8 to publish each aircraft limiting ranges of mass, mass distribution, floor loading a and CoG positions.

89
Q

What aircraft does the state of design produce a structural integrity programme to ensure airworthiness of the aeroplane?

A

Over 5700kg maximum certified take off mass

90
Q

When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with what?

A
  • five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
  • part 2: three letter combinations beginning with Q and with the distress signal SOS or other urgent signals: PAN, XXX and TTT

N.b - BGS accept just the first even though both may feature in the answer

91
Q

According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letter, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by who?

A

The state of registry or common mark registering authority

Normally it is the home state is where it is registered but some small states cannot afford to establish and maintain an office for the registration and may ask another state to do it got them as a ‘common mark registering authority’

92
Q

The documents for entry and exit of aircraft are accepted in what form?

A

In hand written block lettering in ink.

ICAO requires contracting states to accept the documents required for entry and departure in legible handwriting. Typed documents or electronic formats maybe accepted by manually produced paper documents MUST be accepted

93
Q

The number of copies of the general declaration, cargo manifest and stores list upon entry and departure of an air craft is how many?

A

No more than 3 copies of each

Found this in a question bank annex (but all answers to questions so far are not more than 3 - so unsure whether this is worth committing to memory)
Document. Outbound. Inbound
Gen Dec. 2 copies. 3 copies
Cargo manifest. 2 copies. 3 copies
Simple stores list. 2 copies. 2 copies

94
Q

What does annex 9 refer to?

A

Facilitation or the regulations involved with customs, visas and entry/exit procedures to from a contracting state.

It is to reduce and limit administrative and bureaucratic obstacles to international aviation

95
Q

What is a CMC and when can it be used?

A

Crew member certificates - can be used as identification in which contracting states must accept (inline of a passport) for those temporarily staying and are on the next scheduled flight

96
Q

An inadmissible person is what and who is responsible for them and any incurred costs?

A

An inadmissible person is one that is not admitted by a states authorities. It is the responsibility of the operator to return that person to the state of departure and the operator incurs these costs. However, does not stop the operator from recovering these costs from the passenger.

97
Q

What are the 3 things required on a cargo manifest? Can morin formation be sought by a state?

A

For those states requiring a cargo manifest:
Waybill number
Number of packages in the waybill number
Nature of the goods

This is a maximum, no further information can be sought by a contracting state

98
Q

What notice of advanced arrival should an aircraft engaged in non-scheduled international services provide and by what means?

A

By flight plan and at least 2 hours in advance of arrival

99
Q

What are the ICAO requirements for declaration of passenger luggage contents?

A

Contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crew.

States cannot ask for a written declaration.

100
Q

The assignment of a the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by who?

A

Assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by ICAO.

The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated to the ICAO by the international telecommunications Union (ITU)

101
Q

An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a contracting state and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within the state without security for customs duty for how long?

A

For a period to be established by that state.

This is in accordance with Article 24

102
Q

Type ratings shall be established under what conditions?

A

For any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority.

Type ratings shall be established for:

  • each type of aircraft certified for operation with a minimum of at least 2 pilots
  • each type of heli certified for single pilot ops except where a class rating has been issued
  • any type of aircraft wherever considered necessary by the Licensing Authority.
103
Q

Where an UIR is established, do the procedures applicable within need to be the same as the underlying FIR?

A

No, the state which controls the UIR and FIR will publish their procedures and it is not necessary they be the same.

104
Q

When an RNP1 route is indicated A342 Z, what does the Z mean?

A

It is an RNP1 route at or below FL190 in which all turns on route within 30-90degrees must be within a radius of 15nm

105
Q

What is a portion of controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth? What are its vertical minima?

A

Control area and is not to be less than 200m or 700ft

106
Q

What is the speed limit in airspace class E?

