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Air warfare Flashcards

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0
Q

What is the purpose of 3M?

A

Used for a managing maintenance on all ships, provides all maintenance and material managers in order to plan, acquire, organize, direct, control and evaluate the material resources, performs corrective and preventative maintenance.

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1
Q

What is IEM and what is the purpose of it?

A

Inactive Equipment Management

Provides PMS for equipment that has been inactive for Lon periods of time.

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2
Q

What is Corrective Maintenance?

A

Fixing failing, or damaged equipment.

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3
Q

What is Preventative Maintenance?

A

Routine maintenance

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4
Q

What is PMS?

A

Method of planning, scheduling or accomplishing preventative or routine maintenance.

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5
Q

How many types of maintenance are there?

A

Preventative, Corrective, PMS, IEM

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6
Q

What is the primary objective of 3M

A

To provide maximum equipment operational readiness.

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7
Q

How many fire stations are on board?

A

238

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8
Q

How portable CO2 extinguishers are on board?

A

1292

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9
Q

Internal Piping colors?

A 
Gasoline- yellow
JP-5- purple
Clean Fluid- brown
Oxygen- green
Refrigerant- dark purple
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10
Q

How many portable PKP extinguishers are on board?

A

139-18lbs

24-27lbs

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11
Q

How many portable AFFF extinguishers are on board?

A

20

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12
Q

How many repair and unit repair lockers are there?

A

10 repair

25 unit

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13
Q

How many nuclear reactors and main engines are on board?

A

2 nuclear reactors that serve 4 main engines

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14
Q

First line of text that give message classification in a naval message?

A

Classification/declassification line

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15
Q

ESD?

A

Electro-static discharge

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16
Q

FOD Program?

A

Identifies, corrects and eliminates casual factors which may damage aircraft

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17
Q

Difference between ejector racks and non-ejector racks?

A

Ejectors push weapons away

Non relies on gravity to separate

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18
Q

Volume 5

NAMP

A

Standard operating procedures

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19
Q

METCAL

A

Navy metrology and calibration program

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20
Q

AESR?

A

Aeronautical equipment service records

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21
Q

What is ASPA?

A

Depot level evaluation

Extends the service life of the aircraft for 12 months

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22
Q

PMIC used for what?

A

Identify scheduled or force removed items and their replacement intervals

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23
Q

SRC ?

