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Revalida 2 > Agsa Parasitology > Flashcards

Agsa Parasitology Flashcards

1
Q

The following are true about Entamoeba histolytica, except:
a. Pseudopod-forming
b. Flagellated
c. Most invasive of the Entamoeba parasites
d. No host other than humans is implicated in the life cycle
e. Resistant to gastric acidity and desiccation

A

b. Flagellated

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2
Q

Entamoeba histolytica cyst:
a. Has the ability to colonize and/or invade the large bowel
b. Multiplies by binary fission
c. Highly refractile

A

c. Highly refractile

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3
Q

Incubation period of amebic colitis is
a. 2 to 4 days
b. 4 to 6 days
c. 6 to 8 days
d. 8 to 10 days

A

d. 8 to 10 days

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4
Q

The most serious complication of amebic colitis is rupture in the:
a. Pericardium
b. Intraperitoneal
c. Meningeal
d. Pleura

A

a. Pericardium

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5
Q

The following are causes of bacillary dysentery except:
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Salmonella
c. Yersinia
d. Shigella
e. Campylobacter

A

a. Entamoeba histolytica

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6
Q

Differential diagnosis of ALA include
a. Pyogenic liver abscess
b. GERD
c. Uterine rupture
d. Appendicitis
e. Ovarian cyst

A

a. Pyogenic liver abscess

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7
Q

The following are true about amebic dysentery:
a. Acute onset
b. No Charcot-Leyden crystals
c. No prodromal features
d. Tenesmus is common
e. Odorless stool

A

c. No prodromal features

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8
Q

Drug of choice for asymptomatic cyst passers of Entamoeba histolytica:
a. Metronidazole
b. Tetracycline
c. Diloxanide furoate
d. Secnidazole
e. Tinidazole

A

c. Diloxanide furoate

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9
Q

This is morphologically similar to Entamoeba histolytica, but their DNA and ribosomal RNA are different.
a. Entamoeba dispar
b. Endolimax nana
c. Entamoeba moshkovskii
d. Entamoeba gingivalis

A

a. Entamoeba dispar

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10
Q

Found in the intestines of pigs and monkeys
a. Entamoeba gingivalis
b. Entamoeba polecki
c. Entamoeba coli
d. lodamoeba bütschlii
e. Endolimax nana

A

b. Entamoeba polecki

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11
Q

Causative agent of Acanthamoeba Keratitis
a. Acanthamoeba castellani
b. Acanthamoeba culbertsoni
c. Acanthamoeba hutchetti
d. Acanthamoeba polyphaga
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

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12
Q

A 25-year old female commercial sex worker complains of painful urination with yellowish vaginal discharge. Saline wet preparation of vaginal discharge revealed highly motile trophozoites. The following etiologic agent/s is/are considered:
a. Trichomonas hominis
b. Dientamoeba fragilis
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. None of the above

A

c. Trichomonas vaginalis

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13
Q

Infective stage of Acanthamoeba species:
a. Ameba
b. Cyst
c. Trophozoites
d. Flagellate

A

c. Trophozoites

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14
Q

A.S., 22 years old, female, consulted at the outpatient department because of diarrhea with alternate constipation, associated with excessive flatus, with “rotten egg” odor and abdominal pain for 2 weeks. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Amebiasis
b. Giardiasis
c. Balantidiasis
d. Shigellosis

A

b. Giardiasis

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15
Q

The following are true with primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM), except:
a. Can affect previously healthy adults
b. With a history of swimming
c. Diagnosis is based on demonstration of characteristic trophozoites in the brain and cerebrospinal fluid
d. Predominantly an opportunistic infection
e. Direct route of entry is through invasion of organism through the olfactory bulb

A

d. Predominantly an opportunistic infection

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16
Q

Stage of Entamoeba histolytica is usually found in diarrheal stool:
a. Trophozoite
b. Precyst
c. Cyst
d. Metacystic trophozoite

A

a. Trophozoite

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17
Q

This drug causes decreased pseudopod formation and form blebs on the plasma membrane of Naegleria fowleri
a. Azithromycin
b. Pentamidine
c. Amphotericin B