A

VFR and IFR traffic in class E below FL100 or 10000ft must maintain less than 250kts IAS

     A.  B.  C.  D.  E.  F.  G.  IFR.  No no no yes yes yes yes  VFR n/a no yes yes yes yes yes
107
Q

What are the minimum services a Flight information region shall supply?

A

Flight information service and alerting service

108
Q

Under ICAO rules what determines whether an airfield is controlled?

A

An aerodrome is a controlled aerodrome if it has a control tower.

109
Q

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive FIS if request is classified as?

A

Class G

110
Q

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive FIS if requested, is classified as?

A

Class F

Explanation - uncontrolled by but IFR traffics using advisory service will be separated from other participating IFR traffic using the advisory service. non-participating IFR traffic and all VFR traffic will receive info about other known traffic and FIS.

Cheat:
B C D E F G
2 8 6 4 3 2
7 5

111
Q

What are the stations that provide air traffic services?

A 
Area control centre
Flight information centre
Approach control office
Aerodrome control tower
Air traffic services reporting office
112
Q

The separation method whereby a mix of vertical and horizontal separation is used is called what? What are their minima?

A

Composite separation

If used, allows vertical and horizontal separation to decrease but not below half the standard values

113
Q

When does air traffic control services have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain?

A

When a flight is in accordance with IFR and is being vectored by radar

Every other time it is the responsibility of the PIC. ATC will transfer responsibility back to the PIC by saying ‘resume own navigation’

114
Q

Air traffic control service is provided for what purposes?

A

Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

115
Q

What are the primary forms of FIS broadcasts? When does ATIS get updated?

A

HF and VHF operational flight information service broadcasts and automatic terminal information service broadcasts (voice and digital/data- ATIS)

ATIS is updated as soon as any significant change occurs

116
Q

What are the purposes of clearances issued by ATC?

A

Achieving separation between controlled flights

117
Q

What is the unit that co-ordinates rescue units? How many are there and what do their units consist of?

A

Rescue coordination centre (RCC)

There is one per flight information region and their unit or units include trained personnel with appropriate equipment for search and rescue

118
Q

What is an alert phase defined as? What are the other phases?

A

An alert phase is one which follows uncertainty and there is apprehension present about an aircrafts safety and safety of its occupants

  • uncertainty –> alert –> distress
119
Q

What is the procedure of a PIC if in receipt of a distress transmission?

A

Log position and take a bearing if possible, relay information to air traffic service unit or RCC and while waiting for instructions, at the discretion of the PIC, take up a track to the scene of distress

120
Q

What are the ground visual signals presented from survivors of a distress situation?

A 
X- medical assistance required
V - assistance required
N - no/negative
Y - yes/affirm
--> proceeding in this direction
121
Q

ICAO recommends that containers which are dropped for survivors of a distress have colour coded streamers, what colour is attributed to containers containing survival equipment?

A

Yellow - protective clothing and blankets

N.B - black is misc equipment, red is medical supplies and first aid, blue is food and water

122
Q

What is the sole objective of accident and investigation procedures? What annex is this held in?

A

The sole objective is to prevent future accidents

Annex 13

123
Q

Who is responsible for the initiation of accident investigations?

A

State of occurrence is responsible for initiating accident and investigation proceedings.

This maybe delegated if appropriate after initiation

124
Q

What is an accident and when is it applicable?

A

An accident is an occurrence associated the operation of an aircraft which takes place between any person boards with intention of flight until such time as all persons have disembarked

  • aircraft suffers major structural damage/failure that adversely affects structural length and/or requires major repair.
  • a person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of being in direct contact with any pat of the aircraft or being inside the aircraft or direct exposure to jet blast
  • the aircraft is missing or inaccessible
125
Q

What is an incident and a serious incident?

A

An accident is an occurrence other than an accident in the operation of an aircraft which affects or could affect the safety of operation.

