AF2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the horizontal stabilisers primarily made from

A

Aluminium

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2
Q

What must you consider when working with the windows on the flight deck

A

They are heated using high voltage power supplies.

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3
Q

What can be found at fuselage station 178?

A

Front pressure bulkhead

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4
Q

Waterline 208 referees to where on the aircraft?

A

Cabin floor level

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5
Q

What is zone 300?

A

Empennage

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6
Q

What is zone 400?

A

Engines

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7
Q

The wing tanks start and end at which ribs?

A

5 and 22

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8
Q

What tank is found outboard of rib 22?

A

Surge tanks

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9
Q

Which pane of the flight deck windows is structural?

A

Inner pane

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10
Q

What are the ailerons made of ?

A

CFRP

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11
Q

What does an orange pennant visible in a door window signify?

A

The slide is armed.

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12
Q

How would you prevent the flight deck door locking when power is on?

A

Move the switch on the chime module to off

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13
Q

What does the Airstair light illuminated on the P5 panel mean?

A

The door lock pin has moved to target far. The door is unlocked.

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14
Q

An Over wing light illuminates on the take off roll. What does this mean?

A

The indicated door’s flight lock has not engaged.

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15
Q

Th door flight locks do not disengage on the ground as expected. What fault indication would you see?

A

PSEU light.

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16
Q

The PSEU light is illuminated. Can you dispatch the aircraft?

A

No. PSEU light is not dispatchable, but may clear with a master caution reset.

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17
Q

The flight locks on the emergency exits are engaged in flight. What other condition causes them to engage?

A

One engine >53%

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18
Q

You attempt to lock the flight deck door, but the solenoid doesn’t operate and the door fails to lock. What indication will you see?

A

The door lock fail light illuminates on the P8 panel

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19
Q

Elect switch 1 operates which hydraulic system?

A

Hyd B. Vice versa for switch 2 and system A

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20
Q

In flight with the flaps at 25, when will the PTU operate?

A

When RH hyd pressure is less than 2350

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21
Q

When will the stby hyd quantity low light come on?

A

At 50% if stby hyds are running.

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22
Q

LEFs are running in alternate mode. Which direction/s can they travel?

A

Down only.

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23
Q

Alternate flaps are selected. TEF can be operated in which direction/s.

A

Up or down on electric power.

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24
Q

Hyd fluid from where runs through the heat exchangers?

A

Case drain fluid only. Not fluid from the systems.