A

Schedule removal components cards

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24
Page 13?
Administrative remarks
25
DTG (date time group) used to identify the message?
``` Expressed in greenwich mean time 6 digits: 1st 2-day Next 4-time Zone zuffix Date and year i.e 32 0800 z oct 98 ```
26
Volume 3 | NAMP
Maintenance days systems
27
CDQAR?
Collateral duty quality assurance rep.
28
What's AMSU?
Screening point for all repairables inducted into the AIMD by squadron supply work centers
29
MOVEREP?
Movement report Primary source of location info concerning ships
30
IM-1?
Admin QA Administration Product control Material control
31
Mobile air start systems?
Various aircraft are "air-started" | Use "huffers" to rotate turbines
32
AIMD?
Aircraft intermediate maintenance dept.
33
ICRL?
Individual component repair list
34
SDLM?
Special depot level maintenance
35
EAWS Qual is put where?
Page 4
36
BFIMA?
Battle force intermediate maintenance activity
37
CDI?
Collateral duty inspector
38
Sea otter?
Skilled technicians
39
NAVFLIRS?
Naval flight record subsystem
40
Basic function of ERT?
Process and track components through inspection and verify their operational status as RFI or BCM
41
Difference between scheduled and unscheduled maintenance?
Scheduled is periodic | Unscheduled is found during operations
42
ABO?
Aviators breathing oxygen
43
MAN?
Maintenance action number
44
Types of AAE?
Bomb Racks | Missile launchers
45
Function of BFIMA?
Maximize the battle forces ability to sustain itself at sea through improved repair capabilities and material self-sufficient and strength
46
PMIC?
Periodic maintenance info cards
47
ALSS items?
``` Seat pants LOX converters Life rafts O2 regulators Parachutes ```
48
Basic engine test facility procedures location?
Engine MIM (maintenance instruction manual)
49
Page 2?
Record of emergency data
50
How many volumes are in the NAMP?
5
51
Purpose of monthly management plan?
Provides a schedule of predictable maintenance work | Prepared and distributed by the 25th of each month
52
IMA?
Intermediate maintenance activities
53
Levels of aviation maintenance?
Organizational Intermediate Depot
54
Duties of AIMD/IMA
Support air wing
55
NAMP purpose?
Insert into logbook to be used as a service record for various aircraft equipment
56
Who is authorized to sign aircraft logbook entries?
Anyone designated in writing by the CO
57
ASPA?
Aircraft service period adjustment
58
EDVR?
Enlisted distribution verification record Monthly statement of activity
59
Requirements for good conduct?
No NJP Court martial No marks below 3.0
60
MIM?
Maintenance instruction manuals
61
AESR?
Aeronautical equipment service record
62
Volume 4 | NAMP
Aviation 3M data processing requirements
63
AMSU uses what document for repair capabilities of AIMD?
ICRL
64
NAVPERS 1626/7?
Report and disposition of offense Page 7 of service record that effect pay Court memorandum
65
IM-3?
AV/ARM (avionics/armament) Maintains AAE; fixes radios Consist of electrical and armament equipment repair work centers
66
Aircraft spotting dolly?
Moves aircrafts around hangar
67
MMCO?
Maintenance material control officer
68
LOGREQ?
Logistical requirements Summiteers Navy ship prior to entering a port to notify the proper commands of the visiting ships logistic requirements while visiting that port
69
MMCO?
Maintenance/material control officer
70
Central figure in today's naval battle group?
Aircraft carrier
71
Aircraft logbook purpose?
Contains history of aircraft
72
CTPL?
Central technical publication library
73
Support equipment purpose?
Equipment required to make system operations in its intended environment
74
Daily inspections?
Valid for 72 hours Aircrafts can be flown for 24hrs without another inspection 24hrs begins with the first launch
75
MCN?
Maintenance control number
76
MTIP?
Maintenance training improvement program
77
AAE stored where?
K-pool
78
AAE?
Aircraft armament equipment
79
IPB?
Illustrated parts breakdown
80
Ships that were constructed to operate in the rear echelon of the battle force?
Fleet repair ships
81
AESR purpose?
Service record for various aircraft equipment
82
What can ALSS not be exposed to?
Same temperature and humidity factors as other aircraft pool items
83
Page 4?
Enlisted qualifications history
84
Volume 1 | NAMP
``` Concepts Policies Organizations Maintenance support procedures Organizational and intermediate level maintenance ```
85
Concept of QA?
Prevention of the occurrence of defects
86
OSS?
On site storeroom
87
IM-2?
AIRFRAMES Fixes a/c engines Consist of power plants and life support work centers
88
AMO?
Assistant maintenance officer
89
Responsibilities of the maintenace officer?
Accomplishment of the department mission
90
Structure of AIMD?
AIMD officer- CDR Ferriera
91
PMS?
Planned maintenance system
92
2 people that can release an aircraft safe for flight?
MO MMCO Maintenance control officer
93
FCF?
Function check flight
94
What is found on the EDVR?
``` Name Rate Date assigned NEC Billet assigned to Date reported PRD ```
95
Purpose of the naval message?
Principle means by which commander communicate. | Thoughts, ideas, or information expressed briefly and to the point.
96
Volume 2 | NAMP
Depot level maintenance
97
QAR?
Quality assurance representative
98
ERT?
Emergency reclamation team
99
2 Phases of support equipment (SE) training and licensing program?
Phase 1- formal classroom training | Phase 2- required reading, OJT and tests
100
OPREP?
Operational report | Immediate report of accidental detonation of nuclear weapon
101
IM-4?
GSE- ground support equipment Consist of ships support equipment licensing program
102
Aircraft crash crane?
Known as "TILLEY" | Removes debris from flight deck
103
AMSU?
Aeronautical material screening unit
104
Where are the engine test procedures outlined?
MIM (maintenance instruction manual) | MCR (maintenance requirement card)
105
SITREP?
Situation report Bomb threat EO violation Sexual harassment
106
Name of the concept for repair on smaller ships on the carrier?
BFIMA
107
Sections of aircraft logbook?
``` Miscellaneous history Non-aging record Inspection Repair/rework Technical directives ```
108
FOD?
Foreign object damage
109
