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Air warfare Flashcards

This flashcard deck was created using Flashcardlet's card creator

0
Q

What is the purpose of 3M?

A

Used for a managing maintenance on all ships, provides all maintenance and material managers in order to plan, acquire, organize, direct, control and evaluate the material resources, performs corrective and preventative maintenance.

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1
Q

What is IEM and what is the purpose of it?

A

Inactive Equipment Management

Provides PMS for equipment that has been inactive for Lon periods of time.

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2
Q

What is Corrective Maintenance?

A

Fixing failing, or damaged equipment.

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3
Q

What is Preventative Maintenance?

A

Routine maintenance

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4
Q

What is PMS?

A

Method of planning, scheduling or accomplishing preventative or routine maintenance.

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5
Q

How many types of maintenance are there?

A

Preventative, Corrective, PMS, IEM

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6
Q

What is the primary objective of 3M

A

To provide maximum equipment operational readiness.

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7
Q

How many fire stations are on board?

A

238

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8
Q

How portable CO2 extinguishers are on board?

A

1292

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9
Q

Internal Piping colors?

A 
Gasoline- yellow
JP-5- purple
Clean Fluid- brown
Oxygen- green
Refrigerant- dark purple
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10
Q

How many portable PKP extinguishers are on board?

A

139-18lbs

24-27lbs

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11
Q

How many portable AFFF extinguishers are on board?

A

20

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12
Q

How many repair and unit repair lockers are there?

A

10 repair

25 unit

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13
Q

How many nuclear reactors and main engines are on board?

A

2 nuclear reactors that serve 4 main engines

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14
Q

First line of text that give message classification in a naval message?

A

Classification/declassification line

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15
Q

ESD?

A

Electro-static discharge

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16
Q

FOD Program?

A

Identifies, corrects and eliminates casual factors which may damage aircraft

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17
Q

Difference between ejector racks and non-ejector racks?

A

Ejectors push weapons away

Non relies on gravity to separate

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18
Q

Volume 5

NAMP

A

Standard operating procedures

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19
Q

METCAL

A

Navy metrology and calibration program

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20
Q

AESR?

A

Aeronautical equipment service records

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21
Q

What is ASPA?

A

Depot level evaluation

Extends the service life of the aircraft for 12 months

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22
Q

PMIC used for what?

A

Identify scheduled or force removed items and their replacement intervals

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23
Q

SRC ?

A

Schedule removal components cards

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24
Q

Page 13?

A

Administrative remarks

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25
Q

DTG (date time group) used to identify the message?

A 
Expressed in greenwich mean time
6 digits: 1st 2-day
Next 4-time
Zone zuffix
Date and year
i.e 32 0800 z oct 98
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26
Q

Volume 3

NAMP

A

Maintenance days systems

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27
Q

CDQAR?

A

Collateral duty quality assurance rep.

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28
Q

What’s AMSU?

A

Screening point for all repairables inducted into the AIMD by squadron supply work centers

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29
Q

MOVEREP?

A

Movement report

Primary source of location info concerning ships

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30
Q

IM-1?

A

Admin

QA
Administration
Product control
Material control

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31
Q

Mobile air start systems?

A

Various aircraft are “air-started”

Use “huffers” to rotate turbines

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32
Q

AIMD?

A

Aircraft intermediate maintenance dept.

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33
Q

ICRL?

A

Individual component repair list

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34
Q

SDLM?

A

Special depot level maintenance

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35
Q

EAWS Qual is put where?

A

Page 4

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36
Q

BFIMA?

A

Battle force intermediate maintenance activity

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37
Q

CDI?

A

Collateral duty inspector

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38
Q

Sea otter?

A

Skilled technicians

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39
Q

NAVFLIRS?

A

Naval flight record subsystem

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40
Q

Basic function of ERT?

A

Process and track components through inspection and verify their operational status as RFI or BCM

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41
Q

Difference between scheduled and unscheduled maintenance?

A

Scheduled is periodic

Unscheduled is found during operations

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42
Q

ABO?

A

Aviators breathing oxygen

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43
Q

MAN?

A

Maintenance action number

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44
Q

Types of AAE?

A

Bomb Racks

Missile launchers

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45
Q

Function of BFIMA?

A

Maximize the battle forces ability to sustain itself at sea through improved repair capabilities and material self-sufficient and strength

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46
Q

PMIC?

A

Periodic maintenance info cards

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47
Q

ALSS items?

A 
Seat pants
LOX converters
Life rafts
O2 regulators
Parachutes
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48
Q

Basic engine test facility procedures location?

A

Engine MIM (maintenance instruction manual)

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49
Q

Page 2?

A

Record of emergency data

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50
Q

How many volumes are in the NAMP?

A

5

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51
Q

Purpose of monthly management plan?

A

Provides a schedule of predictable maintenance work

Prepared and distributed by the 25th of each month

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52
Q

IMA?

A

Intermediate maintenance activities

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53
Q

Levels of aviation maintenance?

A

Organizational
Intermediate
Depot

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54
Q

Duties of AIMD/IMA

A

Support air wing

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55
Q

NAMP purpose?

A

Insert into logbook to be used as a service record for various aircraft equipment

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56
Q

Who is authorized to sign aircraft logbook entries?

A

Anyone designated in writing by the CO

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57
Q

ASPA?

A

Aircraft service period adjustment

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58
Q

EDVR?

A

Enlisted distribution verification record

Monthly statement of activity

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59
Q

Requirements for good conduct?

A

No NJP
Court martial
No marks below 3.0

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60
Q

MIM?

A

Maintenance instruction manuals

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61
Q

AESR?

A

Aeronautical equipment service record

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62
Q

Volume 4

NAMP

A

Aviation 3M data processing requirements

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63
Q

AMSU uses what document for repair capabilities of AIMD?

A

ICRL

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64
Q

NAVPERS 1626/7?

A

Report and disposition of offense

Page 7 of service record that effect pay
Court memorandum

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65
Q

IM-3?

A

AV/ARM (avionics/armament)

Maintains AAE; fixes radios

Consist of electrical and armament equipment repair work centers

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66
Q

Aircraft spotting dolly?

A

Moves aircrafts around hangar

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67
Q

MMCO?

A

Maintenance material control officer

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68
Q

LOGREQ?

A

Logistical requirements

Summiteers Navy ship prior to entering a port to notify the proper commands of the visiting ships logistic requirements while visiting that port

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69
Q

MMCO?

A

Maintenance/material control officer

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70
Q

Central figure in today’s naval battle group?

A

Aircraft carrier

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71
Q

Aircraft logbook purpose?

A

Contains history of aircraft

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72
Q

CTPL?

A

Central technical publication library

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73
Q

Support equipment purpose?

A

Equipment required to make system operations in its intended environment

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74
Q

Daily inspections?

