Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Aeronautical Knowledge / FAR AIM > Aeronautical Knowledge, FAR/AIM > Flashcards

Aeronautical Knowledge, FAR/AIM Flashcards

1
Q

If a pilot is age 40 or older when issued, how long is the third class medical certificate valid for?

A

FAR 61.123: 24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is?

A

Less fuel is required at higher altitudes, so the mixture may be leaned to compensate for the decreased air density.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the VFR cruising altitude for 0-179, and 180-359?

A

FAR 91-159: 0-179 degrees is ODD Altitudes + 500’ , 180-359 degrees would be EVEN Altitudes + 500’ VFR above 3000’ agl. (West = Even, East = Odd)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

One factor necessary for ice to form in flight?

A

Visible moisture is necessary for the formation of aircraft structural ice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a pilot is UNDER age 40 or older when issued, how long is the FIRST class medical certificate valid for?

A

FAR 61.123: 60 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

During runup at a high altitude airport, you note a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but gets worse during carb heat check. What would be the most logical next action?

A

Likely cause is rich mixture, which would be exacerbated by applying carb heat. Leaning the mixture during runup will normally resolve the issue. If not, seek maintenance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carb, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be?

A

At a constant power setting and with a fixed-pitch propeller, loss of rpm with no throttle adjustment could be the first indication of carburetor ice, followed by engine roughness. Apply full carb heat to remove any suspected ice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane?

A

FAR 61.57: Passenger carrying currency in a tail wheel airplane must include three takeoffs and landings to a full stop, done within the preceding 90 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/Facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that:

A

VHF direction finding capability exists, whereby a FSS can determine your direction and give guidance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the:

A

AF/D, Airport Facility Directory (green cover books)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

To act as a pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable pitch propeller, a person is required to:

A

FAR 61.57: To act as PIC in a complex airplane, both ground and flight training is required, as is a one-time endorsement from a flight instructor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Any PIC of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight unless:

A

Reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons and property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance unless the pilot:

A

FAR 91.123: Receipt of an amended clearance, emergency, or deviation in response to TCAS resolution advisory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

To qualify as an approach or to meet training requirements to what point must the instrument approach continue to be loggable?

A

To the MDA or DA as appropriate 61.57, 61.65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Is PIC time determined by the conditions of flight or who has the controls?

A

To log PIC time you must hold a rating for the aircraft, you may log PIC time for the time you soley manipulated the controls. 61.51

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Can two pilots log PIC time simultaneously?

A

No there is no provision for two pilots to log PIC time simultaneously for the same flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When can ATC approve the visual approach?

A

When the pilot confirms either the airport in sight or the traffic they have been designated to follow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When can a person serve as second in command?

A

Under 61.55 a person may serve as second in command on aircraft certified for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or in operations requiring a second in command flight crewmember

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What weather is required for a vector to the visual approach?

A

A vector for the visual approach can only be given if the weather at the airport of intended landing is at least a reported ceiling of 500 feet above the MVA/MIA, and the visibility is 3 miles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When you accept a visual approach can you execute a missed approach?

A

Negative. The only option you have is a go-around.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What must ATC provide you when they ask you to report the airport in sight?

A

ATC must give you the location of the destination airport when they ask you to report the airport in sight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

To clear an aircraft for the visual approach what must the ceiling and visability be?

A

To clear and aircraft for the visual approach the ceiling must be at or above 1000 feet and 3 miles visibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a major difference between a visual approach and a charted visual flight procedure or CVFP?

A

The charted visual flight procedure is a visual approach with one caveat, you must fly the charted procedure as depicted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Is being cleared for an arrival procedure the same as a descend via Clearence?

A

Negative, you can only fly the lateral path of the procedure and must comply with published speed restrictions. Despite being assigned an arrival you cannot decend.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If cleared for vertical navigation using Descend Via what must you advise new ATC upon frequency change?

A

You must advise ATC upon initial contact on a new frequency of the altitude you are leaving and descending via the procedure name include the runway transition or landing direction if given and any unpublished restrictions you were assigned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When must each occupant wear an approved parachute?

A

Intentional pitching of nose +- 30 deg or more, and +- 60 deg bank or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

A

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

A

Flashing green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

A

1200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Airport taxi way edge lights are identified at night by?

A

Blue omnidirectional lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

A

Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering class C airspace?