MEPP (Support equipment)?
Mobile electric power plant Mobile unit with diesel engine that turns a generator providing 115VAC and 28VDC for aircraft servicing and maintenance
110
When is the turnaround inspection performed?
24 hours or between flights
111
MMP?
Monthly maintenance plan
112
ICRL?
Individual component repair list
113
2 types of bomb racks?
Ejector racks | Non-ejector racks
114
MRC?
Maintenance requirement card
115
What is the WCS responsible for?
Hour-by-hour (day to day) functions in the work center
116
SEAOPDET purpose?
Supports the air wing
117
3rd degree burn?
Destroyed tissue Skin and bone in severe cases Severe pain may be absent due to nerve endings being destroyed
118
Heat stroke?
Breakdown of sweating mechanism Symptoms: hot dry skin uneven pupil dilation weak/rapid pulse Treatment: dose with cold water place cold packs shoulders/neck/ankles/groin
119
Deep frostbite?
Ice crystals forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temp of 32 degrees or lower Treatment: victim indoors; re-warm- place in warm water or with hot water bottles
120
Qualities that characterize the navy/marine corps?
Readiness Flexibility Self-sustainability Mobility
121
Significance of the Coral Sea?
First carrier vs carrier battle | 7-8 May 1942
122
Guadalcanal significance?
Sullivan brothers died-5 | Policy concerning family member separations was re-installed
123
Name of first aircraft carrier?
USS Langley
124
Name of first naval aviator in space?
Alan Shepard
125
AFS?
Combat stores ship
126
ARS?
Rescue and salvage ship
127
AR?
Repair ship
128
Capstan?
Vertical cylinder; used to tighten ships mooring lines
129
Chain stopper?
Secure the anchor chain
130
What will the BMOW pass during abandon ship?
Bearing, distance to land, hostile or friendly, water temp.
131
Conning officer?
JOOD underway | Responsible for all steering and engineering orders
132
CHENG?
Engineering officer
133
DCA?
Damage control assistant
134
MCM?
Mine countermeasure ship
135
PC?
Patrol craft
136
SSN?
Submarine
137
Function of boilers?
Convert water into steam
138
Purpose of the electro-hydraulic steering gear?
Links the bridge helm with the ships steering plant
139
Chock?
Heavy fitting through which mooring lines are fed
140
Cleat?
Consist of horns for belaying lines
141
Open fracture?
"compound" fracture Open wound in the tissue or skin Protruding bone
142
Electric shock?
Look for twitching If there is no power switch use broom handle Treatment: artificial breathing- CPR no pulse
143
RO?
Reactor officer
144
How many lookouts on HST?
2 fantail | 2 signal bridge
145
Difference between emergency and standard breakaways?
Procedures are performed at a more rapid sequence/pace
146
Flags?
``` Bravo- Ordnance/fuels transfer Oscar- Man overboard Papa- Personnel Recall Quebec- Boat Recall Hotel- Helo ops Foxtrot- Fixed-wing ops Code & Alpha- Divers over the side Kilo- personnel working aloft ```
147
Flashing light?
Letters and numbers broken down RO short/long flashes | Morse code format
148
What is the CHENG responsible for?
Ships machinery, damage and casualty control, repair of hull and machinery, power lighting, water maintenance, and underwater fittings
149
Emergency diesel generators (EDG's)?
Diesel driven 4 HST 2 FWD EDG room 2 AFT EDG room
150
How is the steam supplied to the catapult systems?
Drawn from the reactor to the catapults steam receiver/accumulator then directed to the launch valves
151
Low Pressure compressed air?
125 psi MMR RAR
152
Absentee Pennents?
1st Sub.- Absence of embarked flag officer 2nd Sub.- Absence of chief of staff 3rd Sub.- Absence of CO 4th Sub.- Absence of civilian official
153
Purpose of ship's navigation radar?
Used for safe navigation
154
Administrative bill?
How the ship will be run | Includes info. on routing request chit, watch standing
155
Emergency bill?
Instructions to be carried out during the emergency
156
First aid fundamentals?
Save life Prevent further injuries Prevent infection
157
How many pressure points on each side of the body?
``` 11 Jaw Collar bone Neck Inner upper arm Inner elbow Wrist Upper thigh Groin Knee Ankle ```
158
How to treat shock victim?
Elevate feet 6-12 in. Cover with blanket Calm victim
159
2nd degree burn?
Red blistering skin | Severe pain
160
Heat exhaustion?
Serious disturbance of blood flow to the brain heart and lungs Symptoms: skin cool moist and clammy pupils dilated subnormal body temp Treatment: move victim to cool area loosen clothing apply cool cloths to head/groin/ankles
161
Superficial frostbite?
Ice crystals forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temp of 32 degrees or lower
162
Six areas of naval doctrine?
``` Command and control Operations Warfare Logistics Intelligence Planning ```
163
3 levels of war?
Tactical Operational Strategic
164
Battle of Midway significance?
Turning point of the Pacific war | 3-5 June 1942
165
Significance of 8 May 1911?
Navy ordered 1st plane | Birthdate of naval aviation
166
Name of first jet powered naval aircraft?
FJ-1 Fury
167
AD?
Destroyer tender
168
ATF?
Fleet ocean tugs
169
ASR?
Submarine rescue ship
170
AS?
Submarine tender
171
Characteristics of an anchor chain?
``` Length- 1080 feet 12 shots 15 fathoms= 1 shot Mark 2 stockless Fathom= 6 feet 1 shot= 90 feet Each shot connected by detachable link ```
172
3 types of replenishment at sea?
UNREP- transfer fuels from one ship to another VERTREP- helicopters transfer cargo between ships while underway CONREP- 2 or more ships side by side connected
173
Duties of the OOD?
Safe navigation; CO's reps, ensures all shipboard evolutions are carried out
174
MHC?
Coastal mine hunters
175
MPA?
Main Propulsion Assistant
176
SSBN?
Ballistic missile submarine
177
Function of evaporators?
De-salinate seawater 4 total- 6 stage, flash type Provide 100,000 gal/day
178
Bit?
Secure mooring lines
179
3 types of chocks?
Open, closed and roller
180
Closed fracture?
"simple" fracture Internal No break in skin
181
Hypothermia?
Cooling of body caused by exposure Symptoms: pale/unconscious Slow and shallow breathing Pulse faint/undetectable Tissue feels semi-rigid Treatment: bring body temp to normal Wrap in warm blankets
182
Boatswain's mate of the watch?
