after exam a Flashcards
what is the throughput of Thunderbolt 3?
40 gigabits per second
What is the throughput of SATA Revision 3?
6 gigabits per second
What is throughput?
the amount of material or items passing through a system or process.
what is the throughput of USB 3.0?
5 gigabits per second
What is 1000BASE-T?
1000BASE-T is Gigabit Ethernet – 1 gigabit is 1,000 megabits per second (Mbps) on copper cables, using four pairs of Category 5 (Cat5) unshielded twisted pair
WHAT IS THE THROUGHPUT OF 1000BASE-T?
1 gigabit per second
what is the throughput of 802.11g?
54 megabits per second
what port is reserved for snmp?
udp 161 & 162
what port is reserved for LDAP?
tcp 389
what does raid stand for?
Redundant Array of Independent Disks
what are the raid levels?
- RAID 0 – Striping
- RAID 1 - Mirroring
- RAID 5 – Striping with Parity
- Nested RAID - RAID 1+0 (a.k.a. RAID 10) - A stripe of mirrors
What level of raid is this description?
• File blocks are split between two or more
physical drives
• High performance
• Data written quickly
• No redundancy
• A drive failure breaks the array
RAID 0 - Striping
what is raid 0 known as?
striping
What level of raid is this description?
• File blocks are duplicated between two or more
physical drives
• High disk utilization
• Every file is duplicated
• Required disk space is doubled
• High redundancy
• Drive failure does not affect data availability
RAID 1 - Mirroring
What is RAID 1 known as?
Mirroring
What level of raid is this description?
- File blocks are striped
- Along with a parity block
- Requires at least three disks
- Efficient use of disk space
- Files aren’t duplicated, but space is still used for parity
- High redundancy
- Data is available after drive failure
- Parity calculation may affect performance
AID 5 – Striping with parity
what level of raid is described below?
- The speed of striping, the redundancy of mirroring
- The best of both worlds
- Need at least 4 drives
RAID 10 (1+0) – A stripe of mirrors
what is raid 10 known as?
RAID 10 (1+0) – A stripe of mirrors
A system administrator has connected an external USB drive to a
computer to transfer some documents. When booting the computer, the
system tries to boot from the external drive and gives an error message.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent the USB drive
from booting?
❍ A. Modify the BIOS to boot from the internal hard drive
❍ B. Modify the boot order in Windows Disk Management
❍ C. Rebuild the MBR on the external hard drive
❍ D. Disable the external drive in Device Manager
A. Modify the BIOS to boot from the internal hard drive
Which of the following would be MOST likely found on a DVD-ROM? ❍ A. Document archive ❍ B. Operating system boot files ❍ C. RAID parity files ❍ D. BIOS configurations
A. Document archive
A technician is connecting a laptop to an LCD projector in a conference
room. The display on the laptop works properly, but the projector image
is constantly flickering and pixelating. The technician has modified the
resolution and refresh rates, but the projector image continues to flicker.
Which of the following would be the BEST next troubleshooting step?
❍ A. Replace the video cable
❍ B. Disable the laptop display
❍ C. Replace the projector bulb
❍ D. Power cycle the projector
The Answer: A. Replace the video cable
A display issue associated with flickering and poor video quality would
commonly point to the connection between the video adapter and the
display device. In the case of an LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) projector,
there’s sometimes a very long (and very worn) cable that can cause signal
issues to show on the projected image
A system administrator is building a server for a data center in another
country. The server will manage a print queue and provide a local storage
partition for temporary file transfers. Which of the following power
supply specifications will be the MOST important for this server?
❍ A. Voltage input options
❍ B. Number of PCIe connectors
❍ C. Modular cabling
❍ D. Fan noise rating
A. Voltage input options
Connecting to the power source in a different country is an important
consideration when selecting a power supply. If the voltage specifications
are incorrect, the server may not operate at all or components in the server
may be damaged. Many servers use auto-switching power supplies are
compatible with the power systems in other countries.
A network administrator is troubleshooting a network outage, and she
believes that the issue is related to a bad switch. The old switch is replaced
with a newer model and the cabling is moved to the new switch. Which
of the following should be the NEXT troubleshooting steps? (Choose
TWO)
❍ A. Test the theory ❍ B. Verify full system functionality ❍ C. Establish a plan of action ❍ D. Identify the problem ❍ E. Document the findings
The Answers: B. Verify full system functionality, and
E. Document the findings
Once the theory has been tested, a plan of action has been determined,
and the plan has been implemented, it’s important to verify that full
system functionality has been restored. After all of this work, it’s useful to
document the problem, the proposed solutions, and the ultimate fix. This
problem might occur again, and it would be useful to have some historical
documentation on how to address the issue.
The internal Bluetooth adapter of a laptop has failed, and the user would
like to get a repair estimate. Which of the following would be the BEST
way to determine an accurate price of an exact replacement?