A

Valid for 72 hours
Aircrafts can be flown for 24hrs without another inspection
24hrs begins with the first launch

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75
Q

MCN?

A

Maintenance control number

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76
Q

MTIP?

A

Maintenance training improvement program

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77
Q

AAE stored where?

A

K-pool

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78
Q

AAE?

A

Aircraft armament equipment

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79
Q

IPB?

A

Illustrated parts breakdown

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80
Q

Ships that were constructed to operate in the rear echelon of the battle force?

A

Fleet repair ships

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81
Q

AESR purpose?

A

Service record for various aircraft equipment

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82
Q

What can ALSS not be exposed to?

A

Same temperature and humidity factors as other aircraft pool items

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83
Q

Page 4?

A

Enlisted qualifications history

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84
Q

Volume 1

NAMP

A 
Concepts
Policies
Organizations
Maintenance support procedures
Organizational and intermediate level maintenance
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85
Q

Concept of QA?

A

Prevention of the occurrence of defects

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86
Q

OSS?

A

On site storeroom

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87
Q

IM-2?

A

AIRFRAMES

Fixes a/c engines

Consist of power plants and life support work centers

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88
Q

AMO?

A

Assistant maintenance officer

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89
Q

Responsibilities of the maintenace officer?

A

Accomplishment of the department mission

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90
Q

Structure of AIMD?

A

AIMD officer- CDR Ferriera

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91
Q

PMS?

A

Planned maintenance system

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92
Q

2 people that can release an aircraft safe for flight?

A

MO
MMCO
Maintenance control officer

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93
Q

FCF?

A

Function check flight

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94
Q

What is found on the EDVR?

A 
Name
Rate
Date assigned
NEC
Billet assigned to
Date reported
PRD
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95
Q

Purpose of the naval message?

A

Principle means by which commander communicate.

Thoughts, ideas, or information expressed briefly and to the point.

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96
Q

Volume 2

NAMP

A

Depot level maintenance

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97
Q

QAR?

A

Quality assurance representative

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98
Q

ERT?

A

Emergency reclamation team

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99
Q

2 Phases of support equipment (SE) training and licensing program?

A

Phase 1- formal classroom training

Phase 2- required reading, OJT and tests

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100
Q

OPREP?

A

Operational report

Immediate report of accidental detonation of nuclear weapon

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101
Q

IM-4?

A

GSE- ground support equipment

Consist of ships support equipment licensing program

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102
Q

Aircraft crash crane?

A

Known as “TILLEY”

Removes debris from flight deck

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103
Q

AMSU?

A

Aeronautical material screening unit

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104
Q

Where are the engine test procedures outlined?

A

MIM (maintenance instruction manual)

MCR (maintenance requirement card)

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105
Q

SITREP?

A

Situation report

Bomb threat
EO violation
Sexual harassment

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106
Q

Name of the concept for repair on smaller ships on the carrier?

A

BFIMA

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107
Q

Sections of aircraft logbook?

A 
Miscellaneous history
Non-aging record
Inspection
Repair/rework
Technical directives
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108
Q

FOD?

A

Foreign object damage

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109
Q

MEPP (Support equipment)?

A

Mobile electric power plant

Mobile unit with diesel engine that turns a generator providing 115VAC and 28VDC for aircraft servicing and maintenance

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110
Q

When is the turnaround inspection performed?

A

24 hours or between flights

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111
Q

MMP?

A

Monthly maintenance plan

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112
Q

ICRL?

A

Individual component repair list

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113
Q

2 types of bomb racks?

A

Ejector racks

Non-ejector racks

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114
Q

MRC?

A

Maintenance requirement card

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115
Q

What is the WCS responsible for?

A

Hour-by-hour (day to day) functions in the work center

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116
Q

SEAOPDET purpose?

A

Supports the air wing

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117
Q

3rd degree burn?

A

Destroyed tissue
Skin and bone in severe cases
Severe pain may be absent due to nerve endings being destroyed

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118
Q

Heat stroke?

A

Breakdown of sweating mechanism

Symptoms: hot dry skin
uneven pupil dilation
weak/rapid pulse

Treatment: dose with cold water
place cold packs shoulders/neck/ankles/groin

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119
Q

Deep frostbite?

A

Ice crystals forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temp of 32 degrees or lower

Treatment: victim indoors; re-warm- place in warm water or with hot water bottles

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120
Q

Qualities that characterize the navy/marine corps?

A

Readiness
Flexibility
Self-sustainability
Mobility

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121
Q

Significance of the Coral Sea?

A

First carrier vs carrier battle

7-8 May 1942

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122
Q

Guadalcanal significance?

A

Sullivan brothers died-5

Policy concerning family member separations was re-installed

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123
Q

Name of first aircraft carrier?

A

USS Langley

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124
Q

Name of first naval aviator in space?

A

Alan Shepard

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125
Q

AFS?

A

Combat stores ship

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126
Q

ARS?

A

Rescue and salvage ship

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127
Q

AR?

A

Repair ship

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128
Q

Capstan?

A

Vertical cylinder; used to tighten ships mooring lines

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129
Q

Chain stopper?

A

Secure the anchor chain

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130
Q

What will the BMOW pass during abandon ship?

A

Bearing, distance to land, hostile or friendly, water temp.

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131
Q

Conning officer?

A

JOOD underway

Responsible for all steering and engineering orders

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132
Q

CHENG?

A

Engineering officer

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133
Q

DCA?

A

Damage control assistant

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134
Q

MCM?

A

Mine countermeasure ship

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135
Q

PC?

A

Patrol craft

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136
Q

SSN?

A

Submarine

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137
Q

Function of boilers?

A

Convert water into steam

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138
Q

Purpose of the electro-hydraulic steering gear?

A

Links the bridge helm with the ships steering plant

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139
Q

Chock?

A

Heavy fitting through which mooring lines are fed

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140
Q

Cleat?

A

Consist of horns for belaying lines

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141
Q

Open fracture?

A

“compound” fracture
Open wound in the tissue or skin
Protruding bone

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142
Q

Electric shock?

A

Look for twitching
If there is no power switch use broom handle

Treatment: artificial breathing- CPR no pulse

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143
Q

RO?

A

Reactor officer

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144
Q

How many lookouts on HST?

A

2 fantail

2 signal bridge

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145
Q

Difference between emergency and standard breakaways?

A

Procedures are performed at a more rapid sequence/pace

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146
Q

Flags?

A 
Bravo- Ordnance/fuels transfer
Oscar- Man overboard
Papa- Personnel Recall
Quebec- Boat Recall
Hotel- Helo ops
Foxtrot- Fixed-wing ops
Code & Alpha- Divers over the side
Kilo- personnel working aloft
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147
Q

Flashing light?

A

Letters and numbers broken down RO short/long flashes

Morse code format

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148
Q

What is the CHENG responsible for?

