AFAA Personal Trainer Certification Study Guide Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

?

Hear attack occurs due to lack of blood flow through the coronary arteries to the heart muscle

A

Myocardial Infarction

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2
Q

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lack of blood flow

A

Ischemia

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3
Q

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the amount of blood pumped with each beat or systole

A

Stroke Volume

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4
Q

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heart rate x stroke volume. usually measured in liters (or milileters) of blood pumped per minute

A

Cardiac Output

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5
Q

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The amount of blood returned to the heart by the veins

A

Venous Return

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6
Q

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occurs when a person holds his or her breath during a strenuous activity, such as lifting weights or shoveling snow

A

Valsalva Maneuver

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7
Q

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total amount of air breathed per minute

A

Minute Ventilation

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8
Q

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amount of air remaining in the lungs after a complete and total forced exhale

A

Residual lung volume

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9
Q

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amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a maximal inahle

A

Forced vital capacity

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10
Q

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sum of the residual volume and the forced vital capacity

A

Total lung capacity

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11
Q

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body's usable form of carbohydrate

A

Glucose

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12
Q

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produced in muscles during rapid exercise when the body cannot supply enough oxygen to the tissues

A

Lactic Acid

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13
Q

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a metabolic process that breaks down carbohydrates and sugars through a series of reactions to either pyruvic acid or lactic acid and release energy for the body in the form of ATP

A

Glycolysis

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14
Q

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a subcellular structure where oxidation takes place

A

Mitochondria

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15
Q

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A metabolic sequence that breaks fatty acids down to two

A

Beta oxidation

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16
Q

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the acetyl CoA formed in the first component of aerobic metabolism enters into the citric acid cycle

A

Krebs cycle

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17
Q

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the final sequence of reactions in the aerobic production of ATP

A

Electron transport system

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18
Q

?

the maximum amount of oxygen consumed and utilized by the body during an all

A

Maximal oxygen uptake

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19
Q

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Exercise Oxygen Consumption

A

Excess Post

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20
Q

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each section of a myofibril in muscle

A

Sarcomere

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21
Q

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structural protein that makes up the thin filaments of myofibrils; functions in muscle contraction

A

Actin

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22
Q

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standing position with hands down and palms facing forward

A

Anatomical Position

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23
Q

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lying on the spine

A

Supine

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24
Q

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lying face down

A

Prone

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25
Q

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part of the skeleton that contains skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum

A

Axial Skeleton

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26
Q

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have a small space between the articulating bones that allows for a greater range of motion

A

Synovial joints

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27
Q

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a white, semi

A

Cartilage

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28
Q

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secretes synovial fluid which provides nourishment, lubrication, and hydrotastic cushioning for the joint

A

Synovial membrane

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29
Q

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liquid

A

Bursae

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30
Q

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band of fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone and provides joint stability.

A

Ligament

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31
Q

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dense, fibrous connective tissue that forms the end of a muscle and attaches muscle to bone

A

Tendon

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32
Q

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fibrous connective tissue that forms sheaths for individual muscles.

A

Fascia

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33
Q

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resistance exercises performed one after the other without rest for approximately 20 minutes

A

Circuit Weight Training

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34
Q

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maximum force a muscle or muscle group can generate at one time

A

Muscular Strength

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35
Q

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capacity to sustain repeated muscle actions, as in push

A

Muscle Endurance

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36
Q

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explosive aspect of strength, is the product of strength and speed of movement

A

Muscle Power

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37
Q

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ability of a muscle or muscle group to stabilize a joint and maintain its position without movement. (to perform a sustained isometric contraction)

A

Muscle Stability

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38
Q

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an increase in the muscle fiber size, specifically an increased cross

A

Muscle hypertrophy

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39
Q

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increasing the intensity (resistance), frequency, or duration of the training above the levels normally expected

A

Overload Principle

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40
Q

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specific adaptions in the metabolic and neuromuscular systems depending on the type of program or exercises that are performed

A

Specificity

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41
Q

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total number of repetitions performed multiplied by the total amount of weight, or resistance, used during a single training session. (Reps x Weight = Volume)

A

Volume

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42
Q

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resistance must be gradually, progressively increased as the muscles adapt to a given exercise

A

Progressive resistance exercise

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43
Q

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variations in the training program over the course of several months or a year, that help to improve performance and prevent injury, staleness, and burnout

