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Module 10 > Air ops > Flashcards

Air ops Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Air Operations regulation number?

A

965/2012

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2
Q

What is a performance class B aircraft?

A

An aeroplane powered by propeller engines with a maximum passenger seating configuration of nine or fewer and a MTOM of 5700kg.

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3
Q

For the purpose of passenger classification, how old is an adult?

A

12 years or above

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4
Q

What age is an infant?

A

2 years or less

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5
Q

What is NVIS?

A

Night vision imaging system, when the proportion of Visual Flight Rules performed at night is undertaken by a crew member wearing night vision goggles

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6
Q

What is a CAT 1 approach?

A

A decision height of no lower than 200ft and a runway visual range not less that 550 m.

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7
Q

What is a CAT 2 approach?

A

A decision height of between 200ft and 100ft and a runway visual range of not less than 300m

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8
Q

Which aircraft does PART-OPS cover?

A

All aircraft except tilt-rotor, airships and UAVs.

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9
Q

What is annex 1 of 965/2012?

A

IR-OPS or AIR-OPS or PART-OPS

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10
Q

From when was 965/2012 applicable?

A

28th October 2012

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11
Q

What does IR-OPS replace?

A

EU-OPS (reg 859/2008)

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12
Q

List the 5 annexes of IR-OPS.

A
  1. Definitions
  2. Authority requirements
  3. Organisation req’s
  4. CAT
  5. Specific approvals
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13
Q

Which PART are AOC’s under?

A

PART-OPS

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14
Q

Which ICAO annex do AOC’s come under?

A

Annex 6

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15
Q

What eight things must an operator have to obtain an AOC?

A
  • Sufficient personnel
  • Airworthy aircraft
  • Operations manual
  • Quality system
  • Accountable staff
  • Carriers liability insurance
  • Sufficient finances
  • Ground Infrastructure
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16
Q

Who issues AOC’s?

A

The Competent authority

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17
Q

When must a Flight Data Monitoring program be used?

A

When operating aeroplanes with a MTOM of more than 27000kgs.

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18
Q

How is flight data obtained from the aircraft’s digital systems?

A

By a Flight Data Acquisition unit (FDAU)

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19
Q

What did Quick Access Recorders previously consist of, and what are they now?

A

Previously tape or optical disk.

Today more often memory cards or wireless.

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20
Q

How long is Flight Data Recorder recycle time?

A

25/50 hrs

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21
Q

Can an operator amend their MEL?

A

As long as it is approved by the competent authority.

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22
Q

What does HEMS stand for?

A

Helicopter Emergency Medical Service

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23
Q

What does HHO stand for?

A

Helicopter Hoist Operations

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24
Q

What is the minimum age for technical crew members in commercial air transport?

A

18 years

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25
Q

When passengers are on board or embarking/disembarking, the aircraft shall not be refuelled or defuelled with what?

A

Avgas or wife-cut type fuel

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26
Q

What should an aircraft commander do if they encounter an intensity of icing conditions for which the aircraft is not certified?

A

Exit the conditions without delay, by a change of level and/or route, and if necessary by declaring an emergency to ATC

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27
Q

Can a commander commence a flight if there are ice deposits on the control surfaces?

A

A commander shall only commence takeoff if the aircraft is clear of any deposit that might adversely affect the performance or controllability of the aircraft.

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28
Q

Where are the loading, centre of gravity and mass limitations specified?

A

Aircraft Flight Manual, and Operations manual

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29
Q

Who is responsible for establishing initial entry in to service reweighing and CofG.

A

The operator

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30
Q

How often must an operator establish aircraft masses of individual aircraft?

A

Every four years

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31
Q

How often must an operator establish aircraft fleet masses?

A

Every nine years

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32
Q

The interval between two fleet mass evaluations should not exceed what?

A

48 months

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33
Q

How often should fleet values be updated?

A

At least at the end of each evaluation

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34
Q

What is included in the dry operating mass?

A
  • Crew and crew baggage, -Catering and removable passenger service equipment
  • Tank water and lavatory chemicals
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35
Q

What is the standard weight of crew baggage?

A

85kg for technical/flight crew

75kg for cabin crew

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36
Q

How many spare electrical fuses should an operator carry?

A

Enough to ensure complete circuit protection plus 10% more of each Rating, or three of each Rating, which ever is the most.

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37
Q

What additional lighting should aeroplanes operated at night have?