A

Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding:

A

90 days. FAR 61.57 requires pilot landing currency only if passengers are to be carried. The pilot has to confirm that he has made at least three takeoffs, and landings within the preceding 90 days, prior to taking any passengers aloft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is:

A
  1. If a pilot is not current to carry passengers at night, FAR 61.57 allows that pilot to carry passengers only up to, but not beyond one hour after sunset.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does the red line on the airspeed indicator represent?

A

Never-exceed speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In addition to a valid airworthiness certificate, what documents or records must be on board an aircraft during flight?

A

Regulations require that operating limitations and a registration certificate be carried on board the aircraft for all flight operations. FAR 91.9 and 91.203

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished:

A

Although night ops require extra vigilance by the pilot - the aircraft does not know that it is dark. Night approaches should be made same as day ones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

An operable 4096 code transponder encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?

A

FAR 91.215 requires a transponder and altitude reporting equipment for operations in class A,B, and C airspace, and within the mode C veil surrounding Class B airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

During a night flight you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A

The aircraft is crossing to the left. You are viewing the steady red light on the left wing tip and the flashing beacon on the tail, therefore the aircraft is crossing your path from right to left.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single engine airplane:

A

Takeoffs, climb outs, and power on stall practice are three flight conditions where torque effect is most pronounced. Right rudder is required to counteract in all cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When operating an aircraft at pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet msl up to and including 14,000 msl, supplemental oxygen shall be used during:

A

The pilot must be provided with and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight that is more than 30 minutes duration, when above 12,500 feet msl. FAR 91.211

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is CAS?

A

Calibrated Airspeed which is indicated airspeed corrected for position and instrument error.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is TAS?

A

True Airspeed. Airspeed relative to undisturbed air, which is corrected for altitude, temperature, and compressibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

V1

A

Takeoff Decision Speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

V2

A

Takeoff safety speed at 35 feet AGL assuming and engine failure at V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Va

A

Maneuvering Speed is the maximum speed at which full available control movement will not overstress the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Vfe

A

Maximum Flap Extended Speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Vle

A

Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Vlo

A

Maximum Landing Gear Operating Speed where the landing gear can be safely extended or retracted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Vmca

A

Air Minimum Control Speed is the minimum speed at which the aircraft is directionally controllable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Vmca Considerations:

A

One engine inoperative with AutoFeather armed, a 5 deg bank into the good engine, takeoff power on the good engine, rudder boost on, landing gear up, flaps in takeoff position, and most rearward CG.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Vr

A

Rotation Speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Vref

A

Reference Landing Approach Speed with Gear Down and Flaps Down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Vsse

A

Intentional One Engine Inoperative Speed, above Vmca and Stall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Vx

A

Best Angle Of Climb Speed. Greatest gain of altitude in the shortest possible horizontal distance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Vy

A

Best RATE of Climb Speed. Greatest gain in altitude in shortest possible time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Accelerate-Go

A

Accelerate-Go is the distance to accelerate to V1 takeoff decision speed, experience an ENGINE FAIL, continue accelerating to liftoff, then climb and achieve V2 takeoff safety speed 35 feet above the runway.

57
Q

Accelerate-Stop

A

Accelerate-Stop is the distance to accelerate to takeoff decision speed V1 and then bring the aircraft to a stop.

58
Q

If you set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change in altitude occurs?

A

700 foot increase in indicated altitude. Each inch of movement of the altimeter indication in the Kollsman window yields an indicated altitude change of 1000 feet. C

59
Q

Would a Flight Control System malfunction or failure require notifying the NTSB?

A

NTSB part 830.5 requires immediate notification to an NTSB field office for a dozen various incidents one of which is a flight control system malfunction.

60
Q

Under what condition can aircraft operate in formation flight?

A

FAR 91.111 Formation flight is a coordinated effort by all pilots who will be involved in the formation.

61
Q

to act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or a pilot proficiency check within the preceding:

A

FAR 61.56 24 Calendar months

62
Q

The operator of an aircraft involved in an accident, within what time are they required to file a report?

A

10 days NTSB 830.15

63
Q

When is the PIC required to hold a Type Rating?

A

For large aircraft over 12,500 lbs and turbojet powered aircraft a Type Rating is required for that specific aircraft. FAR 61.31

64
Q

What is the most frequent type of surface based temperature inversion and what produces it?

A

Terrestrial radiation on clear relatively calm night. As the ground cools at night the air is cooled as well creating a condition of warmer air above cooler temperature inversion.

65
Q

What does NIMBUS stand for?

