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EFA - Rules & Regs > AIP > Flashcards

AIP Flashcards

1
Q

ILS rated coverage?

A

GEN 2.3

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2
Q

RA actions?

A

a. immediately conform to the RA indication, even if this conflicts with an ATC instruction
b. limit the alterations of the flight path to the minimum extent necessary to comply with the RA; and
c. notify ATC, as soon as permitted by workload

GEN 7.2.2

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3
Q

HVR mitigation?

A

Reduce the vertical rate to less than 1,500FPM when within the last 1,000FT of the assigned altitude or flight level, unless otherwise directed by ATC.

GEN 7.7.1

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4
Q

Wet runway

A

a. is covered by surface water not more than 3mm deep;

or b. is covered by slush or loose snow equivalent to surface water not more than 3mm deep; or

c. has sufficient moisture on the surface to cause it to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water.

Note: Wet Runway now covers the previous Australian description – ‘Damp’.

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5
Q

Special Authorisation Category I (SA CAT I) Operation

A

A precision approach CAT I operation with:

a. a DH lower than 200FT, but not lower than 150FT;
b. an RVR not less than 450M.

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6
Q

Special Authorisation Category II (SA CAT II) Operation

A

A precision approach operation to a runway where some or all of the elements of the precision approach CAT II lighting system are not available, with:

a. a DH lower than 200FT but not lower than 100FT; and
b. RVR of not less than 350M.

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7
Q

Self Contained Navigation Systems

A

Area navigation systems based on INS, IRS or GNSS.

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8
Q

Runway Visual Range (RVR)

A

The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line. (ICAO)

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9
Q

Standing Water

A

Water of depth greater than 3mm.

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10
Q

Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA)

A

The lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum clearance of 1,000FT above all objects located in an area contained within a circle or a sector of a circle of 25NM or 10NM radius centred on a significant point, the ARP, or the HRP.

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11
Q

Minimum Vector Altitude

A

The lowest altitude which a controller may assign to a pilot in accordance with the Radar Terrain Clearance chart.

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12
Q

Minimum Vector Altitude

A

The lowest altitude which a controller may assign to a pilot in accordance with the Radar Terrain Clearance chart.

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13
Q

Contaminated Runway

A

A runway that has more than 25% of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used covered by:

a. water, or slush, more than 3mm deep; or
b. loose snow more than 20mm deep; or
c. compacted snow or ice, including wet ice.

Note: ‘CONTAMINATED RUNWAY’ is not normally used in radiotelephony.

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14
Q

Visual waypoint?

A

4 letter designation

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15
Q

TCAS phraseologies

A

* TCAS RA

* CLEAR OF CONFLICT RETURNING TO (assigned clearance)

* CLEAR OF CONFLICT (assigned clearance) RESUMED

* UNABLE TO COMPLY, TCAS RA

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16
Q

Windshear phraseology

A

* WIND SHEAR ESCAPE
* CLEAR OF WIND SHEAR RETURNING TO (assigned
clearance, instruction and/or
procedure etc)
* UNABLE, WIND SHEAR ESCAPE

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17
Q

[DESCEND VIA STAR TO (level)], CANCEL SPEED RESTRICTION(S)?

A

published speed restrictions and ATC-issued speed control instructions are cancelled

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18
Q

“NO SPEED RESTRICTIONS”

A

* When aircraft speed is pilot’s discretion.

* All airspace and ATC speed restrictions are cancelled.

* (Note: Not used with SID or STAR instructions).

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19
Q

“NO ATC SPEED RESTRICTIONS”

A

* when aircraft speed is pilot’s discretion.

* ATC speed restrictions are cancelled.

* Comply with airspace speed limitations.

(Note: Not used with SID or STAR instructions).

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20
Q

Pre-Departure Clearances (PDC) in Australia?

A

Not available with FANS 1/A.

GEN 7.1.2

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21
Q

To ensure reliable ADS-C is available, flight crews must ensure….?

A
  1. ADS-C application remains ARMED.
  2. ADS-C emergency mode OFF.

GEN 7.2.4

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22
Q

CPDLC position reports not required when transfering between YBBB and YMMM

A

* aircraft inbound to land at Sydney/Bankstown/Richmond from the north or east 45NM from SY.

GEN 7.5.1

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22
Q

CPDLC position reports not required when transfering between YBBB and YMMM

A

* aircraft inbound to land at Sydney/Bankstown/Richmond from the north or east 45NM from SY.

GEN 7.5.1

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23
Q

2 options to logon to CPDLC ex-SYD?

A
  1. On the ground: YMML
  2. After passing 10,000’: YBBN

(may logon to YBBN directly and not YMML as per AIP).

GEN 7.4.4

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24
Q

ADS-C EMERGENCY cancel?

A

ADS-C RESET freetext

GEN 7.14.4

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25
Q

TAF 3 airports in Australia?

A

Sydney, Melbourne, Brisbane, Perth, Adelaide, Gold Coast, Canberra, Darwin, Cairns and Hobart

ERSA

26
Q

Windshear reports available at which airports?

A

Cairns, Brisbane, Sydney, Melbourne, Adelaide, Darwin, Perth, Hobart

GEN 4.10

27
Q

On first contact with Approach control report?

A

(i) assigned level;
(ii) flight conditions, if appropriate; and
(iii) receipt of ATIS (code).

ENR 2.2.6.6

28
Q

PDC readback requirements?

A

a. SID, including runway and/or transition (if issued);
b. Transponder code;
c. Additional requirements specified in the PDC; and
d. Current parking position/bay

ENR 2.2.9.3

29
Q

Frequency change: to tower prior to departure?

A

When advised (international flight)

ENR 2.4.1.1

30
Q

Visual departure conditions?