A

Ships machinery, damage and casualty control, repair of hull and machinery, power lighting, water maintenance, and underwater fittings

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149
Q

Emergency diesel generators (EDG’s)?

A

Diesel driven
4 HST
2 FWD EDG room
2 AFT EDG room

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150
Q

How is the steam supplied to the catapult systems?

A

Drawn from the reactor to the catapults steam receiver/accumulator then directed to the launch valves

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151
Q

Low Pressure compressed air?

A

125 psi
MMR
RAR

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152
Q

Absentee Pennents?

A

1st Sub.- Absence of embarked flag officer
2nd Sub.- Absence of chief of staff
3rd Sub.- Absence of CO
4th Sub.- Absence of civilian official

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153
Q

Purpose of ship’s navigation radar?

A

Used for safe navigation

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154
Q

Administrative bill?

A

How the ship will be run

Includes info. on routing request chit, watch standing

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155
Q

Emergency bill?

A

Instructions to be carried out during the emergency

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156
Q

First aid fundamentals?

A

Save life
Prevent further injuries
Prevent infection

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157
Q

How many pressure points on each side of the body?

A 
11
Jaw
Collar bone
Neck
Inner upper arm
Inner elbow
Wrist
Upper thigh
Groin
Knee
Ankle
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158
Q

How to treat shock victim?

A

Elevate feet 6-12 in.
Cover with blanket
Calm victim

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159
Q

2nd degree burn?

A

Red blistering skin

Severe pain

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160
Q

Heat exhaustion?

A

Serious disturbance of blood flow to the brain heart and lungs

Symptoms: skin cool moist and clammy
pupils dilated
subnormal body temp

Treatment: move victim to cool area
loosen clothing
apply cool cloths to head/groin/ankles

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161
Q

Superficial frostbite?

A

Ice crystals forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temp of 32 degrees or lower

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162
Q

Six areas of naval doctrine?

A 
Command and control
Operations
Warfare
Logistics
Intelligence
Planning
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163
Q

3 levels of war?

A

Tactical
Operational
Strategic

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164
Q

Battle of Midway significance?

A

Turning point of the Pacific war

3-5 June 1942

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165
Q

Significance of 8 May 1911?

A

Navy ordered 1st plane

Birthdate of naval aviation

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166
Q

Name of first jet powered naval aircraft?

A

FJ-1 Fury

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167
Q

AD?

A

Destroyer tender

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168
Q

ATF?

A

Fleet ocean tugs

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169
Q

ASR?

A

Submarine rescue ship

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170
Q

AS?

A

Submarine tender

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171
Q

Characteristics of an anchor chain?

A 
Length- 1080 feet
12 shots
15 fathoms= 1 shot
Mark 2 stockless
Fathom= 6 feet
1 shot= 90 feet
Each shot connected by detachable link
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172
Q

3 types of replenishment at sea?

A

UNREP- transfer fuels from one ship to another
VERTREP- helicopters transfer cargo between ships while underway
CONREP- 2 or more ships side by side connected

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173
Q

Duties of the OOD?

A

Safe navigation; CO’s reps, ensures all shipboard evolutions are carried out

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174
Q

MHC?

A

Coastal mine hunters

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175
Q

MPA?

A

Main Propulsion Assistant

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176
Q

SSBN?

A

Ballistic missile submarine

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177
Q

Function of evaporators?

A

De-salinate seawater
4 total- 6 stage, flash type
Provide 100,000 gal/day

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178
Q

Bit?

A

Secure mooring lines

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179
Q

3 types of chocks?

A

Open, closed and roller

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180
Q

Closed fracture?

A

“simple” fracture
Internal
No break in skin

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181
Q

Hypothermia?

A

Cooling of body caused by exposure

Symptoms: pale/unconscious
Slow and shallow breathing
Pulse faint/undetectable
Tissue feels semi-rigid

Treatment: bring body temp to normal
Wrap in warm blankets

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182
Q

Boatswain’s mate of the watch?

A

In charge of the enlisted bridge watch team

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183
Q

Quartermaster of the watch?

A

Responsible to the OOD

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184
Q

3 common types of man-overboard recovery?

A

Shipboard- least preferred
MWB or HRIB
Helo- preferred

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185
Q

Day Shapes?

A

Ball-diamond-ball: restricted maneuvering
Ball-ball-ball: vessel aground
Ball: ship is at anchor

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186
Q

Semaphore?

A

Use of hand flags to communicate to other ships

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187
Q

What is the RO responsible for?

A

Operations and maintenance of reactor

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188
Q

Damage control assistant?

A

Assist the CHENG concerning ship’s damage control efforts

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189
Q

Main Propulsion Assistant?

A

Assist the RO concerning ship’s propulsion plants

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190
Q

High pressure compressed air?

A

4200 psi
MMR
4th Deck

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191
Q

Ship’s service turbine generator’s (SSTG’s)?

A

Provides electricity throughout the ship
Driven by turbines
4 HST
2 in each MMR

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192
Q

FURUNO antanna?

A

Used for costal navigation

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193
Q

Operational bill?

A

Specific evolutions by ship’s company

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194
Q

4 categories of special bills?

A

Anti-sneak/swimmer attack
Civilian evacuation
POW
Troop lift

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195
Q

Methods of controlling bleeding?

A

Direct pressure
Elevation
Pressure points
Last resort- tourniquet

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196
Q

Shock?

A 
Vacant eyes
Shallow breathing
Cold moist pale skin
Nausea
Weak pulse
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197
Q

1st degree burn?

A

Mildest
Tenderness
Mild pain
Increased warmth

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198
Q

What CBU is onboard HST?

A

CBU-99

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199
Q

Name of the auto-injector used for nerve agent casualties?

A

Atropine/2-PAM chloride (oxime)

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200
Q

What can the SH-60B suspend and deliver?

A

Penguin missile, hellfire missile, m-60 machine gun

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201
Q

EMP?

A

Electromagnetic pulse

Produced by high altitude, air and surface bursts

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202
Q

What missile is the AGM-84?

A

Harpoon
Low-level cruise trajectory
Less susceptible to detection

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203
Q

MOPP 3?

A

New filters on masks
Don chemical protective with hood down, trousers, and over boots
Go to GQ
Set material condition zebra

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204
Q

Hung ordnance?

A

Failed to properly release or fire

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205
Q

What are the 2 basic types of rockets that are fired from pods that the navy uses?

A
  1. 75 inch mighty mouse (2 variants)

5. 0 inch Zuni

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206
Q

Gray with red bands?

A

Irritant (harassing agent)

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207
Q

Non-Nuclear Ordanace/Explosive Handling Qualifacation Program?

A

Instituted in 1968

Ordnance certification is valid for 12 months

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208
Q

AWSEP?

