AFH 1 - Chapter 5 - Doctrine, Joint Force and Mobilization Flashcards

(89 cards)

1
Q

The growing threats to United States and allied interests throughout the world demand ______ be proficient across the range of military operations.

A

U.S. Armed Forces

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2
Q

What operations are conducted routinely and efficiently in the current operational environment?

A

Joint Operations

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3
Q

When _____ participate in multinational operations, our commanders follow multinational doctrine and ratified procedures.

A

U.S. Armed Forces

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4
Q

Basic doctrine, contained in ____ 1, The Air Force, is the Air Force’s premier statement of our beliefs and the cornerstone upon which our Service identity is based.

A

Air Force Doctrine Publication

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5
Q

Focusing on using forces within a domain is a vital _____ step to integration of efforts.

A

First

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6
Q

The principles of joint operations are formed around the ____ traditional principles of war.

A

Nine

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7
Q

What is an integral part of protecting aircraft and fixed bases where they are especially vulnerable?

A

Security through force protection

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8
Q

What operations may require years to reach the termination criteria?

A

Joint operations

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9
Q

What command is an approach to C2 that empowers subordinate decision-making for flexibility, initiative and responsiveness in the accomplishment of commander’s intent?

A

Mission command

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10
Q

What command is the organizing standard for the effective and efficient means of employing airpower; it enables the principle of mass while maintaining the principle of economy of force?

A

Centralized command

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11
Q

What force hold the ultimate high ground?

A

Space Force

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12
Q

What commander should balance combat opportunity, necessity, effectiveness, efficiency, and the impact on accomplishing assigned objectives against the associated risk to friendly forces?

A

Air component commander

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13
Q

What operations include combat when necessary to achieve objectives at all levels of warfare?

A

Joint operations

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14
Q

One of the founding initiatives which addressed joint interdependence and joint interoperability was the Goldwater-Nichols Department of Defense Reorganization Act of _____.

A

1986

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15
Q

What is the command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of combatant command and may be delegated within the command?

A

OPCON

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16
Q

What is a Service authority that flows through Service channels?

A

ADCON

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17
Q

What is subject to the command authority of combatant commanders?

A

ADCON

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18
Q

When mobilized under Title 10, USC, command of ______ is assigned by the Secretary of Defense to the combatant commands.

A

National Guard and Reserve Forces

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19
Q

A joint force is a force composed of elements, assigned or attached, of ____ or more Military Departments operating under a single joint force commander.

A

Two

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20
Q

What forces are established at three levels: unified combatant commands, subordinate unified commands, and joint task forces?

A

Joint forces

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21
Q

A ___ is a term applied to a combatant commander, or joint task force commander authorized to exercise combatant command or operational control over a joint force.

A

JFC

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22
Q

Who is responsible for the transfer of forces and other capabilities to designated subordinate commanders for accomplishing assigned tasks?

A

JFC

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23
Q

A _____ will provide all available information to subordinate commanders that affect their missions and objectives.

A

JFC

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24
Q

The title of commander, Air Force forces is reserved to identify the ____ commander of an Air Force component.