A

VMC below the MVA (ATS surveillance services) or the MSA/LSALT.

ENR 2.5.2.1

31
Q

Frequency change: to departures after takeoff?

A

As soon as practicable or within 1nm

ENR 2.7.4.1

32
Q

Phraseology: Area control

A

* Assigned level

* “Last vacated level” may be omitted by identified aircraft

ENR 2.7.4.3

32
Q

Phraseology: Area control

A

* Assigned level

* “Last vacated level” may be omitted by identified aircraft

ENR 2.7.4.3

33
Q

Visual approach (by day) criteria?

A

i. the aircraft is within 30NM of the aerodrome; and
ii. the pilot has established and can continue flight to the aerodrome with continuous visual reference to the ground or water;
iii. visibility along the flight path is not less than 5,000M, or the aerodrome is in sight.

ENR 2.11.3.1

34
Q

When is crosswind information provided by tower upon landing?

A

The crosswind component equals or exceeds 12kt.

ENR 2.12.1

35
Q

“Require runway” will not result in loss of priority if request made prior to?

A

120nm

ENR 2.12.2

36
Q

Go-around from a visual approach in VMC?

A

initially climb on runway track, remain visual and await instructions from ATC.

ENR 2.14.1

37
Q

Deviations in controlled airspace (RNP) - advising ATC

A

when the aircraft cannot be maintained on the desired track plus/minus the prescribed RNP/RNAV value.

ENR 4.6.2

38
Q

LAHSO wind limits?

A

(1) 20KT crosswind;
(2) 5KT tailwind on a dry runway;
(3) no tailwind when the runway is not dry

ENR 7.5.1

39
Q

LAHSO - takeoff and landing restrictions?

A

a. simultaneous take-off and landing is permitted by day only.
b. simultaneous landings are permitted by day and night.

ENR 7.5.1

40
Q

RVSM deviation tolerance?

A

+/- 150FT

ENR 8.4.1

41
Q

RVSM - failure of one primary altimeter - phraseology?

A

“FOR INFORMATION, OPERATING ON ONE PRIMARY ALTIMETER ONLY”.

ENR 8.4.2

42
Q

RVSM - failure of two primary altimeters - phraseology?

A

“NEGATIVE RVSM”

ENR 8.4.3

43
Q

Failure of All Primary Altimetry Systems - actions?

A

a. maintain the flight level indicated on the standby altimeter.
b. turn on all exterior lights and,
b. notify ATC of the failure using the phraseology “NEGATIVE RVSM” and the intended course of action.

ENR 8.4.3

44
Q

RVSM - Failure of both primary altimeters in Class A and no clearance?

A
  1. Turn 45 degrees off track
  2. Descend to FL290

ENR 8.4.4

45
Q

RVSM - primary altimeters diverge by more than 200’?

A

Conduct same procedures as dual loss of primary altimeters.

a. maintain the flight level indicated on the standby altimeter.
b. turn on all exterior lights and,
b. notify ATC of the failure using the phraseology “NEGATIVE RVSM” and the intended course of action.

ENR 8.4.3

46
Q

RVSM - Flight level deviation reporting?

A

Greater than 300’

ENR 8.7.1

47
Q

Alternate requirements?

A

i. cloud - more than SCT below alternate minima
ii. visibility - less than alternate minima
iii. visibility - greater than the alternate minimum, but the forecast is endorsed with PROB 30 or greater of fog, mist, dust or any other phenomenon restricting visibility below the alternate minimum; or
iv. a TS or severe TB, or a forecast of at least a PROB30 of such an event; or
e. wind - a XW or TW component more than the maximum.

48
Q

Alternate not required if conditions below alternate minima when?

A

End of forecast + 30 minutes.

ENR 10.7.2.3

49
Q

Alternate requirements - TS?

A

Alternate required unless the TS is endorsed by an INTER or TEMPO and that fuel is carried.

ENR 10.7.2.5

50
Q

FM or BCMG - adding an operational requirement - buffers?

A

+ 30 minutes

ENR 10.7.2.7

51
Q

FM or BCMG - removing an operational requirement - buffers?

A

30 minutes

ENR 10.7.2.7

52
Q

MINIMUM FUEL?

A

Any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than final reserve fuel.

ENR 10.9.2.1

53
Q

EMERGENCY FUEL?

A

usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the final reserve fuel.

ENR 10.9.3.1

54
Q

Wake turbulence - HEAVY to HEAVY?

A

Takeoff and landing 2 minutes

(takeoff from intersection, 3 minutes if >150m)

ENR 7.2.2

55
Q

Wake turbulence - HEAVY to SUPER?

A

Landing 3 mins, takeoff 2 mins, intermediate takeoff 4 mins.

ENR 7.2.2

56
Q

Wake turbulence (distance)?

A

Super = 6nm

Heavy = 4nm

ENR 7.2.3

57
Q

25nm and 10nm MSA provides what obstacle clearance?

A

1,000’

ENR 2.3.1

58
Q

Holding - time limits?

A

=FL140: 1 minute

>FL140: 1.5 minutes

ENR 3.3.1

59
Q

Speed exiting holding pattern?

A

250kts

ENR 3.3.1

60
Q

When can RV be used to assess visiblity requirements?

A

a. for other than SA CAT I, SA CAT II, CAT II and CAT III precision approaches, or
b. for CAT I approaches when the visibility is greater than 800M, or
c. for low visibility take-offs where the visibility is greater than 350M.

ENR 4.2.3

61
Q

Altimeter tolerance?

A

+/- 60’

+/- 75’ considered unserviceable

ENR 1.7.-1

EFA - Rules & Regs (2 decks)

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