A

Aviation weapons support equipment

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209
Q

Which part of a bomb allows it fall in a smooth definite curve to the target?

A

Fin assembly

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210
Q

White?

A

Illuminating ammo

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211
Q

What is considered HERO susceptible?

A

Adversely affected by RF energy resulting in unsafe or unreliable ordnance

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212
Q

F-14 Tomcat?

A

Primary weapon: Pheonix (aim-54) missile

Load-out: 2-4 Pheonix
2 sidewinders
2 sparrow

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213
Q

NATO?

A

North Atlantic treaty organization

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214
Q

G2?

A

Amore division

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215
Q

AIM-7F Sparrow II?

A

Supersonic air-to-air guided missile

Intercept and destroy enemy aircraft in all weather conditions

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216
Q

Characteristics of the 50 caliber mounts?

A 
10 mounts
360 degree circle
Max range 7400 yd
Effective range 2000 yd
400-500 rpm
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217
Q

What does G5 consist of?

A

Weapons admin
Aviation weapons movement control station
ROLMS

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218
Q

M61A1 20MM gun system?

A 
6-barrel, rotary action mechanism gun
4000 rpm (low)
6000 rpm (high)
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219
Q

Targets the CIWS is designed to engaged?

A

Anti-ship cruise missile

Fixed-wing aircraft

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220
Q

G3 division members know as?

A

Mag rats

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221
Q

Surface combatants’ ships are equipped with what 2 missile direction systems?

A

Terrier

Tarter

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222
Q

Ground Safety Officer?

A

Principle advisor to the CO on all ground safety matters

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223
Q

What detection system provides early warning of approaching air/missile targets?

A

E-2C hawkeye

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224
Q

AIM-120 is which missile?

A

AMRAAM

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225
Q

DATM?

A

.

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226
Q

All Hands?

A

Familiarize themselves with safety regulations and instructions applicable to themselves and their assigned duties

227
Q

SPS-48?

A

3D, provide range, bearing and elevation

228
Q

S-3B?

A

Usw fixed-wing carrier based jet

229
Q

Class C mishaps?

A

Material property damage or $10K- $200K
Non-fatality injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day or shift on which it occurred
Non-fatal illness or disease that causes loss of time

230
Q

Which carrier-based jet has missions that include attack of submarines, mining, tactical refueling?

A

S-3B viking

231
Q

What is that purpose of a safety stand down?

A

Used to devote time to safety training, awareness, and enhancement of the command safety climate

232
Q

What are the 2 methods of mine activation?

A

Contact and influence

233
Q

Air-launched, surface-attack guided missile types?

A 
AGM-65  Maverick
AGM-84A-D  Harpoon
AGM-84E  Slam
AGM-88  HARM
AGM-119  Penguin
AGM-120  Sidearm
234
Q

Define radiological warfare?

A

Deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce injury or death

235
Q

Name 3 different search detection systems?

A

SPS-67; rascal; FURUNO

236
Q

Types of CBU’s?

A

MK-20, CBU99/100 Rockeye
CBU-59
CBU-78 Gator

237
Q

What is the IM-143?

A

Pocket dosimeter

238
Q

What can the p-3 suspend and deliver?

A

Sidearm missile

239
Q

What is a blackout?

A

Loss of lights or electrical power failure during a nuclear attack

240
Q

What missile is the AGM-88?

A

High-speed anti-radiation missile (harm)

241
Q

MOPP 4?

A

Don gas mask

Secure hook over head

242
Q

Unexpended Ordanace?

A

Ordnance that was loaded, but was never expanded by the aircrew

243
Q

What size round does the m60 machine gun use?

A

7.62 mm

Range plate is marked for 100 meter increments for 300 meters to maximum effective range of 1,100 meters

244
Q

Black?

A

Armor piercing ammo

245
Q

AIr-launched intercepted-arial guided missile types?

A

AIM-7 Sparrow
AIM-9 Sidewinder
AIM-54 Pheonix
AIM-120 AMRAAM

246
Q

OHO?

A

Ordnance handling officer

247
Q

3 types of general purpose bombs?

A

MK 82- 500lbs
MK 83- 1000lbs
MK 84- 2000lbs

248
Q

What does EMCON do?

A

Prevent enemy ships aircraft from locating us through their passive detection systems

249
Q

F/A-18 Hornet?

A

Loadout: sidewinder and sparrow

250
Q

CIWS?

A

Close-in weapon system

251
Q

G3?

A

Magazine division

252
Q

AIM-9L sidewinder?

A

Supersonic air-to-air weapon
Contains: passive infrared target detection
proportional navigation guidance
torque balanced control system

253
Q

Characteristics of the NSSMS?

A

1 launcher with 8 missiles

2 directors per system

254
Q

Under G5 admin what is ordnance control?

A

Aviation weapon movement control station

Controls the movement of all ordnance onboard

255
Q

What is the forward-deployed portion of any airborne strike?

A

E-2 C Hawkeye

256
Q

Primary objective of the naval aviation safety program?

A

Preserve human and material resources

257
Q

Division responsible for training ships crew on firearms?

A

G2

258
Q

AIM-7F is which missile?

A

Sparrow

259
Q

Department Head?

A

Coordinates the department’s safety program with the unit’s Safety Officer and supervises the department’s division safety officer

260
Q

HERO?

A

Hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordnance

261
Q

Which detection system monitors the ocean for surfaces, subsurface, and airborne contacts?

A

Surface combatants’ ship

262
Q

CV FTAS?

A

CV fast time analyzer system

263
Q

What contributes to aviation mishaps?

A

Human error
Maintenance and support factors
Administrative and supervisory factors
Environmental factors

264
Q

CDC?

A

Combat direction center

Collect evaluate and disseminate tactical info

265
Q

Class D mishaps?

A

Material property damage of less than $10K

266
Q

Which carrier-based aircraft is capable of suspension and delivery of mines?

A

F/A-18 hornet

267
Q

5 steps of ORM?

A 
Identify hazards
Assess hazards
Make risk decisions
Implement control
Supervise
268
Q

What position does a moored mine take in the water?

A

Connected by a cable to an anchor resting on the bottom

269
Q

Ship-launched, intercept-aerial guided missile types?

A

RIM-7 NATO sea sparrow

270
Q

MCU-2/P protective mask?

A

Gas mask

Protect against CBR agents

271
Q

What can the f-14 suspend and deliver?

A

General purpose and m61a1 20 mm gun system

272
Q

What are 3 types of TALD vehicles?

A

A/B37U-1(V)1, chaff vehicle
A/B37U-1(V)2, RF vehicle
ADM-141 A, RF vehicle

273
Q

What is the DT-60?

A

Personnel dosimeter

274
Q

What aircraft is capable of carrying a walleye weapon?

A

F/A-18 hornet

275
Q

MOPP?