A

Nimbus means a rain cloud or rain bearing cloud.

66
Q

When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds which aileron positions should be used?

A

The elevator should be held full down, and the aileron on the side from which the wind is blowing should be full down as well. Adjust accordingly as direction changes while taxiing.

67
Q

When flying a VFR corridor designated through class B airspace the maximum speed is:

A

200 knots for VFR corridor through class B or in the airspace underlying class B. FAR 91.117

68
Q

Dimensions of Class A airspace?

A

Class A is all airspace from 18,000 feet up to and including FL 600 withing the 48 states, most of AK, out to 12 nm from shorelines

69
Q

Vis Requirements in Class B?

A

VFR in Class B requires 3 miles vis and clear of clouds for VFR operations. Note - if ceilings less than 1000’ SVFR will be in effect.

70
Q

Class B airspace Mode C Veil requirement?

A

All aircraft operating within 30 nm of a Class B airport from surface to 10,000 must have Mode C

71
Q

Class B speed restriction?

A

Class B 250 kias below 10,000 & 200 kias below floor or in VFR corridor.

72
Q

Class B entrance is clearance required?

A

You must hear your callsign CLEARED to ENTER CLASS BRAVO. FAR 91.131

73
Q

Beacon with Two White Flashes and One Green Flash indicates?

A

Two white flashes and one green flash indicates MILITARY airfield. AIM 2-1-9

74
Q

White and Green Beacon indicates?

A

White and Green Beacon indicates Lighted Land Airport

75
Q

Class C Airspace Cloud Clearance and Visibility Requirements - VFR?

A

Class C VFR visibility 3 sm, cloud clearance 500 ft below, 1000 ft above, and 2000 ft horizontally. Ceiling at least 1000 ft or SVFR

76
Q

Class C dimensions: Core, Shelf, Outer Area

A

Class C core individually tailored, but usually 5 nm core from SURFACE to 4000 ft AGL. 10 nm radius shelf from 1200 ft agl to 4000 ft agl. Outer Area 20 nm radius from lower limits of radar coverage up to the ceiling of the approach control airspace.

77
Q

Clearance required for entry into Class C ?

A

Class C two way communication must be established, so if controller responds with “callsign, standby” then requirement is met.

78
Q

Controller responds with “aircraft calling, stand by” has two way communication been established?

A

Negative. Must use your callsign.

79
Q

If ATC instructs to “maintain best forward speed” is that authorization to exceed the speed limit for the airspace?

A

Negative, “maintain best forward speed” applies up to the authorized speed for airspace in. Speed deviation above airspace limit must be SPECIFICALLY assigned.

80
Q

Class C & D airspace speed limit?

A

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC no operation at or below 2500 ft agl within 4 nm of the primary Class C & D airport at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 kts.

81
Q

Class D airspace horizontal & vertical dimensions:

A

Class D surface to 2500 ft agl, individually tailored but usually a radius of 4nm around primary airport. Extensions my be necessary to accommodate instrument approach and departure paths.

82
Q

Clearance required for entry into Class D ?

A

Class D two way communication must be established, so if controller responds with “callsign, standby” then requirement is met.

83
Q

If the control tower closes, what becomes of the Class D airspace?

A

After tower closes the D airspace will revert to either Class E or G, dependent on availability of certified weather observer or automated system.

84
Q

Class E airspace definition:

A

Class E is CONTROLLED airspace that is not A, B, C, or D within the 48 states and AK. Upper limit is generally 18,000 ft, and begins again above FL 600.

85
Q

What type airspace comprises Federal Airways?

A

Federal Airways are Class E airspace from 1200 ft agl upward to BUT NOT INCLUDING 18,000 msl.

86
Q

Ceiling and cloud clearance for VFR in Class E below 10000 msl?

A

Class E less than 10000 msl 3 sm visibility and cloud separation 500 ft below, 1000 ft above, 2000 ft horizontally.

87
Q

Ceiling and cloud clearance for VFR in Class E ABOVE 10000 msl?

A

Class E ABOVE 10000 msl 5 sm visibility and cloud separation 1000 ft below, 1000 ft above, 1 mile horizontally.

88
Q

Class G airspace definition:

A

Class G is UNCONTROLLED airspace not designated as Class A,B,C,D, or E. Surface to 14,500 ft msl.

89
Q

Class E TRANSITION altitudes?

A

Class E transition areas begin at either 700 or 1200 ft agl, used to transition to and from the enroute environment.