A

c. Amphotericin B

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18
Q

Procedure of choice for Acanthamoeba Keratitis
a. Epithelial tissue removal
b. Special Bandages
c. Tissue Graft
d. Deep lamellar keratectomy

A

d. Deep lamellar keratectomy

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19
Q

Granulomatous amoebic encephalis incubation period for initial inoculation
a. 14 days
b. 9 days
c. 7 days
d. 10 days

A

d. 10 days

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20
Q

Decreases the number of food vacuoles and increases the formation of autophagic vacuoles in the treatment of PAM
a. Amphotericin B
b. Clotrimazole
c. Azithromycin
d. Voriconazole
e. Miconazole

A

a. Amphotericin B

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21
Q

A 25 yr old male came to the hospital because of abdominal pain and diarrhea with blood and mucus in the stools, fever and right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain. Fecalysis reported cyst and trophozoite of E. histolytica. What non-invasive laboratory test will you request that will guide you in your definitive diagnosis?
a. X-ray
b. Ultrasound
c. Percutaneous biopsy
d. ELISA
e. Indirect Hemagllutination test

A

b. Ultrasound

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22
Q

A 4 yr old male child was brought to the ER because of high grade fever accompanied by profuse sweating; he is delirious, and his skin is flushed and hot. These symptoms occur every 72 hours. What is the most probable malarial species causing this infection?
a. Plasmodium falciparum
b. Plasmodium knowlesi
c. Plasmodium vivax
d. Plasmodium malariae
e. Plasmodium ovale

A

d. Plasmodium malariae

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23
Q

Oral apparatus of Balantidium coli trophozoite:
a. contractile vacuoles
b. Cytostome
c. Cytopyge
d. Micronucleus
e. macronucleus

A

b. Cytostome

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24
Q

Act as osmoregulatory organelles of Balantidium coli trophozoite:
a. Contractile vacuoles
b. Cytostome
c. Cytopyge
d. Macronucleus
e. micronucleus

A

a. Contractile vacuoles

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25
Q

Ulcer with a rounded base and wide neck is characteristic of?
a. Balantidium coli
b. Giardia duodenalis
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Trichomonas hominis
e. Chilomastix mesnili

A

a. Balantidium coli

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26
Q

The trophozoite of this protozoan is asymmetrically pear-shaped:
a. Balantidium coli
b. Giardia duodenalis
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Trichomonas hominis
e. Chilomastix mesnili

A

e. Chilomastix mesnili

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27
Q

The only ciliate known to cause human disease
a. Balantidium coli
b. Giardia duodenalis
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Trichomonas hominis
e. Chilomastix mesnili

A

a. Balantidium coli

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28
Q

This protozoan causes alterations in the villi such as villous flattening and crypt hypertrophy
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Giardia duodenalis
c. Chilomastix mesnili
d. Trichomonas tenax
e. Trichomonas hominis

A

b. Giardia duodenalis

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29
Q

This is a pyriform flagellate which has been observed only in the trophozoite stage
a. Trichomonas tenax
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Giardia duodenalis
d. Chilomastix mesnili

A

a. Trichomonas tenax

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30
Q

Gold standard in the diagnosis for trichomoniasis
a. Trichomonas hominis
b. Urinalysis
c. Saline preparation of vaginal fluid
d. fecalysis

A

Accepted gold standard is CULTURE which takes 2 to 5 days.

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31
Q

The complete life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii occurs in:
a. Cats
b. Dogs
c. Culture
d. Goats
e. Humans

A

a. Cats

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32
Q

Prophylaxis for toxoplasmosis that may be given for the immunocompromised:
a. Pyrimetharine
b. Sulfadiazine
c. Azitromycin
d. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
e. Leucovorin

A

d. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

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33
Q

Definitive hosts for Sarcocystis spp
a. Pigs
b. Dogs
c. Cattle
d. Sheep
e. Human

A

e. Human

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34
Q

Definitive diagnosis for sarcocystosis:
a. Fecalysis
b. Biopsy of an infected muscle
c. X-ray
d. Fecal flotation wet mount
e. Polymerase chain regaction