A

Mission oriented protective posture

276
Q

What missile is the AGM-119b?

A

Penguin
Launched from the SH-60b lamps helicopter
First helo missile system

277
Q

High altitude air burst is a nuclear explosion above what altitude?

A

100,000 ft

278
Q

Yellow high explosive (HE)?

A

Found on warhead sections

2 yellow band indicate thermal protected ordnance

279
Q

CBU?

A

Cluster bomb unit

280
Q

Which part of the bomb assembly contains the HE charge?

A

Bomb body

281
Q

Light green?

A

Smoke or “marker” ammo

282
Q

What is considered HERO unsafe?

A

Highly likely to ignite a detonation

283
Q

What is the primary fire control radar onboard HST?

A

MK-23 target acquisition system

284
Q

What is contained in the MK20 cluster bomb unit?

A

247 MK 118 antitank bombs

285
Q

What is the purpose of doing a stray voltage check?

A

Ensure that no electrical charges exist within the aircraft’s firing circuits

286
Q

ECM?

A

Electronic countermeasures

287
Q

G4?

A

Weapon elevator division

288
Q

AIM-54C Pheonix?

A

Long-range air-to-air guided homing missile
Only launched from F-14
6 max launched with miscellaneous against separated targets

289
Q

Characteristics of the CIWS?

A

20 mm gattling-gun system/phalanx
4500 rpm
Magazine capacity is 1550 rounds
4 mounts

290
Q

Under G5 admin what is ROLMS?

A

Ammo accounting responsible for keeping track of all ammo received transferred or expended

291
Q

ECM has what 2 types?

A

Active

Passive

292
Q

Safety responsibilities of the CO?

A

Require that persons are instructed and drilled in all safety precautions and procedures, that they are complied with, and those applicable safety precautions are posted

293
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining and monitoring all applicable programs such as tool control?

A

Quality assurance

294
Q

AIM-9L is which missile?

A

Sidewinder

295
Q

EMCON?

A

Emissions control

296
Q

Division Officer?

A

Ensure that personnel comply with all safety instructions

297
Q

ECM is designed to do what?

A

Prevent the enemy of their use of radio transmitting systems

298
Q

ASROC?

A

Anti-submarine rocket system

299
Q

Class A mishaps?

A

Material property damage of $1 million or more

An injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability

300
Q

MK-46 torpedo?

A 
Primary weapon used in asw
Search for, detect, attack and destroy submarines
Salt-water activated
Uses OTTO II fuel
Launched from any # of aircraft
301
Q

AVGFE?

A

Aviation gas-free engineering program

302
Q

What does the H-60 helicopter use to detect, track, localize and attack USW targets?

A

Sonobuoys

303
Q

Type of weapon elevators?

A

Upper stage- 3

Lower stage- 6

304
Q

AMRAAM?

A

Advanced medium range air to air missile

305
Q

Define chemical warfare?

A

Intentional use of lethal or non-lethal chemical agents to produce casualties

306
Q

What aircraft can the MK-46 torpedo be launched from?

A

Helicopter or fixed-wing aircraft

307
Q

ATM?

A

Air-launched, training guided missile

308
Q

What do the mask not do?

A

Provide oxygen

Protect from: smoke, carbon monoxide (dioxide), ammonia

309
Q

What can the EA-6B suspend and deliver?

A

HARM missile

310
Q

TALD provides what?

A

False imagery

311
Q

What are the 4 types of chemical casualty agents?

A

Choking, nerve, blood, blister

312
Q

What type of guidance system does a AGM-65 marerick missile have?

A

Laser or IR guided
AGM-65e
AGM-65f
Used against fortified ground installations, armored vehicles, and surfaces combatants

313
Q

MOPP 2?

A

Gas masks are carried by each person onboard

314
Q

AGM-122a missile?

A

Sidearm missile

Used to destroy or disable enemy radar

315
Q

Brown?

A

Indicates presence of explosive
Normally a propellant
Can function as a low explosive or to be particularly hazardous to the user

316
Q

TALD?

A

Tactical air-launched decoy

317
Q

Light blue?

A

Inert training or firing practice ammo

318
Q

Low-level cruise trajectory, anti-ship missile?

A

Harpoon

319
Q

Light red?

A

Incendiary ammo

320
Q

What is considered HERO safe?

A

Items not susceptible to RF energy

321
Q

What does the MK-23 TAS do?

A

Controls the NATO sea sparrow missl

322
Q

What are the 3 folding fin aircraft rockets?

A

Mighty mouse and Zuni

323
Q

EOD?

A

Explosive ordnance disposal

324
Q

RBOC?

A

Rapid blooming outboard chaff

325
Q

G5?

A

Administration

326
Q

AIM-120 AMRAAM?

A

Advanced medium range air to air missile

Replacement for sparrow

327
Q

Type of gun that the CIWS use?

A

M-61a1 gattling

328
Q

What is the weapons officer known as?

A

Gun boss

329
Q

A surface combatants’ ships can link data to be displayed in what center of each ship?

A

Combat direction center

330
Q

Aviation Safety Officer?

A

Principle advisor to the CO on all aviation safety matters

331
Q

ECM?

A

Electronic countermeasure

332
Q

AIM-54C is which missile?

A

Pheonix

333
Q

CATM?

A

Captive carry missile

334
Q

Safety Petty Officer?

A

Ensures that personnel are instructed in all safety matters and are familiar in safety instructions

335
Q

SPS-49?

A

2D; provide counter jamming

336
Q

H-60?

A

Usw helicopter

337
Q

Class B mishaps?

A

Material property damage of $200,000 or more but less than $1 million
An injury or occupational illness results in permanent partial disability
3 or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized

338
Q

What direction system collects pertinent tactical info regarding undersea contacts?

A

CDC

339
Q

What is the objective of the AVGFE program?

A

Ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel system

340
Q

Which torpedo is used against sophisticated subs?

A

MK-50

341
Q

Define biological warfare?

A

Using living organisms to disable or destroy people, livestock, crops, and/or to deteriorate their supplies

342
Q

G1?

A

Hangar bay and flight deck ordnance, (AWSEP)

343
Q

HARM?

A

High-speed anti-radiation missile

344
Q

AG?

A

Aerographer’s mate

Weather forecast

345
Q

PR?

A

Aircrew survival equipment man

346
Q

CG SHIP?

A

Guided missile cruiser

347
Q

How long can flash blindness last?

A

30 sec.

348
Q

FFG SHIP?

A

Guided missile frigates

349
Q

LHD SHIP?

A

Amphibious warfare ship

350
Q

SPN-41?

A

Bullseye system

Used in conjunction with precision approach and landing systems (PALS)

351
Q

EMCON?

A

Restricts the use of electronic systems to deny info to the enemy for determining the location of the carrier

352
Q

Case 2 L/R?

