AFH 1 - Chapter 5 - Doctrine, Joint Force and Mobilization Flashcards

1
Q

The growing threats to United States and allied interests throughout the world demand ______ be proficient across the range of military operations.

A

U.S. Armed Forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What operations are conducted routinely and efficiently in the current operational environment?

A

Joint Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When _____ participate in multinational operations, our commanders follow multinational doctrine and ratified procedures.

A

U.S. Armed Forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Basic doctrine, contained in ____ 1, The Air Force, is the Air Force’s premier statement of our beliefs and the cornerstone upon which our Service identity is based.

A

Air Force Doctrine Publication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Focusing on using forces within a domain is a vital _____ step to integration of efforts.

A

First

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The principles of joint operations are formed around the ____ traditional principles of war.

A

Nine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is an integral part of protecting aircraft and fixed bases where they are especially vulnerable?

A

Security through force protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What operations may require years to reach the termination criteria?

A

Joint operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What command is an approach to C2 that empowers subordinate decision-making for flexibility, initiative and responsiveness in the accomplishment of commander’s intent?

A

Mission command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What command is the organizing standard for the effective and efficient means of employing airpower; it enables the principle of mass while maintaining the principle of economy of force?

A

Centralized command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What force hold the ultimate high ground?

A

Space Force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What commander should balance combat opportunity, necessity, effectiveness, efficiency, and the impact on accomplishing assigned objectives against the associated risk to friendly forces?

A

Air component commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What operations include combat when necessary to achieve objectives at all levels of warfare?

A

Joint operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

One of the founding initiatives which addressed joint interdependence and joint interoperability was the Goldwater-Nichols Department of Defense Reorganization Act of _____.

A

1986

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of combatant command and may be delegated within the command?

A

OPCON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a Service authority that flows through Service channels?

A

ADCON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is subject to the command authority of combatant commanders?

A

ADCON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When mobilized under Title 10, USC, command of ______ is assigned by the Secretary of Defense to the combatant commands.

A

National Guard and Reserve Forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A joint force is a force composed of elements, assigned or attached, of ____ or more Military Departments operating under a single joint force commander.

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What forces are established at three levels: unified combatant commands, subordinate unified commands, and joint task forces?

A

Joint forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A ___ is a term applied to a combatant commander, or joint task force commander authorized to exercise combatant command or operational control over a joint force.

A

JFC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who is responsible for the transfer of forces and other capabilities to designated subordinate commanders for accomplishing assigned tasks?

A

JFC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A _____ will provide all available information to subordinate commanders that affect their missions and objectives.

A

JFC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The title of commander, Air Force forces is reserved to identify the ____ commander of an Air Force component.

A

Air Force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

AETFs are sized and tailored to meet the ____ specific mission requirements.

A

JFC’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If augmentation is needed, or if in-theater forces are not available, the _____ will draw from the air expeditionary force currently on rotation.

A

Air Force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What may be regional or functional, aligning with the purpose of the joint force they support?

A

AOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If the _____ is designated as the JFACC, the AOC will typically received joint augmentation and become the joint AOC.

A

COMAFFOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The ______ staff is the mechanism through which the COMAFFOR exercises these Service responsibilities.

A

AFFOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What staff is responsible for the long-range planning and theater engagement operations that fall outside the AOC’s current operational focus?

A

AFFOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If air assets from more than one Service are present within a joint force, the JFC normally will designate a ______ to exploit the full capabilities of joint air operations.

A

JFACC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Who is typically the Service component commander with the preponderance of air capabilities and the ability to plan, task and control joint air operations?

A

JFACC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Because of the wide scope of air operations, the ____ will typically maintain the same joint operating area/theater-wide perspective as the JFC.

A

JFACC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The JFACC, as with any component commander, should not be dual-hatted as the _______.

A

JFC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Joint planning is a means of preparing and managing _____ for mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment and demobilization.

A

Joint Forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What state is the set of required conditions that defines achievement of military objectives?

A

Military end state

37
Q

What employs an integrated process for orderly, analytical, and coordinated problem solving and decision-making known as the joint planning process?

A

Joint planning

38
Q

What begins when an appropriate authority recognizes potential for military capability to be employed in support of national objectives or in response to a potential or actual crisis?

A

Joint planning

39
Q

The _____ and staff develop a restated mission statement that allows subordinate and supporting commanders to begin their own estimates and planning efforts for higher headquarters’ concurrence.

40
Q

What is used to study the assigned tasks and to identify all other tasks necessary to accomplish the mission?

A

Mission analysis

41
Q

What is a potential way to accomplish the assigned mission?

42
Q

A good ____ accomplishes the mission within the commander’s guidance, provides flexibility to meet unforeseen events during execution, and positions the joint force for future operations.

43
Q

Wargaming is a primary means for ______.

A

COA Analysis

44
Q

What is a conscious attempt to visualize the flow of the operation, given joint force strengths and dispositions, adversary capabilities and possible COAs, and other aspects of the Operating Environment?

A

COA wargaming

45
Q

Each critical event within a proposed ______ should be war-gamed based upon time available using the action, reaction, and counteraction method of friendly and/or opposing force interaction.

46
Q

What facilitates the commander’s decision-making process by balancing the ends, means, ways and risk of each COA?