A

Periodization

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44
Q

?

a point where further increases in strength become difficult and progress seems to stop

A

Plateau

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45
Q

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Set System

A

Single

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46
Q

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Set system

A

Multiple

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47
Q

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Set System

A

Super

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48
Q

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Set System

A

Tri

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49
Q

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external resistance or weight that does not vary through the range of motion

A

Dynamic Constant Resistance

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50
Q

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attempts to match the external resistance to the exerciser's strength curve. Strength varies throughout the range of motion of each muscle

A

Dynamic Variable Resistance

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51
Q

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maintains constant muscle tension at a steady speed or velocity

A

Isokinetic Resistance

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52
Q

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ability to maintain a position without moving for a certain period of time, and can also be defined as a state of bodily equilibrium

A

Balance

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53
Q

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involves contracting a muscle in a held position, usually against a wall, weight machine, or against another part of the body

A

Isometric Resistance Training

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54
Q

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any exercise that is multi

A

Core Exercise

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55
Q

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refers to the center of the body. Incorporates stabilization exercises for muscles of the spine, neck, pelvis, and scapulae

A

Core Training

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56
Q

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involves using the stretch reflex to increase muscle fiber recruitment. (squat jumps, tuck jumps, medicine ball passes)

A

Plyometric Training

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57
Q

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shoulder blades

A

Scapulae

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58
Q

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kneecap

A

Patella

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59
Q

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occurs during and immediately after exercise and is due to the accumulation of lactate, decreased oxygen, and tissue swelling within the muscle

A

Acute Muscle Soreness

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60
Q

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A temporary muscle soreness and stiffness that occur 24 to 48 hours after performing unaccustomed eccentric muscle contractions and last for three to four days.

A

Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS)

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61
Q

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clearly state which joints are moving and which are still

A

Alignment Cue

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62
Q

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lets client know about a potential injury risk and how it can be minimized

A

Safety Cue

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63
Q

?

remind your clients to breathe

A

Breathing Cue

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64
Q

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demonstrating a move

A

Visual Cue

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65
Q

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motivational cues such as "You can do it!" and "Great Job!"

A

Motivational Cue

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66
Q

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help kinesthetically feel when they are in alignment and using proper form. Showing the correct and incorrect way of doing something.

A

Wrong/Right Cue

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67
Q

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range of motion possible around a joint, or around a series of joints

A

Flexibility

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68
Q

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characterized by bouncing, pulsing, rapid, or uncontrolled

A

Ballistic Stretching

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69
Q

?

low

A

Static Stretching

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70
Q

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static or ballistic, performed alone, using the concentric contraction of the opposing muscles

A

Active (unassisted) Stretching

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71
Q

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stretch is initiated by another person or outside force and the person being stretched is passive

A

Passive (assisted) Stretching

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72
Q

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flexibility technique that promotes or hastens the neuromuscular response through stimulation of the proprioceptors

A

Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation

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73
Q

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results from being born with ligaments that have a higher degree of elastic properties. "double jointed"

A

Ligament Laxity

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74
Q

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sudden onset due to a specific trauma, such as twisting the ankle

A

Acute Injury

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75
Q

?

excessive, repeated stress is placed on one area of the body over an extended period of time, the affected tissues may begin to fail

A

Chronic Injury

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76
Q

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overstretching, overexertion, or overuse of soft tissue, less severe than a sprain. May occur from a slight trauma or unaccustomed repeated trauma

A

Muscle sTrain

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77
Q

?

usually caused by a severe s tress, stretch or tear of the soft tissues such as ligaments or joint capsules

A

Sprain

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78
Q

?

an incomplete or partial dislocation that often involves secondary trauma to the surrounding tissue

A

Subluxation

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79
Q

?

displacement of a bony part of a joint that leads to soft tissue damage, inflammation, pain, and muscle spasm

A

Dislocation

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80
Q

?

with a partial tear, pain is felt when the muscle is stretched or contracted against resistance. With a complete tear, muscle is incapable of working

A

Muscle/Tendon Rupture or Tear

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81
Q

?

inflammation of a tendon leading to scarring or calcium deposits

A

Tendinitis

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82
Q

?

inflammation of a synovial membrane; an excessive amount of synovial fluid

A

Synovitis

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83
Q

?

inflammation of a bursa

A

Bursitis

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84
Q

?

bruising from a direct blow, resulting in capillary rupture, bleeding, and inflammation

A

Contusion

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85
Q

?

abnormal adherance of collagen fibers to surrounding tissues during immobilization or after an injury, resulting in a loss of normal elasticity

A

Adhesions

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86
Q

?

Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

A

RICE

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87
Q

?

Prime mover, or the contracting muscle that is responsible for the movement that you see

A

Agonist

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88
Q

?

Muscle that works (opposite) to the prime mover and reflexively elongates to allow the agonist to contract and move the joint

A

Antagonist

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89
Q

?

refers to the percentage of weight that is fat and is based on the assumption that body weight can be divided into various components

A

Body Composition

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90
Q

?

caused by mechanical compression, which results in reduced blood flow to the median nerve

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

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91
Q

?

Hand bones. 5 bones numbered from 1

A

Metacarpals

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92
Q

?

located at the larnyx of neck, used for measuring heart rate

A

Carotid Artery

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93
Q

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further from the trunk, situated farthest from point of attachment or origin, as of a limb or bone

A

Distal

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94
Q

?

Also called negative resistance training, is a muscular action in which the muscle lengthens in a controlled manner.

A

Eccentric Training

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95
Q

?

exerting more force than is placed on it, results in shortening of muscle

A

Concentric Training

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96
Q

?

shoulder

A

Glenohumeral

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97
Q

?

slow to fatigue and have a high level of aerobic endurance, used for long

A

Slow Twitch Fibers

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98
Q

?

poor aerobic endurance, short

A

Fast Twitch Fibers

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99
Q

?

sense the degree of tension and the length of the muscle

A

Proprioceptors

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100
Q

?

joint angle diminishing, most movements are forward movements

A

Flexion

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101
Q

?

return from flexion, movement that increases the angle between 2 bones

A

Extension

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102
Q

?

movement around an axis or pivot point

A

Rotation

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103
Q

?

movement in which an extremity describes a circle (360 degrees)

A

Circumduction

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104
Q

?

divides the body into upper and lower portions. Rotation occurs within the horizontal plane

A

Horizontal Plane (transverse)

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105
Q

?

divides the body into front and back. Abduction and Adduction occur within the frontal plane

A

Frontal Plane (coronal)

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106
Q

?

divides the body into right and left portions. Flexion and extension occur within the sagittal plane

A

Sagittal Plane (medial)

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107
Q

?

a point at which 2 or more bones meet and where movement occurs

A

Joint

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108
Q

?

the first seven vertebrae, or the neck

A

Cervical Spine

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109
Q

?

12 vertebrae, where the ribs attach

A

Thoracic Spine

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110
Q

?

5 vertebrae, lower back

A

Lumbar Spine

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111
Q

?

fused to form the sacrum

A

Sacral Spine

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112
Q

?

bone formed from five vertebrae fused together near the base of the spinal column

A

Sacrum

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113
Q

?

4 vertebrae, fused to form the tailbone

A

Coccygeal Spine

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114
Q

?

hip flexors

A

Iliopsoas

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115
Q

?

Biceps Femoris, Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus

A

Hamstrings

116
Q

?

consists of 4 muscles: vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vestus intermedius, rectus femoris

A

Quadriceps

117
Q

?

hinge, synovial,distal tibia, fibular form mortise for trochlea of talus, primary motions are dorsiflexion and plantarflexion,

A

Talocrural Joint

118
Q

?

Ankle eversion and Ankle inversion

A

Subtalar Joint

119
Q

?

bring top of the foot toward the shin

A

Ankle Dorsiflexion

120
Q

?

bring soles of the foot downward (pointing toes)

A

Ankle Plantar Flexion

121
Q

?

Pronation. Arch flattens

A

Ankle Eversion

122
Q

?

Supination, Arch lifts

A

Ankle Inversion

123
Q

?

muscle actions performed on special equipment in which speed is controlled

A

Isokinetic

124
Q

?

fulcrum is in between the applied force and resistance. example = see

A

First Class Lever

125
Q

?

fulcrum or axis is at the end of the lever, resistance is in the middle, applied force at the opposite end. example = wheelbarrow

A

Second Class Lever

126
Q

?

axis as one end, applied force in the middle and resistance at the opposite end. example = using a hammer to drive a nail into a piece of wood

A

Third Class Lever

127
Q

?

artery of the lower arm. It is felt when taking the pulse at the wrist.