In charge of the enlisted bridge watch team
183
Quartermaster of the watch?
Responsible to the OOD
184
3 common types of man-overboard recovery?
Shipboard- least preferred MWB or HRIB Helo- preferred
185
Day Shapes?
Ball-diamond-ball: restricted maneuvering Ball-ball-ball: vessel aground Ball: ship is at anchor
186
Semaphore?
Use of hand flags to communicate to other ships
187
What is the RO responsible for?
Operations and maintenance of reactor
188
Damage control assistant?
Assist the CHENG concerning ship's damage control efforts
189
Main Propulsion Assistant?
Assist the RO concerning ship's propulsion plants
190
High pressure compressed air?
4200 psi MMR 4th Deck
191
Ship's service turbine generator's (SSTG's)?
Provides electricity throughout the ship Driven by turbines 4 HST 2 in each MMR
192
FURUNO antanna?
Used for costal navigation
193
Operational bill?
Specific evolutions by ship's company
194
4 categories of special bills?
Anti-sneak/swimmer attack Civilian evacuation POW Troop lift
195
Methods of controlling bleeding?
Direct pressure Elevation Pressure points Last resort- tourniquet
196
Shock?
``` Vacant eyes Shallow breathing Cold moist pale skin Nausea Weak pulse ```
197
1st degree burn?
Mildest Tenderness Mild pain Increased warmth
198
What CBU is onboard HST?
CBU-99
199
Name of the auto-injector used for nerve agent casualties?
Atropine/2-PAM chloride (oxime)
200
What can the SH-60B suspend and deliver?
Penguin missile, hellfire missile, m-60 machine gun
201
EMP?
Electromagnetic pulse | Produced by high altitude, air and surface bursts
202
What missile is the AGM-84?
Harpoon Low-level cruise trajectory Less susceptible to detection
203
MOPP 3?
New filters on masks Don chemical protective with hood down, trousers, and over boots Go to GQ Set material condition zebra
204
Hung ordnance?
Failed to properly release or fire
205
What are the 2 basic types of rockets that are fired from pods that the navy uses?
2. 75 inch mighty mouse (2 variants) | 5. 0 inch Zuni
206
Gray with red bands?
Irritant (harassing agent)
207
Non-Nuclear Ordanace/Explosive Handling Qualifacation Program?
Instituted in 1968 | Ordnance certification is valid for 12 months
208
AWSEP?
Aviation weapons support equipment
209
Which part of a bomb allows it fall in a smooth definite curve to the target?
Fin assembly
210
White?
Illuminating ammo
211
What is considered HERO susceptible?
Adversely affected by RF energy resulting in unsafe or unreliable ordnance
212
F-14 Tomcat?
Primary weapon: Pheonix (aim-54) missile Load-out: 2-4 Pheonix 2 sidewinders 2 sparrow
213
NATO?
North Atlantic treaty organization
214
G2?
Amore division
215
AIM-7F Sparrow II?
Supersonic air-to-air guided missile | Intercept and destroy enemy aircraft in all weather conditions
216
Characteristics of the 50 caliber mounts?
``` 10 mounts 360 degree circle Max range 7400 yd Effective range 2000 yd 400-500 rpm ```
217
What does G5 consist of?
Weapons admin Aviation weapons movement control station ROLMS
218
M61A1 20MM gun system?
``` 6-barrel, rotary action mechanism gun 4000 rpm (low) 6000 rpm (high) ```
219
Targets the CIWS is designed to engaged?
Anti-ship cruise missile | Fixed-wing aircraft
220
G3 division members know as?
Mag rats
221
Surface combatants' ships are equipped with what 2 missile direction systems?
Terrier | Tarter
222
Ground Safety Officer?
Principle advisor to the CO on all ground safety matters
223
What detection system provides early warning of approaching air/missile targets?
E-2C hawkeye
224
AIM-120 is which missile?
AMRAAM
225
DATM?
.
226
All Hands?
Familiarize themselves with safety regulations and instructions applicable to themselves and their assigned duties
227
SPS-48?
3D, provide range, bearing and elevation
228
S-3B?
Usw fixed-wing carrier based jet
229
Class C mishaps?
Material property damage or $10K- $200K Non-fatality injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day or shift on which it occurred Non-fatal illness or disease that causes loss of time
230
Which carrier-based jet has missions that include attack of submarines, mining, tactical refueling?
S-3B viking
231
What is that purpose of a safety stand down?
Used to devote time to safety training, awareness, and enhancement of the command safety climate
232
What are the 2 methods of mine activation?
Contact and influence
233
Air-launched, surface-attack guided missile types?
``` AGM-65 Maverick AGM-84A-D Harpoon AGM-84E Slam AGM-88 HARM AGM-119 Penguin AGM-120 Sidearm ```
234
Define radiological warfare?
Deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce injury or death
235
Name 3 different search detection systems?
SPS-67; rascal; FURUNO
236
Types of CBU's?
MK-20, CBU99/100 Rockeye CBU-59 CBU-78 Gator
237
What is the IM-143?
Pocket dosimeter
238
What can the p-3 suspend and deliver?
Sidearm missile
239
What is a blackout?
Loss of lights or electrical power failure during a nuclear attack
240
What missile is the AGM-88?
High-speed anti-radiation missile (harm)
241
MOPP 4?
Don gas mask | Secure hook over head
242
Unexpended Ordanace?
Ordnance that was loaded, but was never expanded by the aircrew
243
What size round does the m60 machine gun use?
7.62 mm | Range plate is marked for 100 meter increments for 300 meters to maximum effective range of 1,100 meters
244
Black?
Armor piercing ammo
245
AIr-launched intercepted-arial guided missile types?
AIM-7 Sparrow AIM-9 Sidewinder AIM-54 Pheonix AIM-120 AMRAAM
246
OHO?
Ordnance handling officer
247
3 types of general purpose bombs?
MK 82- 500lbs MK 83- 1000lbs MK 84- 2000lbs
248
What does EMCON do?
Prevent enemy ships aircraft from locating us through their passive detection systems
249
F/A-18 Hornet?
Loadout: sidewinder and sparrow
250
CIWS?
Close-in weapon system
251
G3?
Magazine division
252
AIM-9L sidewinder?
Supersonic air-to-air weapon Contains: passive infrared target detection proportional navigation guidance torque balanced control system
253
Characteristics of the NSSMS?
1 launcher with 8 missiles | 2 directors per system
254
Under G5 admin what is ordnance control?
Aviation weapon movement control station | Controls the movement of all ordnance onboard
255