A

b. Biopsy of an infected muscle

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35
Q

It is banana shaped cell, witha a pointed anterior end; simplest form of Sarcocysis:
a. Oocysts
b. Sporocysts
c. Sporozotes
d. Zoites
e. merozoites

A

d. Zoites

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36
Q

Treatment for Toxoplasmosis
a. Metroridezole
b. Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine
c. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
d. Mebendazole
e. Albendazole

A

b. Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

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37
Q

The villi of the intestines become blunted and there is infiltration of inflammatory cells into the lamina propria and elongated crypts.
a. Cryptosporidiosis
b. Cyclosporidiosis
c. Cystoisosporiasis
d. Toxoplasmosis
e. Sarcocystosis

A

a. Cryptosporidiosis

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38
Q

If an immunocompetent individual develops cryptosporidiosis, which of the following is considered the drug of choice?
a. Tinidazole
b. Metronidazole
c. Paromomycin
d. Azithromycin
e. Nitazoxanide

A

e. Nitazoxanide

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39
Q

For a patient having clinical manifestations following ingestion of Cystoisospora ocysts, which of the following is the pharmacological agent of choice?
a. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
b. Nitazoxanide
c. Azithromycin
d. Metronidazole
e. Tinidazole

A

a. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

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40
Q

Which of the following is the correct pattern of Toxoplasma gondi transmission?
a. Cyst → lungs → brain
b. Contaminated syringes - blood
c. Dog bite → blood → liver → brain
d. Cat bite → blood → kidney
e. Contaminated food → intestine → blood → liver

A

e. Contaminated food → intestine → blood → liver

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41
Q

Which life cycle stage of Plasmodium is injected by female Anopheles mosquitos into humans?
a. Gametophyte
b. Schizont
c. Early Trophozoite
d. Sporozoite
e. Merozoite

A

d. Sporozoite

42
Q

The average pre-patent period for Plasmodium falciparum is:
a. 11 to 14 days
b. 3 to 4 weeks
c. 11to 15 days
d. 11 days to 4 weeks
e. 14 to 26 days

A

a. 11 to 14 days

43
Q

This form of balantidiasis presents with diarrhea which may alternate with constipation, and may be accompanied by nonspecific symptoms such as abdominal pain or cramping, anemia, and cachexia.
a. Asymptomatic carriers
b. Fulminant balantidiasis
c. Chronic form
d. Balantidial dysentery
e. None of the above

A

c. Chronic form

44
Q

Which life cycle stage of Plasmodium is injected by female Anopheles mosquitoes into humans?
a. Early trophozoite
b. Schizont
c. Sporozoite
d. Merozoites
e. Gametophyte

A

c. Sporozoite

45
Q

Infects erythrocytes of all ages
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium ovale
c. Plasmodium malariae
d. Plasmodium falciparum
e. All of the above

A

d. Plasmodium falciparum

46
Q

Which of the following is a parenteral antimalarial drug for treatment of severe malaria?
a. Chloroquine
b. Tetracycline
c. Proguanil
d. Quinine
e. Pyrimethamine

A

d. Quinine

47
Q

What is the action of the quinine?
a. Attack the parasite in the red blood cell, preventing or terminating the clinical attack
b. Destroy the sexual forms of the parasite in the blood
c. Kill the dormant forms in the liver
d. Inhibit the development of the oocysts on the gut wall of the mosquito

A

a. Attack the parasite in the red blood cell, preventing or terminating the clinical attack

48
Q

Reactivation of hypnozoite forms of parasite in liver, separate from previous infection with same species.
a. Recrudescence
b. Relapse
c. Recurrence
d. Pre-patent period
e. Incubation period

A

b. Relapse

49
Q

Plasmodium knowlesi and Plasmodium malariae differentiation is only achieved through?
a. Thick and thin blood smears stained with Giemsa or Wright’s stain
b. Malaria rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs)
c. Immunochromatographic test
d. Indirect hemagglutination (HA)
e. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay

A

e. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay

50
Q

The incubation period, the time between sporozoite injection and the appearance of clinical symptoms
a. 8 to 15 days
b. 12 to 20 days
c. 11 to 16 days
d. 18 to 40 days