A

Navigation/Position lights
Landing lights
Lights to conform to the international regulations for preventing collisions at sea, if the aircraft is operated as a seaplane.

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38
Q

Where are aeroplane lighting requirements specified?

A

OPS-CAT

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39
Q

What is the rule regarding equipment to clear windshields during precipitation?

A

Aeroplanes with a MTOM of more than 5700kgs shall be equipped at each pilots station with a means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation.

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40
Q

What does MOPSC stand for?

A

Maximum operational passenger seating configuration

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41
Q

Which aircraft should be equipped with an altitude alerting system?

A

Turbo props with a MCTOM of more than 5700kgs or having a MOPSC of nine or more, and turbo jet Aircraft

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42
Q

Which aircraft shall be equipped with ACAS II?

A

Turbine powered with a MCTOM of 5700kgs or MOPSC of more than 19

43
Q

Which aeroplanes should be equipped with a CVR?

A

MTOM of 5700kg and
Multi engine turbine powered aeroplanes of 5700kg or less with a MOPSC of more than nine, and first issued with a CofA on or after 1st Jan 1990.

44
Q

How long should a CVR be capable of retaining data?

A

The preceding two hours (when the CofA has been issued on or after 1st April 1998, or
The preceding 30 minutes for aeroplanes issued with a CofA before 1st April 1998

45
Q

What should the CVR record with reference to a timescale?

A

Conversations between crew members and with air traffic control, as well as the aural environment of the flight crew compartment.

46
Q

When should the CVR start and finish recording?

A

Prior to the aeroplane moving under it’s own power, and should continue to record until the aircraft is no longer capable of moving under it’s own power.

47
Q

Which aircraft should have a DFDR?

A
  • Aeroplanes with a MCTOM of more than 5700kgs and first issued with a CofA on or after 1st June 1990
  • Turbine engine aeroplanes with a MCTOM of more than 5700kgs and first issued with a CofA before June 1990
  • Multi-engine turbine powered aeroplanes with a MTOM of 5700kgs or less, with a MOPSC of more than nine and first issued with a CofA on or after 1st April 1998.
48
Q

Which data shall an FDR record?

A

Technical flight data including temperature, speed, altitude, and trajectory.

49
Q

How long should an FDR be capable of retaining data?

A

At least the preceding 25 hours

50
Q

When should an FDR start and finish recording?

A

The FDR should start recording before the aircraft is capable of moving under it’s own power, and finish after the aircraft is capable of moving under it’s own power.

51
Q

In case of aeroplanes issues with a CofA on or after 1st April 1998, what should the FDR do?

A

Start and finish recording automatically

52
Q

How does an Underwater locator beacon work, and for how long?

A

It emits ultrasonic pulses on immersion for up to 90 days.

53
Q

How long can an FDR last underwater?

A

1 month at a depth of 6,000 metres.

54
Q

How long should Data Link recorders retain recordings?

A

At least 2 hours

55
Q

How many first aid kits should aircraft have?

A 
0-100: 1
101-200: 2
201-300: 3
301-400: 4
401-500: 5
500+: 6
56
Q

When should an aircraft have an EMK?

A

When it has a MOPSC of 30 or more and is flying more than 60 minutes from an aerodrome which has qualified medical assistance.

57
Q

What aircraft are required to carry oxygen for passengers?

A

Aircraft which are pressurised and flying above 2500ft

58
Q

What mass flow rate should first aid oxygen produce?

A

At least 4 litres per minute

59
Q

What average flow rate should cabin oxygen have?

A

At least 3 litres/minute

60
Q

Following a depressurisation, oxygen supplies should be sufficient for what percentage of passengers?

A

At least 2% but no less than one person

61
Q

How many fire extinguishers should each flight deck and galley have?

A

At least 1

62
Q

How many fire extinguishers should aeroplanes have?

A 
7-30;1
31-60;2
61-200;3
201-300;4
301-400;5
401-500;6
501-600;7
601+; 8
63
Q

Which aeroplanes should be equipped with a crash axe or crow bar?

A

Aeroplanes with a MCTOM of 5700 or above, and MOPSC of more than nine.

64
Q

Which aircraft should have a means for the crew and passengers to reach the ground safely in an emergency?

A

Ones whose sill heights are more than 1.83m (6ft) above the ground

65
Q

How many megaphones should an aircraft be equipped with?

A

61-99; 1

100+; 2

66
Q

An ELT of any type, shall be capable of transmitting on which two frequencies simultaneously?