What is the forward-deployed portion of any airborne strike?
E-2 C Hawkeye
256
Primary objective of the naval aviation safety program?
Preserve human and material resources
257
Division responsible for training ships crew on firearms?
G2
258
AIM-7F is which missile?
Sparrow
259
Department Head?
Coordinates the department's safety program with the unit's Safety Officer and supervises the department's division safety officer
260
HERO?
Hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordnance
261
Which detection system monitors the ocean for surfaces, subsurface, and airborne contacts?
Surface combatants' ship
262
CV FTAS?
CV fast time analyzer system
263
What contributes to aviation mishaps?
Human error Maintenance and support factors Administrative and supervisory factors Environmental factors
264
CDC?
Combat direction center | Collect evaluate and disseminate tactical info
265
Class D mishaps?
Material property damage of less than $10K
266
Which carrier-based aircraft is capable of suspension and delivery of mines?
F/A-18 hornet
267
5 steps of ORM?
``` Identify hazards Assess hazards Make risk decisions Implement control Supervise ```
268
What position does a moored mine take in the water?
Connected by a cable to an anchor resting on the bottom
269
Ship-launched, intercept-aerial guided missile types?
RIM-7 NATO sea sparrow
270
MCU-2/P protective mask?
Gas mask | Protect against CBR agents
271
What can the f-14 suspend and deliver?
General purpose and m61a1 20 mm gun system
272
What are 3 types of TALD vehicles?
A/B37U-1(V)1, chaff vehicle A/B37U-1(V)2, RF vehicle ADM-141 A, RF vehicle
273
What is the DT-60?
Personnel dosimeter
274
What aircraft is capable of carrying a walleye weapon?
F/A-18 hornet
275
MOPP?
Mission oriented protective posture
276
What missile is the AGM-119b?
Penguin Launched from the SH-60b lamps helicopter First helo missile system
277
High altitude air burst is a nuclear explosion above what altitude?
100,000 ft
278
Yellow high explosive (HE)?
Found on warhead sections | 2 yellow band indicate thermal protected ordnance
279
CBU?
Cluster bomb unit
280
Which part of the bomb assembly contains the HE charge?
Bomb body
281
Light green?
Smoke or "marker" ammo
282
What is considered HERO unsafe?
Highly likely to ignite a detonation
283
What is the primary fire control radar onboard HST?
MK-23 target acquisition system
284
What is contained in the MK20 cluster bomb unit?
247 MK 118 antitank bombs
285
What is the purpose of doing a stray voltage check?
Ensure that no electrical charges exist within the aircraft's firing circuits
286
ECM?
Electronic countermeasures
287
G4?
Weapon elevator division
288
AIM-54C Pheonix?
Long-range air-to-air guided homing missile Only launched from F-14 6 max launched with miscellaneous against separated targets
289
Characteristics of the CIWS?
20 mm gattling-gun system/phalanx 4500 rpm Magazine capacity is 1550 rounds 4 mounts
290
Under G5 admin what is ROLMS?
Ammo accounting responsible for keeping track of all ammo received transferred or expended
291
ECM has what 2 types?
Active | Passive
292
Safety responsibilities of the CO?
Require that persons are instructed and drilled in all safety precautions and procedures, that they are complied with, and those applicable safety precautions are posted
293
Who is responsible for maintaining and monitoring all applicable programs such as tool control?
Quality assurance
294
AIM-9L is which missile?
Sidewinder
295
EMCON?
Emissions control
296
Division Officer?
Ensure that personnel comply with all safety instructions
297
ECM is designed to do what?
Prevent the enemy of their use of radio transmitting systems
298
ASROC?
Anti-submarine rocket system
299
Class A mishaps?
Material property damage of $1 million or more | An injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability
300
MK-46 torpedo?
``` Primary weapon used in asw Search for, detect, attack and destroy submarines Salt-water activated Uses OTTO II fuel Launched from any # of aircraft ```
301
AVGFE?
Aviation gas-free engineering program
302
What does the H-60 helicopter use to detect, track, localize and attack USW targets?
Sonobuoys
303
Type of weapon elevators?
Upper stage- 3 | Lower stage- 6
304
AMRAAM?
Advanced medium range air to air missile
305
Define chemical warfare?
Intentional use of lethal or non-lethal chemical agents to produce casualties
306
What aircraft can the MK-46 torpedo be launched from?
Helicopter or fixed-wing aircraft
307
ATM?
Air-launched, training guided missile
308
What do the mask not do?
Provide oxygen | Protect from: smoke, carbon monoxide (dioxide), ammonia
309
What can the EA-6B suspend and deliver?
HARM missile
310
TALD provides what?
False imagery
311
What are the 4 types of chemical casualty agents?
Choking, nerve, blood, blister
312
What type of guidance system does a AGM-65 marerick missile have?
Laser or IR guided AGM-65e AGM-65f Used against fortified ground installations, armored vehicles, and surfaces combatants
313
MOPP 2?
Gas masks are carried by each person onboard
314
AGM-122a missile?
Sidearm missile | Used to destroy or disable enemy radar
315
Brown?
Indicates presence of explosive Normally a propellant Can function as a low explosive or to be particularly hazardous to the user
316
TALD?
Tactical air-launched decoy
317
Light blue?
Inert training or firing practice ammo
318
Low-level cruise trajectory, anti-ship missile?
Harpoon
319
Light red?
Incendiary ammo
320
What is considered HERO safe?
Items not susceptible to RF energy
321
What does the MK-23 TAS do?
Controls the NATO sea sparrow missl
322
What are the 3 folding fin aircraft rockets?
Mighty mouse and Zuni
323
EOD?
Explosive ordnance disposal
324
RBOC?
Rapid blooming outboard chaff
325
G5?
Administration
326
AIM-120 AMRAAM?
Advanced medium range air to air missile | Replacement for sparrow
327
Type of gun that the CIWS use?
M-61a1 gattling
328
What is the weapons officer known as?
Gun boss
329
A surface combatants' ships can link data to be displayed in what center of each ship?
Combat direction center
330
Aviation Safety Officer?
Principle advisor to the CO on all aviation safety matters
331
ECM?
Electronic countermeasure
