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King Air B200 > Aircraft General > Flashcards

Aircraft General Flashcards

1
Q

Under what categories can the aircraft fly?

A

Normal category

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2
Q

Under what conditions can the aircraft fly?

A

VFR, IFR and icing conditions

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3
Q

Describe the electrical system

A

28-VDC system, powered by a 24-volt, 42-amp lead acid gel battery, two 250-amp starter-generators or external power

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4
Q

Describe the operating inverters.

A

System DC power is provided to two operating inverters to provide 400-hertz, 115-volt and 26-volt AC power for various avionics.

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5
Q

What are the major DC buses?

A
  1. Hot battery bus
  2. Main battery bus
  3. Left generator bus
  4. Right generator bus
  5. Isolation bus
  6. No. 1 dual fed bus
  7. No. 2 dual fed bus
  8. No. 3 dual fed bus
  9. No. 4 dual fed bus
  10. Left avionics bus
  11. Right avionics bus
  12. # 1 inverter bus
  13. # 2 inverter bus
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6
Q

What powers the hot battery bus

A

The battery

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7
Q

What position must the BAT switch be in to power the hot battery bus?

A

The hot battery bus is powered regardless of the position of the BAT switch

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8
Q

What systems are powered by the hot battery bus?

A 
Engine fire extinguishers
firewall shutoff valves
entry and cargo lights
clocks
modifications
ground COMMunications
RNAV memory to older avionics
Battery relay
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9
Q

What switches control the generators, what are the switch positions and where are they located?

A

The GEN 1 and GEN 2 switches. There are three positions - ON, OFF and GEN RESET. Located under the MASTER SWITCH gang bar.

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10
Q

How are the generator buses connected?

A

Connected by two 325-amp current limiters on either side of the isolation bus.

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11
Q

When is the electrical system supplied by battery and the two generator power?

A

Always so long as the two isolation limiters are intact.

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12
Q

How are the four dual-fed buses powered?

A

By either generator bus through a 60-amp limiter, a 70-amp diode, and a 50-amp CB.

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13
Q

What do the four dual-fed buses provide power to?

A

Most DC-powered equipment.

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14
Q

What powers the inverters?

A

Powered directly from the generator buses and are controlled by the INVERTER selector switch.

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15
Q

Where is the external power socket?

A

Underside of the right wing, outboard of the engine nacelle.

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16
Q

Under what circumstances can the aircraft accept external power?

A

The airplane will accept DC power from a GPU provided the polarity is correct and the voltage is <32 volts. BATT switch must be ON

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17
Q

Where are the control switches for the exterior lights?

A

On the pilot’s right subpoena.

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18
Q

What does a red annunciator light indicate?

A

A fault that requires the pilot’s immediate attention and action

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19
Q

How long will a red annunciator light remain on?

A

They will remain illuminated until action is taken to correct the fault

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20
Q

What does an amber caution annunciator light indicate?

A

An amber caution requires the pilot’s immediate attention but not an immediate reaction.

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21
Q

What caution lights do not illuminate the master caution, and where can they be found?

A

The fuel panel caution lights, located on the fuel control panel on the pilot’s side.

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22
Q

How many tank systems are there and how are they connected?

A

Two - one for each engine. Connected by a crossed line.

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23
Q

What does each fuel tank system consist of?

A

Nacelle tank
Two wing leading-edge tanks
Two box sections bladder tanks
An integral wing tank

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24
Q

How are the main tank systems fed to the nacelle tanks?

A

Gravity fed

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25
Q

Where is the filler for each main tank family?

A

On the top of the wing near the wingtip

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26
Q

What does each auxiliary fuel system consist of and where is it located?

A

Aux tank inboard of each engine nacelle

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27
Q

How are the aux tanks filled

A

Through an overwing filler

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28
Q

How is aux tank fuel provided to the main tank system

A

Through an automatic fuel transfer system

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29
Q

When an aux tank contains fuel, which fuel is used first

A

The aux tank fuel is used first and is automatically transferred to the nacelle tank

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30
Q

How many fuel pumps are there per engine?

A

Three-
High-pressure fuel pump
Low-pressure boost pump
Standby boost pump in the bottom of each nacelle tank

31
Q

What three functions does the standby boost pump serve?

A
  1. To serve as a backup for the engine-driven fuel boost pump
  2. To pump aviation gas above 20,000ft
  3. To pump fuel during crossed
32
Q

Is crossfeed possible if the standby boost pump fails?

A

No, not on that side

33
Q

If aviation gasoline is used, what limitation is imposed before overhaul?

A

150 hours per engine

34
Q

Where are the two firewall shutoff valves?

A

On the pilot side fuel control panel

35
Q

Describe the engines

A

Two Pratt and Whitney PT6A engines rated for 850SHP. Each has a three-stage, axial flow single-stage centrifugal flow compressor which is driven by a single-stage reaction turbine.

36
Q

Describe the engines power turbine

A

Two-stage reaction turbine counter rotating with the compressor turbine

37
Q

How is fuel controlled in the engine

A

A pneumatic fuel control schedules fuel flow.

38
Q

How is prop speed controlled and does it remain constant?

A

Prop speed remains constant within the governing range for any given prop control lever position

39
Q

What does the accessory gearbox power and where is it?

A

The accessory gearbox is mounted at the rear of the engine and drives the fuel pumps, fuel control, oil pump, refrigerant compressor (right engine), starter-generator, and the N1 tachometer transmitter.

40
Q

How many sets of engine controls are there/

A

Three - the power levers, the prop levers and condition levers

41
Q

Describe the power levers

A

The power levers provide control of engine powered from FULL REVERSE through TAKEOFF power. Increasing N1 rpm results in increased engine power.