A

Radial Artery

128
Q

?

systolic = 120

A

Prehypertension

129
Q

?

a common disorder in which blood pressure remains abnormally high (a reading of 140/90 mm Hg or greater)

A

Hypertension

130
Q

?

systolic <80

A

Optimal Blood Pressure

131
Q

?

amount of pressure or force exerted against the arterial walls immediately after the heart has contracted

A

Systolic pressure

132
Q

?

amount of pressure still remaining against the arterial walls as the heart relaxes before the next contraction

A

Diastolic pressure

133
Q

?

opposing muscles of the biceps

A

Triceps

134
Q

?

opposing muscles of the posterior deltoid, mid

A

Anterior and Medial Deltoids

135
Q

?

opposing muscles of the erector spinae

A

Abdominals

136
Q

?

extends the back, provides resistance and helps us bend over at the waist

A

Erector Spinae

137
Q

?

works the muscles on the outer part of the upper thigh muscles, A muscle that draws a body part away from the midline or axis of the body.

A

Hip Abductors

138
Q

?

Works the muscles on the inside of the thigh (groin muscles)., Inward toward the median axis of the body or of an extremity.

A

Hip Adductors

139
Q

?

an overuse injury, typically caused by a tight iliotibial band. The band is aggravated by excessive or abnormal rotational movements of the femur and tibia by walking or running

A

ITB syndrome

140
Q

?

the longest and thickest bone, upper leg bone

A

Femur

141
Q

?

Shin bone. On medial side of the leg. Bears most of the weight

A

Tibia

142
Q

?

molecule found in every cell of the body that is composed of adenosine, ribose, and 3 phosphate groups. It is the form in which food energy is stored in your cells

A

Adenosine Triphosphate

143
Q

?

supplies energy very quickly and is the primary source of energy for very high

A

Phosphagen System

144
Q

?

Glucose is used for fuel and is either blood glucose or muscle glycogen, broken down in to pyruvic acid, when there is insufficient oxygen it then is transformed into lactic acid

A

Anaerobic Glycolytic System

145
Q

?

virtually unlimited capacity for making ATP, uses carbs, fat, protein for fuel. Slow to produce ATP

A

Aerobic Energy System

146
Q

?

when work becomes so intense, muscle cells cannot supply the additional energy and rely more on the anaerobic system to produce ATP. At this level, lactic acid begins to accumulate

A

Anaerobic Threshold

147
Q

?

A muscle that is attached to the bones of the skeleton and provides the force that moves the bones.

A

Skeletal Muscle

148
Q

?

a muscle that contracts without conscious control and found in walls of internal organs such as stomach and intestine and bladder and blood vessels (excluding the heart)

A

Smooth Muscle

149
Q

?

forms the walls of the heart

A

Cardiac Muscle

150
Q

?

bring messages back to the brain and spinal cord from the muscles, skin and other areas of the body

A

Sensory Neurons

151
Q

?

send messages from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles causing a neuromuscular response

A

Motor Neurons

152
Q

?

forms the extremities and is composed of the shoulder girdle, arm bones, pelvic girdle, and leg bones, , the portion of the skeleton that attaches to the axial skeleton and has the limbs attached to it

A

Appendicular Skeleton

153
Q

?

hands upward

A

Supination

154
Q

?

hands downward

A

Pronation

155
Q

?

painful inflammation of the tendon at the outer border of the elbow resulting from overuse of lower arm muscles (as in twisting of the hand)

A

Tennis Elbow

156
Q

?

Inflammation and pain of the flexor and pronator muscles of the forearm where their tendons originate on the medial epicondyle of the humerus; Epicondylitis

A

Golfer's Elbow

157
Q

?

a chronic autoimmune disease with inflammation of the joints and marked deformities

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

158
Q

?

widespread pain in joints, muscles, ligaments, heightened pain at "Tender" points

A

Fibromyalgia

159
Q

?

premature bone thining, with a bone density of 1

A

Osteopenia

160
Q

?

condition of atherosclerosis in the extremities, primarly affecting the calves.