332
AIM-54C is which missile?
Pheonix
333
CATM?
Captive carry missile
334
Safety Petty Officer?
Ensures that personnel are instructed in all safety matters and are familiar in safety instructions
335
SPS-49?
2D; provide counter jamming
336
H-60?
Usw helicopter
337
Class B mishaps?
Material property damage of $200,000 or more but less than $1 million An injury or occupational illness results in permanent partial disability 3 or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized
338
What direction system collects pertinent tactical info regarding undersea contacts?
CDC
339
What is the objective of the AVGFE program?
Ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel system
340
Which torpedo is used against sophisticated subs?
MK-50
341
Define biological warfare?
Using living organisms to disable or destroy people, livestock, crops, and/or to deteriorate their supplies
342
G1?
Hangar bay and flight deck ordnance, (AWSEP)
343
HARM?
High-speed anti-radiation missile
344
AG?
Aerographer's mate | Weather forecast
345
PR?
Aircrew survival equipment man
346
CG SHIP?
Guided missile cruiser
347
How long can flash blindness last?
30 sec.
348
FFG SHIP?
Guided missile frigates
349
LHD SHIP?
Amphibious warfare ship
350
SPN-41?
Bullseye system | Used in conjunction with precision approach and landing systems (PALS)
351
EMCON?
Restricts the use of electronic systems to deny info to the enemy for determining the location of the carrier
352
Case 2 L/R?
May encounter instrumental condition | Visibility 1,000 ft 5 nm respectively
353
Carrier Quals?
Qualify abs re-qualify pilots | Launch recover is done at the same time
354
MCS SHIP?
Mine countermeasure support ship | USS INCHON
355
In-flight observation is know as?
Check ride
356
What is CVW-3 tail designation?
AC
357
3 primary movements of an aircraft about the axis?
Pitch Roll Yaw
358
What is Freddie?
ASW tactical air controller
359
What does lightning do to make it so dangerous?
Flash blindness Structure damage Damage to electronic system
360
What are the 3 areas that CATCC is organized into?
Air operations (Air Ops)
361
CVIC?
Collects, evaluates, and disseminates info including briefs/debriefs pilots prior to and following missions
362
Air ops officer?
Responsible to the operations officer for the coordination of all matters pertaining to aircraft operations
363
PALS?
Precision approach and landing system
364
FLEX DECK stands for?
Able to launch and recover aircraft at short or irregular intervals of time The normal cyclic interval of 90 minutes is typically reduced to between 40 and 60 minutes
365
Who signs the air plan?
OPSO, air OPSO, Strike Officer
366
Purpose of the NATOPS evaluation?
Evaluate individual and unit compliance with grading through written test and check ride
367
Will?
Futurnity
368
What is the info on the NAVFLIRS?
Flight data on each aircraft
369
Should?
Recommended
370
Events on the air plan?
Types of missions Type of aircraft Schedule to launch/recover Sunrise and sunset time
371
Define TARPS?
Photographic cameras mounted in a "pod" and carried on properly configured f-14 aircraft
372
VAQ-130?
Dragons Call sign- zappers Ea-6b prowlers
373
Under the carrier CO and the air wing commander, who maintains the squadron organization?
Squadron CO
374
What aircraft carries the "pod"?
F-14
375
Marshal control?
Control of inbound a/c during Case 1,2,3
376
What is the overall responsibility of air ops?
Makes real-time decisions necessary for safe and efficient aircraft launch and recovery Control assigned aircraft Manages tanker assests
377
AFCS?
Automatic flight control system
378
CATCC?
Carrier air traffic control center
379
Who is the air wing commander?
CAG
380
VFA-37?
Raging bulls | Call signs- gypsies
381
What happens when ice forms on an aircraft?
Decreased lift | Increased drag
382
What is the TYCOM lettering system for COMNAV AIRLANT? (on tail of airwing)
A-M first character | A-Z second character
383
Define carrier control area?
A circular airspace within a radius of 50 nm around the carrier
384
What is the squadron name for VF-32?
Swordsmen
385
AK?
Aviation storekeeper
386
AE SHIP?
Ammunition ship
387
CV/CVN SHIP?
Carrier/nuclear powered carrier
388
LCC SHIP?
Amphibious command ship
389
Warning?
Result in injury or death
390
LPD SHIP?
Amphibious assault ship
391
PALS?
Precision approach and landing system | Enables pilots to preform instrument approaches under either man. or auto control
392
Purpose of rescuing aircraft crew members who may go down during ops?
Mission of plans guard helicopter-SAR
393
Ramp time?
Launch times are fixed but recovery times are not Case 3 Calculated by Air Boss
394
Shall?
Mandatory
395
NAVFLIRS form #?
OPNAV 3710/4
396
What is TYCOM lettering system for CNATRA? (training)?
A-G first character | No second character
397
Break time?
Case 3
398
Responsibilities of LSO?
Visual control of aircraft in the terminal phase of the final approach and landing
399
ATO?
Responsible to air ops officer for the safe and orderly handling of all COD/VOD passengers, mail, cargo arriving and departing the carrier
400
What are the position in CCA?
Departure control Marshal control Approach control Final control
401
What is strike ops responsible for?
Planning daily aircraft operations to support the requirement of the battle group commander
402
CATCC is responsible for airspace within what radius of the carrier?
50nm
403
What is the CDC?
Major function of CDC is mission-control of airborne aircraft Executes tactical orders during battles
404
Pilots experience electrostatic discharges at altitudes of how many feet?
43,000 ft
405
Data found in NAVFLIRS?
``` Aircraft bureau number Name, rate/rank, SSN, crew position logistics actions Weapon proficiency Training areas ```
406
Who is the air plan drafted by?
Strike ops
407
VF-32?
Swordsmen | Call sign- gypsies
408
VAW- 126?
Seahawks Call sign- closeout E-2c hawkeye
409
What is the responsibility of CATCC?
Control of aircraft operating within the carrier control area
410
METOC?
Meteorology and oceanography
411
Approach control?
Control of aircraft on approach during Case 2,3
412
Name the positions manned in air ops?