A

Air Force

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25
AETFs are sized and tailored to meet the ____ specific mission requirements.
JFC's
26
If augmentation is needed, or if in-theater forces are not available, the _____ will draw from the air expeditionary force currently on rotation.
Air Force
27
What may be regional or functional, aligning with the purpose of the joint force they support?
AOC
28
If the _____ is designated as the JFACC, the AOC will typically received joint augmentation and become the joint AOC.
COMAFFOR
29
The ______ staff is the mechanism through which the COMAFFOR exercises these Service responsibilities.
AFFOR
30
What staff is responsible for the long-range planning and theater engagement operations that fall outside the AOC's current operational focus?
AFFOR
31
If air assets from more than one Service are present within a joint force, the JFC normally will designate a ______ to exploit the full capabilities of joint air operations.
JFACC
32
Who is typically the Service component commander with the preponderance of air capabilities and the ability to plan, task and control joint air operations?
JFACC
33
Because of the wide scope of air operations, the ____ will typically maintain the same joint operating area/theater-wide perspective as the JFC.
JFACC
34
The JFACC, as with any component commander, should not be dual-hatted as the _______.
JFC
35
Joint planning is a means of preparing and managing _____ for mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment and demobilization.
Joint Forces
36
What state is the set of required conditions that defines achievement of military objectives?
Military end state
37
What employs an integrated process for orderly, analytical, and coordinated problem solving and decision-making known as the joint planning process?
Joint planning
38
What begins when an appropriate authority recognizes potential for military capability to be employed in support of national objectives or in response to a potential or actual crisis?
Joint planning
39
The _____ and staff develop a restated mission statement that allows subordinate and supporting commanders to begin their own estimates and planning efforts for higher headquarters' concurrence.
CCDR
40
What is used to study the assigned tasks and to identify all other tasks necessary to accomplish the mission?
Mission analysis
41
What is a potential way to accomplish the assigned mission?
COA
42
A good ____ accomplishes the mission within the commander's guidance, provides flexibility to meet unforeseen events during execution, and positions the joint force for future operations.
COA
43
Wargaming is a primary means for ______.
COA Analysis
44
What is a conscious attempt to visualize the flow of the operation, given joint force strengths and dispositions, adversary capabilities and possible COAs, and other aspects of the Operating Environment?
COA wargaming
45
Each critical event within a proposed ______ should be war-gamed based upon time available using the action, reaction, and counteraction method of friendly and/or opposing force interaction.
COA
46
What facilitates the commander's decision-making process by balancing the ends, means, ways and risk of each COA?
COA comparison
47
Leaders conduct joint planning to understand the strategic and operational environments to determine the best methods for employing __________ capabilities to achieve national objectives.
Department of Defense's
48
The Chairman of _______, as the principal military advisor to the President and SecDef, may offer military advice on the proposed objectives and global prioritization.
Joint Chiefs of Staff
49
What should help senior leaders determine if a military response can help achieve the desired objective at acceptable cost and risk levels?
Crisis planning
50
What is a planning directive that provides essential planning guidance and directs the initiation of plan development after the directing authority approves a military COA?
Planning order
51
An ALERTORD does not authorize execution of the approved _______.
COA
52
What normally specifies the authority that the gaining combatant commander will exercise over the transferred forces?
Deployment or redeployment order
53
What are designed to give an overall picture of an operation or emerging issue?
CONOPS
54
Only the U.S. President and _____ have the authority to approve and direct the initiation of military operations.
Secretary of Defense
55
The Chairman of ________, by authority of and at the direction of the U.S. President or Secretary of Defense, may subsequently issue an execute order to initiate military operations.
Joint Chiefs of Staff
56
The _____ objectives serve as links between military activities and those of other DOD agencies in pursuit of national goals.
NDS
57
The AEF concept was developed to allow ______, _______, and Air National Guard to serve as a combined force.
Regular Air Force, Reserve
58
The ____ is a vehicle for managing and scheduling Air Force Forces for expeditionary purposes; it is not a war fighting organization.
AEF
59
All Air Force personnel contribute to the ____ and are inherently deployable or employable in-place.
AEF
60
A UTC is a five-character alphanumeric designator, designed to identify each type of unit in the ______ and its force capability with personnel and equipment requirements.
U.S. Armed Forces
61
The assignment of a _______ categorizes each type of organization into a class or kind of unit having common distinguishing characteristics.
UTC
62
What codes are used to indicate the number of UTCs required for assigned/committed missions, critical home station requirements, and the number of UTCs available to be simultaneously tasked for deployment?
Posturing codes
63
What organizations identified as "other" will not posture UTCs?
Institutional organizations
64
Units may be tasked to support a ______ they have not postured as long as the unit can meet the mission capability statement.
UTC
65
UDMs support redeployed personnel and serve as the primary liaison to the unit training manager, flight/squadron leadership, wing training functions regarding deployment related issues, and ________.
Installation Deployment Readiness Cell
66
What assessment is the only assessment system that reports at the UTC level and is the primary system used to source unit type codes for taskings and contingencies?
Unit Type Code Assessments
67
Joint doctrine is the only type of doctrine that exists.
False
68
Basic doctrine provides broad and continuing guidance on how the USAF is organized, employed, equipped and sustained.
True
69
Tactical doctrine changes more rapidly compared to basic and operational doctrine.
True
70
The principle of surprise leverages the element of security to attack the enemy at an unexpected time or in an unexpected manner.
True
71
The principle of unity of effort emphasizes the need for various components, agencies, and partners to coordinate their actions and resources towards a common goal.
True
72
The tenet of persistence in airpower operations emphasizes continuous and prolonged action against a broad spectrum of targets.
True
73
The USAF possesses unique capabilities for ensuring global mobility, long-range strike and effective intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance.
True
74
Joint operations involve military actions conducted by joint forces in specified command relationships, including combat when necessary to achieve objectives at all levels of warfare.
True
75
Multinational operations require the integration of necessary resources and interoperability across all domains to achieve overarching objectives.
True
76
Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm demonstrated the value and effectiveness of joint and coalition military operations.
True
77
Unity of command means all forces operate under a single commander, while unity of effort requires coordination and cooperation among all forces toward a commonly recognized objective.
True
78
Joint planning is a means of preparing and managing Joint Forces for mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment and demobilization.
True
79
The Joint Planning Process consists of five steps.
False (7)
80
The Course of Action Analysis and Wargaming step in the Joint Planning Process is primarily focused on evaluating potential COAs.
True
81
Campaign plans are designed to achieve strategic and operational objectives in a given time and space and often involve a single operation.
False (multi operational)
82
Contingency plans are typically prepared in advance to address an anticipated crisis and do not require any modifications during execution.
False (requires modifications during execution)
83
The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff has the authority to issue an execute order (EXORD) to initiate military operations.
False (President and Sec Def)
84
The AEF is structured and executed based on three principles: transparency, predictability and equitability.
True
85
The AEF concept was developed to allow the RegAF, Reserve and Air National Guard to serve as a combined force.
True
86
The AEF is not a war fighting organization.
True (The Air Expeditionary Task Force is the war fighting organization)
87
The Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) is normally the warfighting organization attached to the Joint Force command.
True
88
The Adaptive Planning and Execution System facilities iterative dialogue and collaborative planning between multiple echelons of command.
True
89
The AEF schedule operates on two 12-month life cycles that align with the Global Force Management Cycle and coincide with fiscal years.
True