A

121.5 MHz and 406MHz

67
Q

Seaplanes operating over water shall be equipped with what?

A

A sea anchor and equipment to facilitate mooring and manoeuvring,
And equipment for making sound signals as prescribed in the International regulations for preventing collisions at sea.

68
Q

Aircraft operating under IFR or at night shall be equipped with a transmit button located where?

A

On the manual pitch and roll control for each flight crew member

69
Q

What is the aeronautical emergency frequency?

A

121.5MHz

70
Q

What are RVSM operations?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation minimum of 300m or 1000ft between aircraft.

71
Q

Which aircraft are required to carry oxygen for passengers?

A

Aircraft which are pressurised and fly above 2500ft

72
Q

What is the average passenger oxygen flow rate required to be?

A

At least 3 litres per minute

73
Q

What mass flow rate should first aid oxygen produce?

A

4 litres per minute

74
Q

Between which flight levels do RVSM operations apply?

A

FL290 and FL410 (29,000ft and 41,000ft)

75
Q

How many altitude measurement systems are RVSM aircraft required to have?

A

Two independent systems

76
Q

What 4 equipment requirements are there for RVSM aircraft?

A
  • Two independent altitude measuring systems
  • An altitude awareness system
  • An automatic altitude control system
  • A Secondary surveillance Radar transponder
77
Q

What height keeping errors shall an operator report to the competent authority?

A
  • Total Vertical Error of +/-90m (300ft)
  • Altimetry system Error of +/-75m (245ft)
  • Assigned Altitude Deviation of +/-90m (300ft)
78
Q

How long does an RVSM approved operator have, to report height keeping errors to the competent authority?

A

72 hours

79
Q

Which areas of the aircraft skin are RVSM critical areas?

A

Around the static vents

80
Q

What is Hard Time Maintenance?

A

All components must be taken out of service when they reach a specified age

81
Q

What is On condition maintenance?

A

Appliances and parts are periodically inspected/checked against a physical standard, to determine whether they can stay In service.

82
Q

What is condition monitoring?

A

When operating levels are monitored i.e. Oil consumption, and compared with Upper and lower limits. Condition monitoring is not considered preventative maintenance.

83
Q

What is the MRBR?

A

Maintenance Review board Report, which is the initial minimum scheduled maintenance requirements prepared by the TC holder

84
Q

What is the MPD?

A

Maintenance planning document, which contains all the MRB requirements plus mandatory scheduled maintenance requirements, which may only be changed with permission from the competent authority.

85
Q

How often is a C-check scheduled?

A

Every 12-20 months

86
Q

What does decision height mean?

A

The wheel height above the runway elevation by which a go around must be initiated, unless a safe landing can be carried out.

87
Q

Engine and propeller log book requirements are covered where?

A

Schedule 6 of the ANO

88
Q

An Operators ETOPS approval will lapse if they cease Extended Range Operations for how long?

A

13 months

89
Q

For what period of time must a load sheet be kept?

A

6 months

90
Q

Commission regulation 965/2012 applies to which aircraft?

A

Commercial air transport operations with helicopters and aeroplanes

91
Q

When is a permit flight release certificate issued?

A

Before an aircraft is test flown with a permit to fly

92
Q

Air navigation regulations are written by whom?

A

CAP 393 (The ANO) is written by The Privy Council

93
Q

What is the period of validity for a Certificate of Fitness for Flight?

A

Max 7 days

94
Q

The excess ILS deviation Light is what colour?

A

Amber and flashing

95
Q

How many frequencies must an ELT be capable of transmitting on?

A

2 frequencies

96
Q

For how long is a permit to fly valid?

A

12 months

97
Q

To what stage of flight is a noise certificate applicable?

A

Takeoff and Landing

98
Q

What is the variable load?

A

The weight of the crew, their baggage and equipment relevant to the role

99
Q

Can State aircraft such as those operated by customs and police services fly internationally?

A

Only with prior permission from the foreign state’s NAA

100
Q

Under which regulation is the MEL approved?

A

965/2012

101
Q

When does an aircraft not require a noise certificate?

A

When flying under A and B conditions

102
Q

How many times must the nationality and registration marks appear on an aircraft?

A

4 times

103
Q

From how many sources, should independent and reliable electrical power be supplied, for an ETOPS aircraft?

A

3

104
Q

What are the schedules of the ANO for?

A

To explain in more detail parts of the articles

Module 10 (6 decks)

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