A

COA comparison

47
Q

Leaders conduct joint planning to understand the strategic and operational environments to determine the best methods for employing __________ capabilities to achieve national objectives.

A

Department of Defense’s

48
Q

The Chairman of _______, as the principal military advisor to the President and SecDef, may offer military advice on the proposed objectives and global prioritization.

A

Joint Chiefs of Staff

49
Q

What should help senior leaders determine if a military response can help achieve the desired objective at acceptable cost and risk levels?

A

Crisis planning

50
Q

What is a planning directive that provides essential planning guidance and directs the initiation of plan development after the directing authority approves a military COA?

A

Planning order

51
Q

An ALERTORD does not authorize execution of the approved _______.

52
Q

What normally specifies the authority that the gaining combatant commander will exercise over the transferred forces?

A

Deployment or redeployment order

53
Q

What are designed to give an overall picture of an operation or emerging issue?

54
Q

Only the U.S. President and _____ have the authority to approve and direct the initiation of military operations.

A

Secretary of Defense

55
Q

The Chairman of ________, by authority of and at the direction of the U.S. President or Secretary of Defense, may subsequently issue an execute order to initiate military operations.

A

Joint Chiefs of Staff

56
Q

The _____ objectives serve as links between military activities and those of other DOD agencies in pursuit of national goals.

57
Q

The AEF concept was developed to allow ______, _______, and Air National Guard to serve as a combined force.

A

Regular Air Force, Reserve

58
Q

The ____ is a vehicle for managing and scheduling Air Force Forces for expeditionary purposes; it is not a war fighting organization.

59
Q

All Air Force personnel contribute to the ____ and are inherently deployable or employable in-place.

60
Q

A UTC is a five-character alphanumeric designator, designed to identify each type of unit in the ______ and its force capability with personnel and equipment requirements.

A

U.S. Armed Forces

61
Q

The assignment of a _______ categorizes each type of organization into a class or kind of unit having common distinguishing characteristics.

62
Q

What codes are used to indicate the number of UTCs required for assigned/committed missions, critical home station requirements, and the number of UTCs available to be simultaneously tasked for deployment?

A

Posturing codes

63
Q

What organizations identified as “other” will not posture UTCs?

A

Institutional organizations

64
Q

Units may be tasked to support a ______ they have not postured as long as the unit can meet the mission capability statement.

65
Q

UDMs support redeployed personnel and serve as the primary liaison to the unit training manager, flight/squadron leadership, wing training functions regarding deployment related issues, and ________.

A

Installation Deployment Readiness Cell

66
Q

What assessment is the only assessment system that reports at the UTC level and is the primary system used to source unit type codes for taskings and contingencies?

A

Unit Type Code Assessments

67
Q

Joint doctrine is the only type of doctrine that exists.

68
Q

Basic doctrine provides broad and continuing guidance on how the USAF is organized, employed, equipped and sustained.

69
Q

Tactical doctrine changes more rapidly compared to basic and operational doctrine.

70
Q

The principle of surprise leverages the element of security to attack the enemy at an unexpected time or in an unexpected manner.

71
Q

The principle of unity of effort emphasizes the need for various components, agencies, and partners to coordinate their actions and resources towards a common goal.

72
Q

The tenet of persistence in airpower operations emphasizes continuous and prolonged action against a broad spectrum of targets.

73
Q

The USAF possesses unique capabilities for ensuring global mobility, long-range strike and effective intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance.

74
Q

Joint operations involve military actions conducted by joint forces in specified command relationships, including combat when necessary to achieve objectives at all levels of warfare.

75
Q

Multinational operations require the integration of necessary resources and interoperability across all domains to achieve overarching objectives.

76
Q

Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm demonstrated the value and effectiveness of joint and coalition military operations.

77
Q

Unity of command means all forces operate under a single commander, while unity of effort requires coordination and cooperation among all forces toward a commonly recognized objective.

78
Q

Joint planning is a means of preparing and managing Joint Forces for mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment and demobilization.

79
Q

The Joint Planning Process consists of five steps.

80
Q

The Course of Action Analysis and Wargaming step in the Joint Planning Process is primarily focused on evaluating potential COAs.

81
Q

Campaign plans are designed to achieve strategic and operational objectives in a given time and space and often involve a single operation.

A

False (multi operational)

82
Q

Contingency plans are typically prepared in advance to address an anticipated crisis and do not require any modifications during execution.

A

False (requires modifications during execution)

83
Q

The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff has the authority to issue an execute order (EXORD) to initiate military operations.

A

False (President and Sec Def)

84
Q

The AEF is structured and executed based on three principles: transparency, predictability and equitability.

85
Q

The AEF concept was developed to allow the RegAF, Reserve and Air National Guard to serve as a combined force.

86
Q

The AEF is not a war fighting organization.

A

True (The Air Expeditionary Task Force is the war fighting organization)

87
Q

The Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) is normally the warfighting organization attached to the Joint Force command.

88
Q

The Adaptive Planning and Execution System facilities iterative dialogue and collaborative planning between multiple echelons of command.

89
Q

The AEF schedule operates on two 12-month life cycles that align with the Global Force Management Cycle and coincide with fiscal years.