A

Preipheral Artery Disease

161
Q

?

disorder of the nervous system, specifically of the basal ganglia, a mass nerve of cells in the brain that is responsible for motor functions

A

Parkinson's Disease

162
Q

?

sugars, fruits and vegetables, lactose from milk, cane or beet sugar

A

Simple Carbohydrates

163
Q

?

carrots, broccoli, corn, potatoes, bread, cereal, pasta, rice and beans

A

Complex Carbohydrates

164
Q

?

carbohydrate ranking developed to help define which carbohydrate foods may or may not contribute to the insulin surge and eventual resistance problem

A

Glycemic Index

165
Q

?

primarily indigestible type of carbohydrate found in fresh fruits, vegetables and grains

A

Fiber

166
Q

?

fruits, vegetables, seeds, brown rice, barley and oats. Appears to lower blood cholesterol levels and retard the entry of glucose into the bloodstream

A

Soluble fiber

167
Q

?

includes cellulose, found in whole grains, outside of seeds, fruits, legumes. Promotes more efficient elimination may play a role in colon cancer prevention

A

Insoluble fiber

168
Q

?

animal or fish based foods that supply essential amino acids

A

Complete Protein

169
Q

?

lacks one or more of the essential amino acids. Generally from plants, fruits, grains, vegetables

A

Incomplete Protein

170
Q

?

main type of fat found in the diet and in adipose tissue. Desirable serum levels are under 150 mg/dl

A

Triglycerides

171
Q

?

primarily from animal sources, butter, whole milk dairy products, meat.

A

Saturated Fats

172
Q

?

shown to reduce LDL cholesterol without affecting the beneficial HDL cholesterol. Good sources = canola oil, peanut oil, avocado oil

A

Monounsaturated Fat

173
Q

?

divided into omega

A

Polyunsaturated Fat

174
Q

?

"good" blood cholesterol, helps remove plaque from the arterial walls, returning it to the liver. 60 mg/dl or more

A

HDL cholesterol

175
Q

?

"bad" blood cholesterol, delivers plaque to the arterial walls. < 100 mg/dl

A

LDL cholesterol

176
Q

?

non

A

Vitamins

177
Q

?

neither vitamins or minerals. They are substances that plants manufacture to protect themselves from viruses, bacteria, fungi, insects and drought.

A

Phytonutrients

178
Q

?

concept of eating foods that are very nutritious relative to the number of calories

A

Nutrition Density

179
Q

?

high in fat, sugar, refined carbohydrates, alcohol

A

Low Nutrition Density

180
Q

?

papaya, peppers, wheat bran, bell peppers, greens, skim milk

A

High Nutrition Density

181
Q

?

calculated by multiplying the grams of carbohydrates by the glycemic index

A

Glycemic Load

182
Q

?

pre

A

Carbohydrate Loading

183
Q

?

having an inadequate supply of glycogen (Carbs) for muscular work. Makes for excessive fatigue and a desire to quit

A

Hitting the Wall

184
Q

?

inadequate supply of glucose to the brain, leading to light

A

Bonking

185
Q

?

an eating disorder in which a normal

A

Anorexia Nervosa

186
Q

?

an eating disorder characterized by episodes of overeating, usually of high

A

Bulimia Nervosa

187
Q

?

amenorrhea, osteoporosis, and eating disorders; when left untreated they damage the musculoskeletal and reproductive systems

A

Female Athlete Triad

188
Q

?

a kind of body tissue containing stored fat that serves as a source of energy

A

Adipose Tissue

189
Q

?

accounts for 60

A

Resting Metabolic Rate

190
Q

?

structural and functional elements in cells, body water, muscle, bones, and other organs (anything that is not fat)

A

Lean Body Mass

191
Q

?

Efficacy

A

Self

192
Q

?

yield more positive results because positive outcomes are emphasised often yielding happy moments

A

Approach Goals

193
Q

?

may result in anxiety, depression, and less enjoyment, even if the goal is achieved

A

Avoidance Goals

194
Q

?

Obtained first thing in the morning when you are completely relaxed but conscious, before getting out of bed

A

Resting Heart Rate

195
Q

?

What test may require that it can only be taken by licensed health care providers?