A

d. 18 to 40 days

51
Q

A 28-year-old-woman at 20 weeks gestation returned from Ethiopia and presented with a history of fever, soft swelling of the forehead with severe regional lymphadenopathy. Blood smear shows Trypanosoma brucei treatment of choice is
a. Albendazole
b. Ivermectin
c. Suramin
d. Mebendazole
e. Praziquantel

A

c. Suramin

52
Q

Regarding Chagas’ disease:
a. It is caused by Trypanosoma brucei complex
b. Human acquires the disease via the bites of infected sandflies
c. It causes megasyndrome in patients with prolonged illness
d. The most common clinical manifestation is Winterbottom’s sign
e. It can be diagnosed by detecting the promastigote in the spleen

A

c. It causes megasyndrome in patients with prolonged illness

53
Q

How are hemoflagellates transmitted?
a. Penetration of the skin
b. Ingestion
c. Insect vectors
d. Sexual transmission

A

a. Penetration of the skin

54
Q

What is the size range for an epimastigote?
a. 7-13 um long
b. 10-18 um long
c. 6-11um long
d. 0-15 m long

A

b. 10-18 um long

55
Q

The dovelopment of Trypanosoma cruzi in the vector takas in how may days?
a. 11-13 days
b. 4-8 days
c. 8-10 days
d. 5-7 day

A

c. 8-10 days

56
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi causes:
a. Kala azar dermal leishmaniasis
b. African trypanosomiasis
c. Chaga’s Disease
d. Cutaneous leishmaniasis

A

c. Chaga’s Disease

57
Q

What is the invertebrate host of Trypanosoma brucei gambiense?
a. Tse tse Fly
b. Reduviid bug
c. Bot Fly
d. Sand Fly

A

a. Tse tse Fly

58
Q

What vector is responsible for the transmission of Leishmania sp.?
a. Bot Fly
b. Tse Tse Fly
c. Reduviid bug
d. Sand Fly

A

d. Sand Fly

59
Q

Visceral Laishmaniasis (kala-azar) is caused by what Leishmania complex?
a. Leishmania tropica complex
b. Leishmania donovani complex
c. Leishmania brazillensis complex
d. Leishmania mexicans complex

A

b. Leishmania donovani complex

60
Q

Typanosama brucei rhodesiense causes:
a. Acute Chaga’s disease
b. East African sleeping sickness
c. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
d. African trypanosomiasis

A

b. East African sleeping sickness

61
Q

Primary host of Babesia spp
a. Hard ticks
b. Human
c. Birds
d. Reptiles
e. Rodents

A

b. Human

62
Q

Intermediate host of Babesia spp
a. Hard ticks
b. Human
c. Birds
d. Reptiles
e. Rodents

A

a. Hard ticks

63
Q

The following are true with Babesia spp:
a. Babesia undergo exo-erythrocytio merogony
b. Daughter progeny are housed in parasitophorous vacuoles
c. Residual bodies are usually non-existent in infected RBCs
d. Undergoes three developmental phases in the intermediate host
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

64
Q

Considered to be the gold standard for Babesia detection.
a. Direct microscopic examination of Giemsa-stained peripheral blood smears for the presence of Babesia
b. Immunofluorescent assay (IFA)
c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
d. ICT (immunochromatographic test)
e. All of the above

A

c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

65
Q

Can strongly inhibit the growth of B. equi and B. caballi in vitro except:
a. Azithromycin
b. Artemisinin
c. Pyrmethamin
d. Pamaquine
e. All of the above

A

a. Azithromycin

66
Q

Can indirectly interrupt the parasite life cycle through its inhibitory effect on dihydrofolate reductase, essential in folate metabolism
a. Azithromycin
b. Artemisin
c. Pamaquine
d. Pyrimethamine
e. All of the above

A

d. Pyrimethamine

67
Q

This drug combination is efficacious in clearing the parasites in normal individuals and prevents recurrence of infection, but produces adverse effects like vertigo, tinnitus, and gastrointestinal symptoms:
a. Clindamycin + Quinine
b. Atovaquone + Azithromycin
c. Artemisinin + Quinine
d. Clindamycin + Atovaquone