42
Q

Describe the prop levers

A

The prop levers operate springs to reposition the primary governor pilot valve, effecting an increase or decrease in prop rpm.

43
Q

What positions do the condition levers have?

A

FUEL CUTOFF
LOW IDLE
HIGH IDLE

44
Q

What is Ground Fine mode and how do you engage it?

A

When the power levers are lifted after of the IDLE detent, they control the angle of the props in the Ground Fine (Beta) mode, providing a near zero thrust setting

45
Q

When should prop reversing be carefully utilized and why?

A

On unimproved surfaces to prevent prop erosion from reversed airflow and in dusty or snowy conditions to prevent obscured vision.

46
Q

What does keeping the condition levers set to HIGH IDLE do?

A

Keeps the engine operating at a minimum of 70% N1 for quicker reversing response due to less spool up time

47
Q

When should the power levers not be moved over either gate and why?

A

When the engines are not running, or when the engines are running and the prop is feathered, because the reversing system will be damaged?

48
Q

How many fire-detections are there? Describe them

A

A temperature sensing cable for each engine. Each system has red warning annunciator readouts and a test function.

49
Q

Describe the bleed air system

A

Each engine compressor supplies bleed air for the pressurization and pneumatic systems.

50
Q

How do you get pressurization and environmental air?

A

Bleed air for pressurization is routed from the engine to a flow control unit then into the pressure vessel. This same air is conditioned for environmental use

51
Q

Where do you get pneumatic air?

A

Bleed air is tapped off prior to the flow control unit and is routed through a shutoff valve to a regulator.

52
Q

What is pneumatic air used for?

A

Used for surface deice, rudder boost, door seal, bleed-air warning system, flight hour meter, brake deice and landing gear hydraulic reservoir. Through the use a venturi, vacuum suction is developed for flight instruments, pressurization controller operation and deice boots.

53
Q

Can one engine develop enough bleed air for all associated systems?

A

Yes

54
Q

How does the bleed air warning system work?

A

The pressurization and pneumatic bleed-air lines have follower plastic tubing containing “regulated” (18psi) bleed air. if a bleed-air line ruptures, the released heat will melt the accompanying plastic tube and the loss of pressure will cause the respective L or R BLEED AIR FAIL light to illuminate.

55
Q

What is the proper procedure if a L or R BLEED AIR FAIL light illuminates

A

Place the bleed air for that system to the INSTR & ENVIR OFF position

56
Q

How is ice protection provided?

A

Electrically or pneumatically

57
Q

What is pneumatic ice protection provided for?

A

Surface deicing of wing and horizontal stabilizer leading edges and hot brakes

58
Q

What is electric ice protection provided for

A

Windshield, fuel vents, prop deicing, pitot mast heat and stall warning vane heat

59
Q

How is the engine deiced?

A

Hot engine gases are used for air inlet lip. Ice vanes are used which deflect entering airflow causing moist air to go through the discharge port.

60
Q

What type of system provides cabin air conditioning?

A

A refrigerant-gas-vapor cycle refrigeration system.

61
Q

Where is the air conditioning compressor mounted?

A

On the right engine accessory pad

62
Q

Where is refrigerant routed and why?

A

To the airplane nose where the condenser coil, receiver dryer, expansion and bypass valves, and evaporator are located.

63
Q

When is the air conditioning compressor deenergized?

A

Whenever the engine speed is below 62% N1

64
Q

What can occur if air conditioning is attempted when the air conditioning compressor is not energized?

A

An attempt to use air conditioning whenever engine below 62% N1 will illuminate the green AIR COND N1 LOW light. High or low refrigerant pressure will also trip the system and illuminate the reset switch light and require a reset of the switch in the nose gear wheel well.

65
Q

Where does the forward vent blower send air, and which vents are cool?

A

The forward vent blower sends recirculated air through the evaporator to the ducts. Ceiling outlet air will always be cool. Floor duct air is mixed with warm bleed air if the BLEED AIR valve is open.

66
Q

How is cabin air heated?

A

Compressed bleed air. After airplane is airborne, ambient air valves open and allow ambient air to mix with bleed air for increased density.

67
Q

How is ventilation provided when pressurized vs unpressurized

A

Bleed air can ventilate aircraft when pressurized or unpressurized. Fresh air can also ventilate cabin through ram air but only when unpressurized.

68
Q

When and how is electric heating used?

A

Used on ground when connected to GPU only. Both vent blowers must be operating when using the electric heater.

69
Q

What is the pressurization system designed to do?

A

Provide a normal working pressure differential (paid) when at flying altitude.

70
Q

How is pressurization provided and controlled?

A

Bleed air mixed with ambient air to form a suitable mixture. The flow control unit and BLEED AIR VALVE control the mixture. When set to OPEN, air routed through a heat exchanger and then into a mixing plenum. It mixes with recirculated air, is routed to the outlet ducts, and introduced into the cabin.

71
Q

What is the differential pressure on the B200?

A

6.5+- 0.1 psid

72
Q

What is the outflow valve and where is it?

A

The outflow valve controls the amount of pressurized air in the airplane. It is located on the aft pressure bulkhead.

73
Q

How is the outflow valve controlled?

A

Pressure and rate of cabin pressure changes are controlled by vacuum-operated modulation of the outflow valve.

74
Q

What are the four purposes of the vacuum-operated safety valve?

A
  1. Provide positive pressure relief if the outflow valve malfunctions.
  2. Allow depressurization when the pressure switch is moved to the DUMP position.
  3. Maintain an unpressurized state while on the ground with the left landing gear safety switch compressed.
  4. Prevent negative pressure differential.

King Air B200 (2 decks)

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