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25
Hyd system B displays zero contents. Will the PTU run?
Yes. There is reserve fluid
26
What will raising the fire handle cause to happen in the hyd system?
The SOV will close shutting off fluid from the EDP
27
WHat is the purpose of the hydraulic acoustic filter?
Decreases noise and vibration from the elect pumps
28
How many times can you start an electric hyd pump in 5 minutes?
5 times. It will overheat if you start it more.
29
Where is the pressure switch that operates the PTU when pressure falls below 2350.
The RH pressure module.
30
How can you turn on the stby hyd pump?
With the stby rudder or flap alternate switches
31
The PTU is on. You switch on stby hyds. What happens?
PTU switches off.
32
The red lever on the EDP SOV is used for what?
Indication only.
33
What the primary flight controls?
Rudder, aileron, elevator
34
What are the secondary flight controls?
TEF, LEF, stab, speed brake
35
Flap load relief will operate to what minimum position?
25
36
What component does the aileron trim actuator move?
The feel and centring unit.
37
Where are the pressure switches for the hyd system A/B low pressure lights?
On the hyd modular packages.
38
Which LRU deals with the wheel to rudder interconnect?
SMYD 2
39
The airspeed input for elevator feel is fed from where?
Pitot probes on the vertical stab
40
Elevator feel shift operates from which hyd system?
System A
41
The trim motor for the horizontal stab fails. How can the stab be trimmed?
With the manual trim wheel
42
When will the TEF bypass valve operate?
TEF asymmetry.
43
Where are the TEF up/down limit switches?
Flap control unit.
44
How can you prevent the LEF moving when the TEF are dropped?
Use the leading edge cruise depressurisation valve.
45
How is the ground spoiler interlock valve operated?
Via a push pull cable.
46
What is the purpose of Mach trim and which control surface does it use?
Prevent Mach tuck. Elevator.
47
What is the priority for stab trim?
Manual, electric, autopilot. A lower priority will be overridden by using a higher priority.
48
What happens to elect stab trim with flaps not up?
It runs at double speed.
49
When will the ground spoiler interlock operate?
When the RH gear touches down.
50
Rudder authority limiting is done by which LRU?
Flap/slat EU
51
Which computer normally operates yaw damping?
SMYD 1
52
Flap load relief has operated, as indicated by the load relief light from 30 to 25. What position will the gauge and flap lever be in?
Gauge follows flaps. Lever does not move.
53
What indication will indicate a flap skew?
Pointers split by 15 degrees.
54
At what degree of asymmetry is the asymmetry detected?
9 degrees.
55
The LE slats are fully up. Will auto slat operate?
No. Auto slats operate from mid to full down only.
56
57
Where is the MLG pin fitted?
Down link strut
58
Where is the nose leg pin fitted.
In the down link lock link pin hole
59
Where is the NLG charge valve?
On the top of the strut
60
How many spare seals are in the shock struts?
2
61
Which gear legs have shimmy dampers and where is the hyd pressure from?
Both MLG. (None on nose gear). Hyd A.
62
Which system operates the gear normally?
Hyd A
63
What happens if system A is lost for the landing gear?
Transfer valve operates to allow system B to to retract the gear.
64
What is the purpose of the frangible fittings ?
If a damaged tyre strikes the frangible fitting it breaks and dissipates hyd pressure. The gear will freefall back down.
65
What is the purpose of the transfer valve?
Allows a time delay for the leg to unlock before it moves
66
What should you do if an aircraft is to be parked with the parking brake applied for more than 8 hours?
Chock the wheels.
67
Where is the towing lever?
On the steering valve module
68
Brake wear pins indicate the brakes must be changed at what point? What condition must the brakes be in to check them?
Pin flush with mount. Brakes on to check.
69
What are the three positions of the gear lever?
Up, down, off.
70
What indication will,show for nose gear down and locked, with the sensor at target near?
Green nose gear light
71
What hyd system operates nose wheel steering?
Normal A. Alternate B
72
Where is dimension x measured?
Top of tow fitting to bottom of steering plate.
73
The undercarriage lever lock fails. How can you operate the undercarriage?
Use the override trigger.
74
Which hyd system operates the gear retraction braking to stop wheels spinning?
System A (alternate brakes)
75
The nose gear shows green on one indication panel, but no light is lit on the alternate indication. What state is the nose gear in?
It is down and locked. Any green on either panel means it is down and locked.
76
How long can the parking brake be applied before recharging the system or chocking the wheels.
8 hours.
77
The parking brake is faulty. What effect does this have on the anti skid?
Anti skid inop light will be illuminated.
78
What are the brake pedal connected to?
The metering valves
79
Where are the air/ ground sensing relays?
In the junction boxes in the nose gear bay
80
Normal anti skids operates how many valves?
4. One for each brake pack.
81
Alternate anti skid operate how many valves?
2. One for each pair of brakes.
82
Auto brakes operate from which hyd system?
B only.
83
Does auto brakes apply more, less or the same pressure as manual braking?
Always less than manual.
84
The anti skid is faulty? What effect does this have on auto braking?
Auto brake is disarmed. The systems are linked
85
What is the purpose of the shuttle valves on the braking system?
They select the higher pressure being applied from either manual or auto brakes.
86
At what speed does anti skid stop working?
<8 kts.
87
When does anti skid become inop in flight?
12.5 seconds after gear retraction.