Air Operations watch officer Air ops plotter Status board keeper Land/Launch recorder
413
What does METOC do?
Collects, interprets and disseminates weather info
414
VMFA-115?
Silver eagles Call sign- blades F/A- 18 hornets
415
NAVFLIRS?
Naval flight records subsystem
416
APC?
Approach power componsator
417
AD?
Aviation machinist mate | Fix aircraft engines
418
AM?
Aviation structure mechanic AMS- structure AMH- hydraulics AME- engress system
419
AO/AOE SHIP
Oilers/oiler and ammunition support ships
420
DD/DDG SHIP?
Destroyer/guided missile destroyer | Speed and mobility is their best protection
421
Case 1 L/R?
Will not encounter instrument condition | Visibility 3,000 ft and 5 nm respectively
422
Bullseye?
Refers to the Independent Landing Monitor (ILM) | AN/SPN - 41
423
3 components of PALS?
APC- approach power compensator | AFCS- auto flight control system
424
CQ?
Carrier Qualification
425
Cyclic operations?
Flight ops conducted in cycles Aircraft are launched and recovered in groups Groups referred as events
426
2 spaces responsible for control of airborne aircraft?
CDC | CATCC
427
LHA SHIP?
Amphibious assault ship
428
LSD SHIP?
Dock land ship
429
CAUTION?
Result in damage to equipment
430
Note?
Must be emphasized
431
What is the TYCOM lettering system for COMNAV AIRPAC?
N-Z first character | A-Z second character
432
NATOPS?
Naval air training and operating procedures standardization
433
Case 3 L/R?
Will encounter instrument condition | Below 1,000 or 5nm respectively; a nighttime departure or recovery
434
METOC?
Interprets and disseminates weather info
435
Departure control?
Control of departing aircraft during Case 1,2,3
436
Who writes the air plan?
Strike operations officer
437
CCA is responsible for?
Operational control of aircraft departing the ship and recovery of inbound aircraft
438
Purpose of master files?
All NAVFLIRS for each aircraft Chronological record Official record
439
What is the difference between cyclic and flex deck?
90 min. to 40-60 min. intervals
440
TARPS?
Exclusive to F-14
441
LSO?
Landing signal officer
442
NAVFLIRS?
Single source document for recording flight data
443
VS-22
Checkmates Call sign- vidar S-3 Viking
444
HS-7?
Dusty dogs Call sign- dusty SH-60 sea hawk
445
Define turbulance?
Disturbed flow in the atmosphere
446
NAVFLIRS is known as the?
Yellow sheet
447
May?
Optional
448
CVIC?
Carrier Intelligence center
449
CATCC?
Control of aircraft operating within the carrier control area 50nm around the carrier
450
Final control?
Control of aircraft on final approach during Case 3
451
What is one of the worst hazards of thunderstorm flying?
Hail
452
Modules in CDC?
``` EW SW USW AW D&T D&D TOP ```
453
CAW?
Carrier air wing
454
VFA- 105?
Gunslingers | Call sign- canyon
455
TARPS?
Tactical air reconnaissance pod system
456
EMCON?
Emission control
457
General aircraft precautions?
``` Chock In-take screen FOD Tied down Fire extenguisher ```
458
DRO?
Data readout
459
What is the distance of responsibility CATCC has around the carrier?
50 nm
460
2 leading causes of weather-related aircraft accidents and incidents?
Lightning strikes | Electrostatic discharges
461
NMCS?
Not mission capable supply
462
AVDLR?
Aviation depot level repairables
463
AVCAL?
Aviation consolidated allowance list
464
Forms that are in the flight packet?
``` DD 1348 SF 44 purchased order/invoice/voucher DD 1896 or DD 1897 SF 94 statement of witness SF 95 claim of damage or injury OPNAV 4790/60 VIDS/MAF Turnaround and daily MRC cards Fuel sample sheets Oil sample sheets ```
465
Who is the CHENG?
CDR
466
Who is the MCPON?
CMDCM Kemp
467
CO of HST?
Captain Roth
468
CCS?
Component control section
469
AMRR?
Aircraft material readiness report
470
CNO?
Senior military officer in the DON; principle advisor to the president and SECNAV
471
Senior enlisted advisor to the president on the conduct of war?
MCPON
472
Who is the RO?
Captain
473
DD Form 200?
Financial liability investigation of property loss | Used when government property is lost, damaged, or destroyed
474
Items that can be bought with OFC-01 funds (flight operations fund)?
Aviation fuels/oil Flight clothing and flight operational equipment Consumable supplies for aviation squadron
475
XO of HST?
CDR Hannifin
476
4 units of CCS?
DCU- document control unit AWP- awaiting parts unit LRCA- local repair cycle assets SSU- supply screening unit
477
What is DCU responsible for?
Ensures all material is correct before it goes to AIMD. | Paperwork must match.
478
SSC?
Supply support center
479
SM&R?
Source Maintenance Recoverability
480
When HAZMAT is identified, whom do you notify?
DCC | Quarterdeck
481
Define AWP?
No work can be performed due to lack of ordered parts
482
EXREP?
Expeditious repair
483
AWP?
Awaiting parts
484
What is FEDLOG?
Interactive database located on the ships LAN providing researcher with parts data from Federal Government Supply System
485
What form is the DD 1348?
Single line item requisition system document
486
RAM?
Repairable asset management
487
Define HM?
Hazard to human health/ environment when purposely released or accidentally spilled
488
MCPON?
Senior enlisted rep. of the navy; acts as the senior enlisted advisor to the CNO
489
Who orders AVDLRs?
Individual IMA work centers
490
SECNAV?
Civilian; responsible for the policies and control of the DON
491
LRCA assets?
Items in the rotating pool that can be repaired on board
492
What is the COC through the SECNAV and the CNO to the operating forces called?
Administrative
493
Specified Command?
Has a broad continuing mission, but it is composed of forces from one service
494
6 Fleet Master Chiefs?
``` Fleet m/c pacific fleet Atlantic fleet Naval forces Europe Material command Shore activities Naval education and training ```
495
Purpose of MSDS?
Contains info about materials Health and safety hazards Precautions for safe handling and use
496
How many force master chiefs do we have?
22
497
What is the responsibility of RAM unit?
Maintain custody of high-cost, pilfer-able items and AVDLRS
498
Flight operations fund (OFC-01) is used from?
Flight operations OPTAR
499
Secondary storage of HAZMAT when removed form the original container must have?
Approved containers | Precaution dry labeling