A

Resting Blood Pressure

196
Q

?

opposing muscles of the triceps

A

biceps

197
Q

?

opposing muscles of the biceps

A

triceps

198
Q

?

opposing muscles of the latissimus dorsi

A

anterior medial deltoids

199
Q

?

opposing muscles of the anterior medial deltoids

A

latissmus dorsi

200
Q

?

opposing muscles of the posterior deltoid, mid

A

pectoralis major

201
Q

?

opposing muscles of the erector spinae

A

abdominals

202
Q

?

opposing muscles of the hamstrings

A

quadriceps

203
Q

?

opposing msucles of the hip adductors

A

hip abductors

204
Q

?

How many risk factors are associated with the ACSM Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease Risk Factors?

A

8

205
Q

?

  1. Men >45 Women >55
A

Age

206
Q

?

2.Myocardial Infarction, Sudden death before 55 of father, 65 of mother

A

Family History

207
Q

?

  1. Current smoker, or quit 6 months prior
A

Cigarette Smoking

208
Q

?

  1. not participating in at least 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity 3 x a week
A

Sedentary Lifestyle

209
Q

?

fasting plasma glucose >100 mg

A

Prediabetes

210
Q

?

any factor that increases the chance that an individual will develop a disease or condition

A

Health Risk Factor

211
Q

?

helps identify individuals at risk for cardiovascular, pulmonary, metabolic, musculoskeletal or other potential problems

A

Medical History Form

212
Q

?

How many components are associated with a Fitness Assessment?

A

6

213
Q

?

large amount of information gathered, actual measurement of a person's ability at a high level

A

advantages of max tests

214
Q

?

needs special, expensive equipment, riskier due to potential abnormal heart waves

A

disadvantages of max tests

215
Q

?

assess the client's functional aerobic fitness, show improvement of that level over time, help develop an appropriate level of exercise intensity

A

submaximal exercise test

216
Q

?

less expensive, less risky, less specialized equipment is required, testing personnel does not have to be as highly trained or qualified

A

advantages of submax tests

217
Q

?

less information is obtained, only estimated and not actually achieved

A

disadvantages of subxmax tests

218
Q

?

Behaviors that minimize diseases and disabilities

A

Wellness

219
Q

?

One professional role of a personal fitness trainer is to assist clients:

A

in identifying risk factors

220
Q

?

What is the term that is defined by incorporating skill

A

Exercise

221
Q

?

In wellness, a physical method used to break the stress/tension cycle is to:

A

use visualization

222
Q

?

65%

A

45

223
Q

?

How many servings of fruits and vegetables per day?

A

5

224
Q

?

How many servings of whole grains should you eat per day?

A

6

225
Q

?

Resting Metabolic Rate, Energy expended with exertion, the thermic effect of food

A

3 components of energy expenditure

226
Q

?

What is the primary indigestible type of carbohydrate found in fresh fruits, vegetables and grains?

A

Fiber

227
Q

?

In general, the ______ muscles are worked first

A

larger

228
Q

?

Which muscle fiber type is predominantly used during endurance events? (marathons)

A

slow twitch

229
Q

?

What primary muscle has no actual joint action?

A

transverse abdominals

230
Q

?

What is one example of a closed kinetic chain exercise?

A

leg press

231
Q

?

feet stationary but able to move upper body. Touching a nonmovable surface

A

closed kinetic chain

232
Q

?

When the distal end of an extremity is not fixed to any surface, allowing any one joint in the extremity to move or function separately without necessitating movement of other joints in the extremity.

A

open kinetic chain

233
Q

?

a condition of abnormal use of glucose usually caused by too little insulin or lack of response to insulin

A

Diabetes mellitus

234
Q

?

the heart rate of an individual 3 to 5 minutes after a workout. Should be around 100 beats per minute. If any higher, then more conditioning is needed. Body is not recovering fast enough., the gradual return of the heart rate to resting levels within 5

A

Recovery Heart Rate

235
Q

?

the approximate heart rate a person needs to maintain during aerobic exercise in order to benefit from the workout; target heart rate for teens: 145

A

Target Heart Rate

236
Q

?

Personal trainers should make sure that the caliper is ______ to the skinfold

A

perpendicular

237
Q

?

The trapezius moves the:

A

shoulder girdle

238
Q

?

rotate outward, away from the midline (Supination)

A

Lateral Rotation

239
Q

?

rotates inward, towards the middle of the body (Pronation)

A

Medial Rotation

240
Q

?

subjective measure of intensity level of an activity using a numerical scale

A

Rate of perceived exertion

241
Q

?