A

d. Clindamycin + Atovaquone

68
Q

The following are true about Babesia except:
a. Hard ticks (family Ixodidae) are the known biological hosts of Babesia
b. Hemosporidian parasite
c. Causes Nantucket fever
d. In humans, transmission through blood transfusion, organ transplantation, and transplacental route
e. Undergo exo-erythrocytic cycle

A

e. Undergo exo-erythrocytic cycle

69
Q

What is the infective stage of Babesia for a tick host?
a. Sporozoites
b. Marozoites
c. Hypnozoites
d. Gametocytes
e. Trophozoites

A

a. Sporozoites

70
Q

Definitive diagnosis for babesiosis
a. Direct microscopic examination of Giemsa-stained peripheral blood smears for the presence of Babesia
b. Indirect hemagglutination (IHA)
c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
d. Immunochromatographic test
e. Immunofluorescent assay (IFA)

A

a. Direct microscopic examination of Giemsa-stained peripheral blood smears for the presence of Babesia

71
Q

Substance/s that interfere with stool examinations is/are:
a. Chloroquine
b. Chlorine
c. Castor oil
d. Chloroquine and castor oil

A

d. Chloroquine and castor oil

72
Q

This technique of stool examination makes use of a heavy liquid to the surface of which the lighter parasites rise:
a. Flotation
b. Sedimentation
c. Wet mount
d. None of the options is correct

A

a. Flotation

73
Q

How many stool specimens are needed/collected if none wishes to determine the presence or absence of helminth parasites using the concentration technique?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

b. 3

74
Q

The most useful for the detection of trophic forms of amebae and flagellates
a. Flotation
b. Direct wet film
c. Centrifugation
d. None of the options is correct

A

a. Flotation

75
Q

The following are true of biopsy specimens, except:
a. Biopsy specimens are recommended for diagnosis of tissue or auto proteus, of the tissue specimen against a side forever
b. An impression smear sea collection of cells, microorganisms, or fluids produced by pressing the surface
c. Squash preparations are not recommended
d. None, all statements are correct

A

c. Squash preparations are not recommended

76
Q

Organisms commonly recovered in sputum examination is/are
a. Paragonimus
b. Entamoeba
c. Ascaris
d. A and B are more common

A

d. A and B are more common

77
Q

Organisms commonly isolated and recovered in the urogenital trat is/are:
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Brugia malayi
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. All are correct

A

d. All are correct

78
Q

Which of the following procedures in preparing the Giemsa’s stain for examination of thin films is INCORRECT?
a. Immerse slides in a solution of 3 parts Giemsa stock to 30 to 50 parts buffered water
b. Fix blood films in absolute methyl alcohol for 1 minute
c. Dip slides briefly in buffered water, drain quickly and thoroughly, and air-dry
d. Allow slides to dry

A

a. Immerse slides in a solution of 3 parts Giemsa stock to 30 to 50 parts buffered water

79
Q

This pathognomonic feature appears to be a constant finding in urinary schistosomiasis:
a. Leukocytosis
b. Eosinophiluria
c. Hematuria
d. Pyuria

A

c. Hematuria

80
Q

This concentration technique hemolyzes the RBs and concentrates leukocytes and microfilariae:
a. Modified Knott’s
b. Acridine orange
c. Hansel’s secretion technique
d. Triple-centrifugation

A

a. Modified Knott’s

81
Q

The egg of the pinworm is
a. Barrel-shaped with plug-like translucent polar eminences
b. Irregularly mamillated
c. Surrounded by a single thin transparent hyaline shell with bluntly rounded ends
d. Asymmetrical-one side flattened, other side convex
e. Appear in packets

A

d. Asymmetrical-one side flattened, other side convex

82
Q

This drug acts on the transmembrane potential of Ascaris muscle, temporarily relaxing it and causes the worm to lose its urge to move upstream to maintain its position:
a. Albendazole
b. Mebendazole
c. Pyrantel pamoate
d. Piperazine
e. None of the above

A

d. Piperazine

83
Q

The life cycle of Strongyloides stercoralis differs from that of hookworm in the following:
a. Strongyloides eggs hatch into larvae in the intestine before they are passed in feces
b. Larvae can mature into filariform in the intestines and cause autoinfection
c. Strongyloides stercoralis has no free-living, nonparasitic cycle
d. All of the above
e. A and B only