A serious incident is distinguished by the fact it narrowly avoided an accident:

  • controlled flight into terrain narrowly avoided
  • collision narrowly avoided by having to take an avoidance manoeuvre
  • gross failure to achieve predicted performance on t/o or initial climb
  • flight crew incapacitation in flight
126
Q

Who can appoint a representative to an accident and investigation proceeding?

A

Anyone on request, providing the state of occurrence with information, facilities or expertise.

This can include numerous states and bodies from the state of manufacture, design, operator, and/or registry

127
Q

What does the EU council directive of 94/95 and a later directive of 2003/42 cover? What are the differences?

A

94/95 covers the adoption of ICAO annex 13 into national law. This is a must and is not a recommendation. This relates to accidents and incidents in EU territory and accidents and serious incidents of EU aircraft outside the EU.

2003/42 relates to occurrence reporting but which has not resulted in an accident or serious incident. The directive directs and urges the adoption of its SARPs but is not mandatory within law. It covers:

  • aircraft deviation from ATC clearance due to collision potential
  • low fuel
  • abnormal vibrations
  • wake turbulence
  • difficulty in controlling passengers

EU council directive 2003/42 was the forerunner to ICAO Annex 19 - safety management (introduced in 2014) and is in compliance with annex 19 for a state safety programme

128
Q

When is a initial notification sent to states and ICAO? When is the final report issued?

A

initial notification sent without delay to all appropriate parties, if occurrence is unaware of accident, it is the job of other states to notify appropriate states and occurrence state without delay. If the aircraft is in excess of 2250kg ICAO is also notified.

EU council directives say that the final report should be, if practical, deceived to appropriate states/parties within 12months of the date of accident. ICAO doesn’t specify a time span.

129
Q

What is the stopway defined as?

A

Rectangular area on the ground at the end of the TORA, prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take off

130
Q

In the aerodrome reference code what do the elements make up?

A

The field length matched against wing span and outer main gear wheel span. It is a number (1-4) followed by a letter (A-F)

131
Q

What is the TORA, TODA, ASDA and LDA?

A

Take off run available - the length of the rwy + displaced threshold
Take off distance available - TORA + clearway
Accelerated stop distance available - TORA + stopway
Landing distance available TORA +- displaced threshold (landing direction dependent)

132
Q

What information signs are displayed on an aerodrome?

A

Information signs - yellow or black background with yellow or black lettering

Mandatory signs - red background with white lettering

133
Q

How are CAT 2/3 holding positions marked?

A

Ladder type yellow marking, red lights across the taxi way and an mandatory instruction sign

134
Q

How will a intermediate holding position indicated?

A

It can be located wherever is needed and is indicate by a dotted line across the taxiway

135
Q

How are parallel runways marked?

A

2 - L and R
3 - L C R
4 - 09L 09R 10L 10R

136
Q

Annex 14 contains SARPs for what?

A

Aerodromes

137
Q

What is a barrette ?

A

Three or more aeronautical ground lights closely spaced in a transverse line so that from a distance they appear as a short bar of light

138
Q

Taxiway edge, centre line (other than exit) and central like at exit should be what colours?

A

Blue, green and green/yellow

139
Q

Information signs other than location signs shall be what colours?

A

Black inscriptions on yellow background

140
Q

Low intensity obstacle lights on vehicles associated with an emergency and those that are not are what colours?

A

Emergency - flashing blue

Non- emergency - flashing yellow

141
Q

High intensity obstacle lights should be what colour? Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects should be what colour?

A

Flashing white - 150m AGL

Fixed red are used to outline smaller structure in the vicinity of airfields

142
Q

What colours are the threshold and runway end lights? Are they direction orientated?

A

Runway end lights - red unidirectional

Threshold lights - green

143
Q

The light shown by the aerodrome identification beacon at a land aerodrome is what colour and transmitting what?

A

Green and flashing two letter morse code identifier

Land civil - green
Land military - red
Water civil - blue

144
Q

Which part of the AIP gives detailed info about refuelling facilities?