The difference between maximum heart rate and resting heart rate

A

Heart Rate Reserve

242
Q

?

The heart's maximum working capacity. To find maximum heart rate = subtract age from 220 Examples: 220

A

Maximum Heart Rate

243
Q

?

Oxygenated blood flows from the heart through the:

A

aorta

244
Q

?

each of the two upper chambers of the heart that receives blood that comes into the heart

A

atrium

245
Q

?

Each of the two lower chambers of the heart that pumps blood out of the heart

A

ventricle

246
Q

?

airway resistance increases making it difficult to breathe

A

COPD

247
Q

?

Excessive use of the gluteal muscles in some athletes (e.g., ice skaters, cyclists, rock climbers) can lead to hypertrophy or spasm of the piriformis muscle, which can compress the sciatic nerve. In individuals with a proximal split of the sciatic nerve (~12%), the common fibular nerve can become compressed as it passes through piriformis.

A

Piriformis syndrome

248
Q

?

How many calories are in 1 gram of fat?

A

9

249
Q

?

How many calories are in 1 gram of protein?

A

4

250
Q

?

How many calories are in 1 gram of carbohydrate?

A

4

251
Q

?

  1. body weight x .45 =body weight in kg
A

calculate protein needs

252
Q

?

Protein is digested into how many amino acids?

A

22

253
Q

?

contemplation

A

pre

254
Q

?

during this stage individuals are seriously considering change but still are not ready to initiate new behaviors

A

contemplation

255
Q

?

individuals in this stage are preparing to change. May call a health club, buy an exercise video

A

preparation

256
Q

?

people are actively changing their behavior in this stage.

A

action

257
Q

?

this is the stage that sustains long

A

maintenance

258
Q

?

5 stages in the change process, precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

A

transtheorectical model

259
Q

?

lack of access to exercise, expense of exercise, depression and lethargy, multiple health problems, fear of injury, history of sedentary lifestyle

A

barriers to exercise

260
Q

?

Specific, Measurable, Action

A

SMART

261
Q

?

Emotional, Social, Intellectual, Spiritual, Physical, Occupational

A

6 dimensions of wellness

262
Q

?

Which energy system uses glucose, fat and protein for fuel?

A

aerobic system

263
Q

?

A single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it controls

A

Motor unit

264
Q

?

proprioceptor protects the muscle from excessive shortening or lengthening

A

Golgi tendon organ

265
Q

?

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

A

rotator cuff muscles

266
Q

?

Lie parallel to the muscle fibers; detect changes in muscle length and speed

A

muscle spindle

267
Q

?

trunk flexion test primarily measures the flexibility of the hamstring and erector spinae muscles, as well as the calf and upper back muscles

A

sit and reach test

268
Q

?

Swayback or increase in secondary curvature

A

excessive lordosis

269
Q

?

Hunchback or increase in primary curvature

A

excessive kyphosis

270
Q

?

abnormal lateral curvature of the spine (S

A

scoliosis

271
Q

?

4 months

A

3

272
Q

?

aka max heart rate reserve method; training HR = max HR

A

Karvonen formula

273
Q

?

exhaustion

A

Pre

274
Q

?

widely accepted theory of muscle shortening during contraction, thick & thin filaments slide past one another

A

sliding filament theory

275
Q

?

decline in physical performance, elevated blood pressure, muscle tenderness and joint soreness, loss of muscle strength, loss of motivation to exercise

A

overtraining symptoms

276
Q

?

cartilage tears caused by traumatic blows ot the knees, and by bending and straightening the knee to far

A

meniscus tears

277
Q

?

pain in the shin due to repetitive impac loading activities

A

shin splints

278
Q

?

Medially rotates and adducts the arm

A

teres major

279
Q

?

If the activity can be sustained for no more than 15

A

phosphagen system

280
Q

?

This system provides much of the energy for sustained, high

A

anaerobic glycolytic system

281
Q

?

term used to describe the relationship between Muscular Strength & Muscular Endurance

A

muscular fitness

282
Q

?

the achievable range of motion at a joint or group of joints without causing injury

A

muscular flexibility

283
Q

?

judged according to muscle hypertrophy, definition, and symmetry.

A

bodybuilding

284
Q

?

compete in 3 lifts: bench press, squat, dead lift

A

power lifting

285
Q

?

compete in the clean and jerk

A

olympic lifting