A

May encounter instrumental condition

Visibility 1,000 ft 5 nm respectively

353
Q

Carrier Quals?

A

Qualify abs re-qualify pilots

Launch recover is done at the same time

354
Q

MCS SHIP?

A

Mine countermeasure support ship

USS INCHON

355
Q

In-flight observation is know as?

A

Check ride

356
Q

What is CVW-3 tail designation?

A

AC

357
Q

3 primary movements of an aircraft about the axis?

A

Pitch
Roll
Yaw

358
Q

What is Freddie?

A

ASW tactical air controller

359
Q

What does lightning do to make it so dangerous?

A

Flash blindness
Structure damage
Damage to electronic system

360
Q

What are the 3 areas that CATCC is organized into?

A

Air operations (Air Ops)

361
Q

CVIC?

A

Collects, evaluates, and disseminates info including briefs/debriefs pilots prior to and following missions

362
Q

Air ops officer?

A

Responsible to the operations officer for the coordination of all matters pertaining to aircraft operations

363
Q

PALS?

A

Precision approach and landing system

364
Q

FLEX DECK stands for?

A

Able to launch and recover aircraft at short or irregular intervals of time
The normal cyclic interval of 90 minutes is typically reduced to between 40 and 60 minutes

365
Q

Who signs the air plan?

A

OPSO, air OPSO, Strike Officer

366
Q

Purpose of the NATOPS evaluation?

A

Evaluate individual and unit compliance with grading through written test and check ride

367
Q

Will?

A

Futurnity

368
Q

What is the info on the NAVFLIRS?

A

Flight data on each aircraft

369
Q

Should?

A

Recommended

370
Q

Events on the air plan?

A

Types of missions
Type of aircraft
Schedule to launch/recover
Sunrise and sunset time

371
Q

Define TARPS?

A

Photographic cameras mounted in a “pod” and carried on properly configured f-14 aircraft

372
Q

VAQ-130?

A

Dragons
Call sign- zappers
Ea-6b prowlers

373
Q

Under the carrier CO and the air wing commander, who maintains the squadron organization?

A

Squadron CO

374
Q

What aircraft carries the “pod”?

A

F-14

375
Q

Marshal control?

A

Control of inbound a/c during Case 1,2,3

376
Q

What is the overall responsibility of air ops?

A

Makes real-time decisions necessary for safe and efficient aircraft launch and recovery
Control assigned aircraft
Manages tanker assests

377
Q

AFCS?

A

Automatic flight control system

378
Q

CATCC?

A

Carrier air traffic control center

379
Q

Who is the air wing commander?

A

CAG

380
Q

VFA-37?

A

Raging bulls

Call signs- gypsies

381
Q

What happens when ice forms on an aircraft?

A

Decreased lift

Increased drag

382
Q

What is the TYCOM lettering system for COMNAV AIRLANT? (on tail of airwing)

A

A-M first character

A-Z second character

383
Q

Define carrier control area?

A

A circular airspace within a radius of 50 nm around the carrier

384
Q

What is the squadron name for VF-32?

A

Swordsmen

385
Q

AK?

A

Aviation storekeeper

386
Q

AE SHIP?

A

Ammunition ship

387
Q

CV/CVN SHIP?

A

Carrier/nuclear powered carrier

388
Q

LCC SHIP?

A

Amphibious command ship

389
Q

Warning?

A

Result in injury or death

390
Q

LPD SHIP?

A

Amphibious assault ship

391
Q

PALS?

A

Precision approach and landing system

Enables pilots to preform instrument approaches under either man. or auto control

392
Q

Purpose of rescuing aircraft crew members who may go down during ops?

A

Mission of plans guard helicopter-SAR

393
Q

Ramp time?

A

Launch times are fixed but recovery times are not
Case 3
Calculated by Air Boss

394
Q

Shall?

A

Mandatory

395
Q

NAVFLIRS form #?

A

OPNAV 3710/4

396
Q

What is TYCOM lettering system for CNATRA? (training)?

A

A-G first character

No second character

397
Q

Break time?

A

Case 3

398
Q

Responsibilities of LSO?

A

Visual control of aircraft in the terminal phase of the final approach and landing

399
Q

ATO?

A

Responsible to air ops officer for the safe and orderly handling of all COD/VOD passengers, mail, cargo arriving and departing the carrier

400
Q

What are the position in CCA?

A

Departure control
Marshal control
Approach control
Final control

401
Q

What is strike ops responsible for?

A

Planning daily aircraft operations to support the requirement of the battle group commander

402
Q

CATCC is responsible for airspace within what radius of the carrier?

A

50nm

403
Q

What is the CDC?

A

Major function of CDC is mission-control of airborne aircraft
Executes tactical orders during battles

404
Q

Pilots experience electrostatic discharges at altitudes of how many feet?

A

43,000 ft

405
Q

Data found in NAVFLIRS?

A 
Aircraft bureau number
Name, rate/rank, SSN, crew position
logistics actions
Weapon proficiency
Training areas
406
Q

Who is the air plan drafted by?

A

Strike ops

407
Q

VF-32?

A

Swordsmen

Call sign- gypsies

408
Q

VAW- 126?

A

Seahawks
Call sign- closeout
E-2c hawkeye

409
Q

What is the responsibility of CATCC?

A

Control of aircraft operating within the carrier control area

410
Q

METOC?

A

Meteorology and oceanography

411
Q

Approach control?

A

Control of aircraft on approach during Case 2,3

412
Q

Name the positions manned in air ops?

A

Air Operations watch officer
Air ops plotter
Status board keeper
Land/Launch recorder

413
Q

What does METOC do?

A

Collects, interprets and disseminates weather info

414
Q

VMFA-115?

A

Silver eagles
Call sign- blades
F/A- 18 hornets

415
Q

NAVFLIRS?

A

Naval flight records subsystem

416
Q

APC?

A

Approach power componsator

417
Q

AD?

A

Aviation machinist mate

Fix aircraft engines

418
Q

AM?

A

Aviation structure mechanic
AMS- structure
AMH- hydraulics
AME- engress system

419
Q

AO/AOE SHIP

A

Oilers/oiler and ammunition support ships

420
Q

DD/DDG SHIP?

A

Destroyer/guided missile destroyer

Speed and mobility is their best protection

421
Q

Case 1 L/R?

A

Will not encounter instrument condition

Visibility 3,000 ft and 5 nm respectively

422
Q

Bullseye?

A

Refers to the Independent Landing Monitor (ILM)

AN/SPN - 41

423
Q

3 components of PALS?

A

APC- approach power compensator

AFCS- auto flight control system

424
Q

CQ?

A

Carrier Qualification

425
Q

Cyclic operations?