500
What does AMRR provide?
Snap shot as to the readiness of the Carrier Air Wing
501
What is SSC/ASD composed of?
SRS- supply response section | CCS- component control section
502
How often are non-flammable materials inspected?
Quarterly
503
2 disposable that should stay seperate at all cost?
Synthetic | Petroleum fuels
504
AVDLR?
Aviation depot level repair
505
SSC is referred to as what?
Aviation support division
506
6 units of SRS?
SLU- stock locator unit MDU- material delivery unit Function: pick-up/delivery RCU- requisition control unit Function: receives request for supplies TRU: technical research unit Function: verifies data on requisitions PEB- pre-expended bin PMU- program management unit Function: process and expedite high-priority requirements
507
Who command the secon fleet?
CINCLANTFLT
508
MILSTRIP?
Military standard requisitioning and issue procedure
509
What is AWP responsible for?
Receiving, storing, and controlling all repairable components in the local repair cycle that are awaiting repair
510
What is the flight packet used for?
For extended flights
511
SM&R Code?
5-digit code. That denoted what level of repair(s) may be performed on an individual component
512
What is SSC responsible for?
Responding to requisitions for parts in a certain period based on priority
513
How many digits in a NSN?
13
514
Supply departments?
``` S1 stock control S2 food services S3 ship's services S4 disbursing S5 ward room S6 aviation supply S8 shipping and receiving S9 HAZMAT S10 quality insurance S11chief's mess S12post office S40 maintenance supply admin ```
515
The AVCAL lists what?
Repair parts
516
What type part does RAM store?
AVDLR's
517
Naval officer that is the pricinple advisor to the president on the conduct of war?
CNO
518
CRIPL?
Consolidated remain-in- place list
519
CINC's?
CINCANTFLT- 2nd fleet CINCPACFLT- 3rd and 7th fleet CINCUSNAVEUR- 6th fleet
520
What is SSU responsible for?
Receives gear back from AIMD and ensures what goes in is what comes back
521
Who validates and maintains NMCS/PMCS requisitions and current status records?
Aircraft BUNO
522
Six categories of HAZMAT?
``` Flammable Aerosol Toxic Corrosive Oxidizes Compressed gasses ```
523
Items that can be bought with AFM Funds?
Paints, rags, towel sevice, cleaning agent, cutting compounds Consumable repair parts Pre-expanded, consumable maintenance material Aviation fuel
524
AIR?
Aircraft inventory records
525
IMRL?
Individual component repair list
526
A SF-44 is known as?
Purchase order/invoice/voucher
527
AVCAL should allow a battle group to complete an extended deployment with what?
Minimal NMCS/PMCS time
528
2 types of OPTAR funds?
OFC-01 | AFM Fund
529
SRS?
Supply response section
530
2 parts of the dual COC for operating forces?
Operational | Administrative
531
STRATCOM is comprised of personnel from which services?
All four services
532
ICRL?
Individual component repair list
533
Factors in HAZMAT storage are?
``` Tightness in closure Corrosion Leakage Improper/inadequate labeling Expired shelf-life ```
534
Priority processing times for SSC?
I- 1 hour II- 2hours III- 24 hours
535
AUL is used for?
Current inventory of HM on board
536
Unified Command?
Composed of elements of two or more services
537
What is the form number for the Report of Discrepancy (ROD)?
SF Form 364
538
FEDLOG?
Federal logistic data
539
AFM?
Aviation fleet maintenance fund
540
How often is the AMRR released?
Every 24 hours
541
How often are flammable materials inspected?
Weekly
542
Types of PPE when handling HM/HW?
``` Googles Face shield Gloves Apron Respiratory protection Shoes ```
543
What is CCS known as?
Repairable Management Section (RMS)
544
PMCS?
Partial mission capable supply
545
How many personnel are needed for a command to have a CMC?
250 or more
546
What constitutes a full flight deck uniform?
``` Cranial on and buckled Goggles down and over eyes Flight deck jerseys on with sleeves rolled down Float coat on and fastened Safety shoes ```
547
Number of minimum personnel required to move an aircraft?
``` 6 Director- yellow shirt Brake rider Tractor/spotting dolly driver Port wing walker Starboard wing walker Tail safety observer ```
548
Characteristics of the TA-1A/B tiedown chain?
Adjustable from 1ft 6in to 9ft 10in Weight 12 pounds Working load of 10,000lb
549
Cranial with 3 orange stripes?
``` Air dept. officers Chiefs LPO's EOD Ordnance officers ```
550
ALBAR?
Adjustable length towbar
551
What are the alert conditions for fixed-wing a/c and helicopters?
Condition 1: aircraft on catapult or in position affording a clear route to the catapult with crew in aircraft Condition 2: condition 1 except flight crews are are not required in the aircraft Condition 3: flight crews shall be in full flight gear, briefed, and standing by in the ready rooms Condition 4: similar to condition 3 except that minor maintenance may be performed on the aircraft in no delay in launch is involved
552
Purpose of hangar deck ballistic/deck edge doors?
Divide the hangar deck into sections or bays Isolation of fires and CBR contamination Some ballistic integrity for incoming missiles
553
Blue?
Aircraft handling crew
554
Purpose of a conflagration station?
Security of the hangar bay Proper operation of all remotely controlled fire-fighting apparatus on the hangar deck 3 total
555
Green jersey with red cranial?
Landing signals enlisted (LSE)
556
Purple?
Fuels crews
557
White?
``` Cargo handlers Air transfer office members QA LSO Medical Safety ```
558
Red?
Crash and smash crew, EOD, Ordanace
559
Yellow jersey with blue vest?
Tractor king
560
Brown?
Plane captains
561
Yellow?
Aircraft handling officers and plane directors
562
Types of ALBAR's?
Model 15 ALBAR- standard towbar for moving aircraft weighing 90,000lb Model 8 ALBAR- 9ft long Model 20 ALBAR- 20ft long
563
Green?
``` Catapult/arresting gear officers and crews GSE troubleshooters Line and maintenance LPO's Aircraft maintenance crews Photographers ```
564
FLOLS?
Fresnel lens optical landing system
565
JBD?
Jet blast deflector
566
Define flight quarters?
Fixed wing and helicopter ops are conducted

Warfare and Stuff (9 decks)

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