❍ A. Research online forums
❍ B. Determine the purchase price of a USB to Bluetooth adapter
❍ C. Disassemble the laptop case and document the process
❍ D. View the Bluetooth information in Network settings
C. Disassemble the laptop case and document the process
Although the operating system driver can sometimes provide details about
what’s inside, they often can hide details about the specific hardware. The
only way to know the exact make and model of the Bluetooth adapter is
a physical examination. Some laptops are easier to open than others, so
it’s useful to document the process used to gain access to the Bluetooth
hardware.
An application developer needs to test an application across all of the
operating systems used by the company. Each operating system will be
tested individually in a lab environment. The company would like to
minimize any additional hardware purchases for this project. Which of
the following would be the BEST way to test this application?
❍ A. Purchase a system that is configured just above the hardware
requirements for the highest-end operating system. Create separate
VMs for each operating system.
❍ B. Purchase individual test computers that match the hardware
requirements for each OS. Install different operating systems on
each test computer.
❍ C. Designate existing user workstations to be used as testing systems.
Run all application tests during non-working hours.
❍ D. Purchase a system that matches the minimum hardware
requirements for the highest-end operating system. Create a system
image for each operating system and reimage the computer
between tests.
The Answer: A. Purchase a system that is configured just above the
hardware requirements for the highest-end operating system. Create
separate VMs for each operating system.
Creating virtual machines for these tests would be a great way to
minimize hardware costs, and the machine used for the testing should be
able to properly virtualize the testing OS while the host OS is running.
Purchasing a system that is slightly more powerful than the highest-level
operating system configuration should cover any technical requirements.
What is the minimum category of unshielded copper cable that would
run a 10 gigabit per second Ethernet link with a fifteen meter distance?
❍ A. Category 5
❍ B. Category 6
❍ C. Category 5e
❍ D. Category 6A
The Answer: B. Category 6
The physical characteristics of networking cables are separated into
categories. A category 6 cable can support a ten gigabit per second
10GBASE-T network to a distance of thirty-seven to fifty-five meters.
The incorrect answers:
A. Category 5
Category 5 copper cables can support a one gigabit per second
1000BASE-T network up to one hundred meters. Ten gigabit per second
speeds are not support over category 5 cable.
C. Category 5e
Category 5e (enhanced) is a minor update to category 5, and the Ethernet
standards supported for a category 5e cable are identical to those of a
category 5 cable. Therefore, category 5e copper cables can support a one
gigabit per second 1000BASE-T network up to one hundred meters in
length.
D. Category 6A
Category 6A (augmented) cables can support ten gigabit per second
10GBASE-T connections to a distance of one hundred meters.
An engineer has manually configured IP addresses for a small office
that uses a cable modem for Internet connectivity. However, none of the
devices configured with a manual IP address are able to browse Internet
websites. All devices are connected to the cable modem with twisted-pair
Ethernet cables. This is the configuration of one device:
IP address: 192.168.1.7
Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0
Default gateway: 192.168.1.1
DNS: 192.168.1.7
The engineer can successfully ping the local IP address and the
default gateway address. Which of the following should be the NEXT
troubleshooting step?
❍ A. Check for duplicate IP addresses
❍ B. Replace the Ethernet cable
❍ C. Check the DNS configuration
❍ D. Replace the cable modem
The Answer: C. Check the DNS configuration
One of the most noticeable of the IP (Internet Protocol) configuration
settings was that the DNS (Domain Name Service) server IP address
was configured to be the same as the local device. Since DNS servers are
commonly separate (and often remote) devices, it would be unusual to
see a DNS configured with the same IP address of the local device. The
next step should be to confirm the DNS settings with the local network
administrator.
A system administrator created a series of VMs that will use a portion of
a server’s available physical memory. Which of the following describes
this cloud computing characteristic?
❍ A. Resource pooling
❍ B. Rapid elasticity
❍ C. Metered
❍ D. On-demand
The Answer: A. Resource pooling
Resource pooling places all of the computing resources in one place, and
then distributes from the pool when needed. A VM (Virtual Machine)
manager using a portion of available physical memory is taking advantage
of resource pooling.
The incorrect answers:
B. Rapid elasticity
Rapid elasticity is the characteristic of scaling up or down cloud resources
with demand. More resources will be made available during busy times,
and those resources will be seamlessly removed when the demand is low.
C. Metered
Metered resources are measured based on usage. As more information
is uploaded, stored, and downloaded, the costs are tracked and billed
accordingly.
D. On-demand
Cloud computing allows the users to create or remove resources at any
time, or on-demand. This flexibility allows organizations to quickly react to
changes, deploy updates, and remove excess resources
A server administrator has been asked to troubleshoot a system that
has been slowing down over time. While examining the computer, the
administrator can hear a series of clicks from the inside of the case.
Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address this issue?
❍ A. Replace the motherboard
❍ B. Power the system off and back on
❍ C. Replace the hard drive
❍ D. Perform a full backup of the server
❍ E. Replace the power supply
D. Perform a full backup of the server
A clicking noise indicates some type of hardware issue with the computer,
so the first step would be to confirm that a recent backup is available for
all of the data on this system. If the computer fails completely, at least the
data will be secure.
A manager is able to receive email messages on their tablet, but they’re
having problems configuring the tablet to send email messages. Which of
the following should be the FIRST troubleshooting step?