A

e. A and B only

84
Q

The following is/are soil-transmitted helminths:
a. Ascaris lumbricoldes
b. Ancylostoma duodenale
c. Trichuris trichiura
d. A and B only
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

85
Q

A 50-year old fisherman sought consultation due to diarrhea of more than one month. He describes it as 5 times or more loose stooling in a day. This was accompanied by vague abdominal pain and audible rumbling or gurgling sound of his stomach. He admits to being fond of eating raw, freshly-caught fish. The most likely involved worm is:
a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Capillaria philippinensis
c. Wuchereria bancrofti
d. Strongyloides stercoralis

A

b. Capillaria philippinensis

86
Q

A 6-year old child was brought by her mother to the OPD due to anal pruritus. The characteristic egg below was isolated from the child. Which of the following characteristic/s describe the helminth involved?
a. They have cuticular expansions at their posterior end.
b. The gravid female worms deposit their eggs outside the intestinal tract.
c. The larva migrate to the heart and lungs before it is swallowed
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

87
Q

A 4-year old child from the slum area was found to have a barrel-shaped egg with bipolar plugs on stool examination. Manifestations of this parasite in humans include:
a. Rectal prolapse
b. Peritonitis
c. Pneumonia
d. None of the above

A

a. Rectal prolapse

88
Q

Loeffler’s syndrome manifests with accumulation of eosinophils in the lungs as a response to infection with what parasite?
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Strongyloides stercoralis
c. Hookworms
d. Trichuris trichiura

A

c. Hookworms

89
Q

The following characteristic/s is /are manifested by Enterobius vermicularis:
a. Cephalic alae
b. Posterior esophageal bulb
c. Holomyarian musculature
d. A and B only
e. All of the above

A

d. A and B only

90
Q

What do you call the organism in which the adult or sexually mature stage of parasite lives?
a. Intermediate host
b. Definitive host
c. Vector
d. Reservoir
e. None of the above

A

b. Definitive host

91
Q

The living carrier that transports a pathogenic organism from an infected to a non-infected host is
a. Intermediate host
b. Definitive host
c. Reservoir
d. Vector
e. None of the above

A

d. Vector

92
Q

Which of the following is categorized as ectoparasite?
a. Nematodes
b. Ticks
c. Trematodes
d. Cestodes
e. None of the above

A

b. Ticks

93
Q

This parasite rarely appears in stool, it is usually observed with cotton swab/ plaster swab/tape swab in the anus
a. Roundworm
b. Tapeworm
c. Pinworm
d. Hookworm

A

c. Pinworm

94
Q

Characteristics of facultative parasites are the following, except:
a. Can exist in a free-living state
b. Always need a host
c. May or may not be parasitic
d. None of the options is correct

A

b. Always need a host

95
Q

This process is described as the process of inoculating the host with an infective agent.
a. Exposure
b. Infection
c. Life cycle
d. Incubation period

A

a. Exposure

96
Q

This process occurs when the infected individual becomes his own source of clinical infection.
a. Inoculation
b. Exposure
c. Autoinfection
d. Incubation period

A

c. Autoinfection

97
Q

Diseases that could be transmitted by contaminated water is/are:
a. Amoebiasis
b. Giardiasis
c. Acute gastroenteritis
d. All are correct

A

d. All are correct

98
Q

This is the process of living together of two different species of organisms.
a. Mutualism
b. Parasitism
c. Commensalism
d. Symbiosis

A

d. Symbiosis

99
Q

A spurious parasite is best defined as:
a. It lives on its host for a short period of time.
b. It lives on its host for its entire life.
c. It is a free-living organism that passes through the GI tract without causing disease to its host.
d. It always causes infection on its host.

A

c. It is a free-living organism that passes through the GI tract without causing disease to its host.

100
Q

Example/examples of biologic vectors is/are:
a. Aedes albopticus
b. Colorado tick
c. Sandfly
d. All are correct

A

d. All are correct

Revalida 2 (6 decks)

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