A

Part three: Aerodromes (AD)

Also gives info about: geographical data, services and facilities; aerodrome charts and runway characteristics

145
Q

What is a contracting sate to prepare as part of the aeronautical information service?

A

An integrated aeronautical information package. This includes:

  • AIP including an amendment service
  • supplements to the AIP
  • NOTAMs and PIBs
  • aeronautical information circulars
  • checklists and summaries
146
Q

A notice providing info on: rules of the air, ATS and air navigation procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is what?

A

AIRAC (Aeronautical information regulation and control) - an amendment to the AIP giving 28 days notice before the effective date of a change to operating procedures

147
Q

The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by whom?

A

Each contracting state

148
Q

Member states should introduce special security precautions for whom onboard a flight?

A

Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody - special categories of persons

149
Q

What happens if the mixing of passengers whoa have passed security control and those that haven’t?

A

Passengers and related luggage disembarked and security checked

150
Q

When member states allow police or security staff aboard that carry weapons what authorisation is required before carriage of these personnel and weapons?

A

Prior notification by the state of embarkation to foreign state in which weapons will be carried

Notification of the PIC of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried onboard his aircraft

151
Q

A straight departure from an aerodrome assumes what?

A

The departing aircraft will have a MOC of 0ft at the departure end of the runway as it uses the whole TORA and will maintain within 15 degrees of runway centre line

152
Q

What is the main factor affecting the design of a Instrument departure procedure ?

A

The terrain surrounding The aerodrome

153
Q

Flying an instrument departure procedure what are pilots expected to do?

A

Correct the track for known wind to remain within the protected airspace or primary area.

154
Q

What is the definition of a primary area as part of PANS-OPS 8168?

A

A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which minimum obstacle clearance is provided

155
Q

Turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track. What is this?

A

A procedure turn

156
Q

On a precision approach where does glide path interception occur?

A

300m (984ft) and 900m (2955ft)

157
Q

What is the radius and minimum obstacle clearance of the Minimum sector altitude?

A

25nm radius and min 300m (984ft) MOC within circle

158
Q

What are the phases of a missed approach?

A

Initial, intermediate and final

Initial - MAPt till climb initiated
Intermediate - from climb initiated till 50m MOC achieved
Final - from 50m (164ft) till new approach or return to enroute achieved

159
Q

What are the segments of an approach?

A

Arrival, initial, intermediate, final and missed approach

160
Q

The visual phase after completing an instrument approach to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway not suitable for a straight in is called?

A

Visual manoeuvring (circling)

161
Q

One of the conditions to descend below MDA on a circling approach is when?

A

The required visual reference have been established and can be maintained.

162
Q

ILS obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate by how much?

A

Half a scale deflection after being established on the track

163
Q

What is the transition level and who calculates it?

A

The TL is the lowest flight level above the transition altitude and is calculated by ATS due to pressure changes.

164
Q

When should QNH and SPS be used when climbing through and descending through the TA and TL?

A

Aircraft up to and below the TA should use QNH
Aircraft climbing through the TA should set SPS at the TA
Aircraft descending through the TL should set QNH at the TL

165
Q

What are the tolerances for altimeter pre flight checking?

A

0-30000ft altimeters - +- 60ft

0-50000ft altimeters - +- 80ft

166
Q

What is the minimum width of the NTZ

A

The no transgression zone is established in parallel runway operations and must be 610m or 2000ft wide

167
Q

When conducting independent parallel departures what is the distance radar aircraft must be monitored for?

A

2km or 1nm from the end of the runway

168
Q

How far in advance shall radar vectored aircraft be established onto the localiser? What is the maximum turn for this establishment?

A

2nm and not greater than 30 degrees

169
Q

For any parallel runway operations, what is the divergence of track for missed approaches?

A

Using an instrument approach and departure procedure in the same direction on parallel runways, the nominal tracks of the departure and missed approach procedure shall diverge by At least 30 degrees

ATPL Groundschool - Phase 1 (4 decks)

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