❍ A. Check the SMTP settings
❍ B. Check the IP address configuration
❍ C. Send a test message using web-based email
❍ D. Check the IMAP settings
The Answer: A. Check the SMTP settings
If you’re sending an email message from an email client, you’re commonly
using SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol). There are three SMTP
configuration settings that are important; the SMTP server name or IP
address, the SMTP username, and the SMTP password.
The incorrect answers:
B. Check the IP address configuration
If there were problems with the IP configuration, the manager would not
be able to receive any email messages. In this question, the issue does not
appear to be related to the IP address configuration.
C. Send a test message using web-based email
Sending an email message over web-based email would effectively bypass
the local email client and would not help troubleshoot the local issues.
D. Check the IMAP settings
IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is used for receiving email and
not for sending email. In this example, the manager was able to receive
messages, so the IMAP settings would most likely be working properly
A network administrator is installing a wireless access point in a new conference room. Which of these settings would provide the BEST security for this installation? ❍ A. WPA2 encryption ❍ B. SSID suppression ❍ C. Static IP addressing ❍ D. UPnP ❍ E. MAC filtering
The Answer: A. WPA2 encryption
Configuring WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access II) encryption would
prevent unauthorized users from accessing the wireless network and would
encrypt the data sent over the wireless network.
The incorrect answers:
B. SSID suppression
Preventing the SSID (Service Set Identifier) from appearing in lists of
available wireless networks would not provide any significant security
feature. If someone knows the name of the network, they would still be
able to connect.
C. Static IP addressing
Static IP (Internet Protocol) addressing is useful for unique environments
that require specific IP address assignments, but assigning IP addresses
statically doesn’t add any significant security to the network.
D. UPnP
UPnP (Universal Plug and Play) allows network devices to automatically
locate and configure other network devices. Generally speaking, the
automatic configuration feature of UPnP makes the network LESS secure.
E. MAC filtering
Filtering traffic by MAC (Media Access Control) address can be easily
circumvented with a packet capture application, so MAC filtering would
not be considered a security feature.
A user would like to connect a tablet to their laptop computer using
802.11, but they are in a location without a wireless access point. Which
of the following would be the BEST way to make this connection?
❍ A. Enable Bluetooth discovery on the tablet
❍ B. Configure infrastructure mode on both devices
❍ C. Create shared folders on the laptop computer
❍ D. Use ad hoc mode
The Answer: D. Use ad hoc mode
Ad hoc mode allows two devices to directly communicate over an 802.11
wireless link without using an access point.
The incorrect answers:
A. Enable Bluetooth discovery on the tablet
Enabling Bluetooth discovery would allow the tablet to use Bluetooth
peripherals, but it would not enable 802.11 networking between the tablet
and the laptop.
B. Configure infrastructure mode on both devices
Infrastructure mode is the 802.11 configuration used with an access point.
In this question, the two devices need to communicate without using an
access point.
C. Create shared folders on the laptop computer
Creating shared folders would potentially allow access from another
device, but the network would need to be available to provide the
connectivity.
Which of the following is used to forward traffic based on a destination MAC address? ❍ A. Unmanaged switch ❍ B. Repeater ❍ C. Router ❍ D. Firewall
The Answer: A. Unmanaged switch
Switches determine how traffic is forwarded based on the destination
MAC (Media Access Control) address in the frame. The qualification of
managed or unmanaged is not important in this case, since both types
of switches make forwarding decisions the same way. The difference
between a managed and unmanaged switch are based on other features not
associated with the forwarding process.
The incorrect answers:
B. Repeater
A repeater receives a signal, regenerates the signal, and then passes the
signal on to the next network link. There are no forwarding decisions
occurring inside of a repeater.
C. Router
A router makes forwarding decisions based on the destination IP (Internet
Protocol) address of a packet.
D. Firewall
A firewall controls the flow of traffic based on a set of predefined security
policies. If the traffic flow matches one of the policies, the firewall can be
configured to allow or block that traffic flow.
A system administrator made some BIOS changes to a desktop computer
running Windows 10, and now this message appears when starting the
computer:
“This drive can only boot in UEFI mode.”
Which of the following would be the BEST next troubleshooting step?
❍ A. Modify the boot drive sequence
❍ B. Enable Secure Boot
❍ C. Remove the BIOS password
❍ D. Boot the system with the Windows setup media
The Answer: B. Enable Secure Boot
Secure Boot is part of the UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface)
standard for a computer BIOS (Basic Input Output System). Secure Boot
ensures that the underlying operating system has not been modified by
malware or any other process.
The incorrect answers:
A. Modify the boot drive sequence
Changing the boot drive sequence in the BIOS would not resolve the
UEFI or Security Boot process.
C. Remove the BIOS password
UEFI mode and Secure Boot do not require a boot or management
password, and removing any of those passwords will not resolve the error
message.
D. Boot the system with the Windows setup media
Booting with separate media would not resolve this issue when booting
to the primary storage drive. UEFI mode with Secure Boot is required for
this system.