A

Flight ops conducted in cycles
Aircraft are launched and recovered in groups
Groups referred as events

426
Q

2 spaces responsible for control of airborne aircraft?

A

CDC

CATCC

427
Q

LHA SHIP?

A

Amphibious assault ship

428
Q

LSD SHIP?

A

Dock land ship

429
Q

CAUTION?

A

Result in damage to equipment

430
Q

Note?

A

Must be emphasized

431
Q

What is the TYCOM lettering system for COMNAV AIRPAC?

A

N-Z first character

A-Z second character

432
Q

NATOPS?

A

Naval air training and operating procedures standardization

433
Q

Case 3 L/R?

A

Will encounter instrument condition

Below 1,000 or 5nm respectively; a nighttime departure or recovery

434
Q

METOC?

A

Interprets and disseminates weather info

435
Q

Departure control?

A

Control of departing aircraft during Case 1,2,3

436
Q

Who writes the air plan?

A

Strike operations officer

437
Q

CCA is responsible for?

A

Operational control of aircraft departing the ship and recovery of inbound aircraft

438
Q

Purpose of master files?

A

All NAVFLIRS for each aircraft
Chronological record
Official record

439
Q

What is the difference between cyclic and flex deck?

A

90 min. to 40-60 min. intervals

440
Q

TARPS?

A

Exclusive to F-14

441
Q

LSO?

A

Landing signal officer

442
Q

NAVFLIRS?

A

Single source document for recording flight data

443
Q

VS-22

A

Checkmates
Call sign- vidar
S-3 Viking

444
Q

HS-7?

A

Dusty dogs
Call sign- dusty
SH-60 sea hawk

445
Q

Define turbulance?

A

Disturbed flow in the atmosphere

446
Q

NAVFLIRS is known as the?

A

Yellow sheet

447
Q

May?

A

Optional

448
Q

CVIC?

A

Carrier Intelligence center

449
Q

CATCC?

A

Control of aircraft operating within the carrier control area
50nm around the carrier

450
Q

Final control?

A

Control of aircraft on final approach during Case 3

451
Q

What is one of the worst hazards of thunderstorm flying?

A

Hail

452
Q

Modules in CDC?

A 
EW
SW
USW
AW
D&T
D&D
TOP
453
Q

CAW?

A

Carrier air wing

454
Q

VFA- 105?

A

Gunslingers

Call sign- canyon

455
Q

TARPS?

A

Tactical air reconnaissance pod system

456
Q

EMCON?

A

Emission control

457
Q

General aircraft precautions?

A 
Chock
In-take screen
FOD
Tied down
Fire extenguisher
458
Q

DRO?

A

Data readout

459
Q

What is the distance of responsibility CATCC has around the carrier?

A

50 nm

460
Q

2 leading causes of weather-related aircraft accidents and incidents?

A

Lightning strikes

Electrostatic discharges

461
Q

NMCS?

A

Not mission capable supply

462
Q

AVDLR?

A

Aviation depot level repairables

463
Q

AVCAL?

A

Aviation consolidated allowance list

464
Q

Forms that are in the flight packet?

A 
DD 1348
SF 44 purchased order/invoice/voucher
DD 1896 or DD 1897
SF 94 statement of witness
SF 95 claim of damage or injury
OPNAV 4790/60 VIDS/MAF
Turnaround and daily MRC cards
Fuel sample sheets
Oil sample sheets
465
Q

Who is the CHENG?

A

CDR

466
Q

Who is the MCPON?

A

CMDCM Kemp

467
Q

CO of HST?

A

Captain Roth

468
Q

CCS?

A

Component control section

469
Q

AMRR?

A

Aircraft material readiness report

470
Q

CNO?

A

Senior military officer in the DON; principle advisor to the president and SECNAV

471
Q

Senior enlisted advisor to the president on the conduct of war?

A

MCPON

472
Q

Who is the RO?

A

Captain

473
Q

DD Form 200?

A

Financial liability investigation of property loss

Used when government property is lost, damaged, or destroyed

474
Q

Items that can be bought with OFC-01 funds (flight operations fund)?

A

Aviation fuels/oil
Flight clothing and flight operational equipment
Consumable supplies for aviation squadron

475
Q

XO of HST?

A

CDR Hannifin

476
Q

4 units of CCS?

A

DCU- document control unit
AWP- awaiting parts unit
LRCA- local repair cycle assets
SSU- supply screening unit

477
Q

What is DCU responsible for?

A

Ensures all material is correct before it goes to AIMD.

Paperwork must match.

478
Q

SSC?

A

Supply support center

479
Q

SM&R?

A

Source
Maintenance
Recoverability

480
Q

When HAZMAT is identified, whom do you notify?

A

DCC

Quarterdeck

481
Q

Define AWP?

A

No work can be performed due to lack of ordered parts

482
Q

EXREP?

A

Expeditious repair

483
Q

AWP?

A

Awaiting parts

484
Q

What is FEDLOG?

A

Interactive database located on the ships LAN providing researcher with parts data from Federal Government Supply System

485
Q

What form is the DD 1348?

A

Single line item requisition system document

486
Q

RAM?

A

Repairable asset management

487
Q

Define HM?

A

Hazard to human health/ environment when purposely released or accidentally spilled

488
Q

MCPON?

A

Senior enlisted rep. of the navy; acts as the senior enlisted advisor to the CNO

489
Q

Who orders AVDLRs?

A

Individual IMA work centers

490
Q

SECNAV?

A

Civilian; responsible for the policies and control of the DON

491
Q

LRCA assets?

A

Items in the rotating pool that can be repaired on board

492
Q

What is the COC through the SECNAV and the CNO to the operating forces called?

A

Administrative

493
Q

Specified Command?

A

Has a broad continuing mission, but it is composed of forces from one service

494
Q

6 Fleet Master Chiefs?

A 
Fleet m/c pacific fleet
Atlantic fleet
Naval forces Europe 
Material command
Shore activities
Naval education and training
495
Q

Purpose of MSDS?

A

Contains info about materials
Health and safety hazards
Precautions for safe handling and use

496
Q

How many force master chiefs do we have?

A

22

497
Q

What is the responsibility of RAM unit?

A

Maintain custody of high-cost, pilfer-able items and AVDLRS

498
Q

Flight operations fund (OFC-01) is used from?

A

Flight operations OPTAR

499
Q

Secondary storage of HAZMAT when removed form the original container must have?

A

Approved containers

Precaution dry labeling

500
Q

What does AMRR provide?

A

Snap shot as to the readiness of the Carrier Air Wing

501
Q

What is SSC/ASD composed of?

A

SRS- supply response section

CCS- component control section

502
Q

How often are non-flammable materials inspected?

A

Quarterly

503
Q

2 disposable that should stay seperate at all cost?

A

Synthetic

Petroleum fuels

504
Q

AVDLR?

A

Aviation depot level repair

505
Q

SSC is referred to as what?

A

Aviation support division

506
Q

6 units of SRS?

A

SLU- stock locator unit
MDU- material delivery unit
Function: pick-up/delivery

RCU- requisition control unit
Function: receives request for supplies

TRU: technical research unit
Function: verifies data on requisitions

PEB- pre-expended bin
PMU- program management unit
Function: process and expedite high-priority requirements

507
Q

Who command the secon fleet?

A

CINCLANTFLT

508
Q

MILSTRIP?

A

Military standard requisitioning and issue procedure

509
Q

What is AWP responsible for?

A

Receiving, storing, and controlling all repairable components in the local repair cycle that are awaiting repair

510
Q

What is the flight packet used for?

A

For extended flights

511
Q

SM&R Code?

A

5-digit code. That denoted what level of repair(s) may be performed on an individual component

512
Q

What is SSC responsible for?

A

Responding to requisitions for parts in a certain period based on priority

513
Q

How many digits in a NSN?

A

13

514
Q

Supply departments?

A 
S1 stock control
S2 food services
S3 ship's services
S4 disbursing
S5 ward room
S6 aviation supply
S8 shipping and receiving
S9 HAZMAT
S10 quality insurance
S11chief's mess
S12post office
S40 maintenance supply admin
515
Q

The AVCAL lists what?

A

Repair parts

516
Q

What type part does RAM store?

A

AVDLR’s

517
Q

Naval officer that is the pricinple advisor to the president on the conduct of war?

A

CNO

518
Q

CRIPL?

A

Consolidated remain-in- place list

519
Q

CINC’s?

A

CINCANTFLT- 2nd fleet
CINCPACFLT- 3rd and 7th fleet
CINCUSNAVEUR- 6th fleet

520
Q

What is SSU responsible for?

A

Receives gear back from AIMD and ensures what goes in is what comes back

521
Q

Who validates and maintains NMCS/PMCS requisitions and current status records?

A

Aircraft BUNO

522
Q

Six categories of HAZMAT?

A 
Flammable
Aerosol
Toxic
Corrosive
Oxidizes
Compressed gasses
523
Q

Items that can be bought with AFM Funds?

A

Paints, rags, towel sevice, cleaning agent, cutting compounds
Consumable repair parts
Pre-expanded, consumable maintenance material
Aviation fuel

524
Q

AIR?

A

Aircraft inventory records

525
Q

IMRL?

A

Individual component repair list

526
Q

A SF-44 is known as?

A

Purchase order/invoice/voucher

527
Q

AVCAL should allow a battle group to complete an extended deployment with what?

A

Minimal NMCS/PMCS time

528
Q

2 types of OPTAR funds?

A

OFC-01

AFM Fund

529
Q

SRS?

A

Supply response section

530
Q

2 parts of the dual COC for operating forces?

A

Operational

Administrative

531
Q

STRATCOM is comprised of personnel from which services?

A

All four services

532
Q

ICRL?

A

Individual component repair list

533
Q

Factors in HAZMAT storage are?

A 
Tightness in closure
Corrosion
Leakage
Improper/inadequate labeling
Expired shelf-life
534
Q

Priority processing times for SSC?

A

I- 1 hour
II- 2hours
III- 24 hours

535
Q

AUL is used for?

A

Current inventory of HM on board

536
Q

Unified Command?

A

Composed of elements of two or more services

537
Q

What is the form number for the Report of Discrepancy (ROD)?

A

SF Form 364

538
Q

FEDLOG?

A

Federal logistic data

539
Q

AFM?

A

Aviation fleet maintenance fund

540
Q

How often is the AMRR released?

A

Every 24 hours

541
Q

How often are flammable materials inspected?

A

Weekly

542
Q

Types of PPE when handling HM/HW?

A 
Googles
Face shield
Gloves
Apron
Respiratory protection
Shoes
543
Q

What is CCS known as?

A

Repairable Management Section (RMS)

544
Q

PMCS?

A

Partial mission capable supply

545
Q

How many personnel are needed for a command to have a CMC?

A

250 or more

546
Q

What constitutes a full flight deck uniform?

A 
Cranial on and buckled
Goggles down and over eyes
Flight deck jerseys on with sleeves rolled down
Float coat on and fastened
Safety shoes
547
Q

Number of minimum personnel required to move an aircraft?

A 
6
Director- yellow shirt
Brake rider
Tractor/spotting dolly driver
Port wing walker
Starboard wing walker
Tail safety observer
548
Q

Characteristics of the TA-1A/B tiedown chain?

A

Adjustable from 1ft 6in to 9ft 10in
Weight 12 pounds
Working load of 10,000lb

549
Q

Cranial with 3 orange stripes?

A 
Air dept. officers
Chiefs
LPO's
EOD
Ordnance officers
550
Q

ALBAR?

A

Adjustable length towbar

551
Q

What are the alert conditions for fixed-wing a/c and helicopters?

A

Condition 1: aircraft on catapult or in position affording a clear route to the catapult with crew in aircraft

Condition 2: condition 1 except flight crews are are not required in the aircraft

Condition 3: flight crews shall be in full flight gear, briefed, and standing by in the ready rooms

Condition 4: similar to condition 3 except that minor maintenance may be performed on the aircraft in no delay in launch is involved

552
Q

Purpose of hangar deck ballistic/deck edge doors?

A

Divide the hangar deck into sections or bays
Isolation of fires and CBR contamination
Some ballistic integrity for incoming missiles

553
Q

Blue?

A

Aircraft handling crew

554
Q

Purpose of a conflagration station?

A

Security of the hangar bay
Proper operation of all remotely controlled fire-fighting apparatus on the hangar deck
3 total

555
Q

Green jersey with red cranial?

A

Landing signals enlisted (LSE)

556
Q

Purple?

A

Fuels crews

557
Q

White?

A 
Cargo handlers
Air transfer office members
QA
LSO
Medical
Safety
558
Q

Red?

A

Crash and smash crew, EOD, Ordanace

559
Q

Yellow jersey with blue vest?

A

Tractor king

560
Q

Brown?

A

Plane captains

561
Q

Yellow?

A

Aircraft handling officers and plane directors

562
Q

Types of ALBAR’s?

A

Model 15 ALBAR- standard towbar for moving aircraft weighing 90,000lb
Model 8 ALBAR- 9ft long
Model 20 ALBAR- 20ft long

563
Q

Green?

A 
Catapult/arresting gear officers and crews
GSE troubleshooters
Line and maintenance LPO's
Aircraft maintenance crews
Photographers
564
Q

FLOLS?

A

Fresnel lens optical landing system

565
Q

JBD?

A

Jet blast deflector

566
Q

Define flight quarters?

A

Fixed wing and helicopter ops are conducted

Warfare and Stuff (9 decks)

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