90
Q

Visibility minimums VFR in Class G?

A

VFR Class G = 1 sm visibility and clear of clouds 1200 ft agl or below daytime. NIGHT = 3 sm visibility and 500 ft below, 1000 ft above, 2000 ft horizontally.

91
Q

SVFR at NIGHT pilot requirements:

A

SVFR at NIGHT requires pilot to be instrument rated and the aircraft equipped for instrument flight.

92
Q

Special VFR weather requirements:

A

Pilot must request SVFR, reported vis of at least 1 sm unless helicopter and clear of clouds.

93
Q

How can a military airport be identified at night?

A

Military can be identified by DUAL PEAKED WHITE flashes between GREEN flashes.

94
Q

A person may not act as a crewmember if alcoholic has been consumed within the preceding:

A

A person may not act as a crewmember if alcoholic has been consumed within the preceding 8 hours. Also prohibited is flying while under the influence of alcohol or with an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater. FAR 91.17

95
Q

An operating 4096 transponder with encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?

A

An operating 4096 transponder with encoding altimeter is required in Class A, B to include within 30 miles of class B pri airport, and Class C. Transponder must be on and set to the code specifically assigned by ATC. FAR 91.215

96
Q

What cruising altitude would be appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135 degrees?

A

Odd thousands plus 500 feet. WEEO = West Even, East Odd. Applies for all VFR flights above 3000 feet agl. FAR 91.159

97
Q

A 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The actual inspection was completed at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100 hour inspection due?

A

3402.5 hours. 100 hour inspections may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours. If exceeded, the excess time must be included in computing the next 100 hour. FAR 91.409

98
Q

A STEADY GREEN light from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot:

A

A STEADY GREEN light from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot is CLEARED TO LAND. FAR 91.125

99
Q

An ATC clearance provides:

A

An ATC clearance provides authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace. It is not an authorization to deviate from any regulation or to conduct an unsafe operation of the aircraft. AIM 4-4-1

100
Q

Should only receive a LAHSO clearance when what weather conditions exist?

A

Minimum ceiling of 1000 feet and 3 sm, dry runway, and no tailwind. Should also consider reduced vis when landing into the sun.

101
Q

Who has final authority to accept or decline a LAHSO clearance?

A

The Pilot In Command has final authority to accept or decline a LAHSO clearance.

102
Q

Aircraft approaching to land at an airport in Class G or E airspace must make all turns to the:

A

Aircraft approaching to land at an airport in Class G or E airspace must make all turns to the LEFT unless visual markings or AFD indicate right turns. 91.126,127, AIM 4-3-5

103
Q

Generally speaking an approach is considered to be Straight In if the aircraft is aligned within:

A

Generally speaking an approach is considered to be Straight In if the aircraft is aligned within 30 degrees of the runway centerline at least 5 miles out.

104
Q

Aircraft remaining in the traffic pattern should not turn crosswind until:

A

Aircraft remaining in the traffic pattern should not turn crosswind until: Departure end of the runway and within 300 feet below traffic pattern altitude.

105
Q

Large or turbine powered airplane approaching to land on a runway served by an ILS or VASI shall fly:

A

Large or turbine powered airplane approaching to land on a runway served by an ILS or VASI shall fly at or above Glide Slope / Glide Path between Outer Marker until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

106
Q

Large or turbine powered aircraft must maintain at least what altitude in the traffic pattern in Class B,C, or D airspace.

A

Large or turbine powered aircraft must maintain at least 1500 feet agl in the traffic pattern in Class B,C, or D airspace.

107
Q

Runway edge lights. White except on instrument runways YELLOW replaces white on the last:

A

Runway edge lights: White except on instrument runways YELLOW replaces white on the last 2000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone.

108
Q

Touchdown Zone is the first ???? feet of runway beginning at the threshold.

A

Touchdown Zone is the first 3000 feet of runway beginning at the threshold.

109
Q

Touchdown Zone Elevation is the highest elevation in the first ???? feet of the landing surface.

A

Touchdown Zone Elevation is the highest elevation in the first 3000 feet of the landing surface.

110
Q

Three requirements to descend below DH/DA/MDA?

A
  1. Can make approach and landing using normal maneuvers and rate of descent. 2. Visibility must be at or greater than the minimum required for the approach. 3. You must be able to distinctly identify one of the approved visual references for the runway often called the runway environment
111
Q

What Gets You Down To 100’ Above The Touchdown Zone?

A

What Gets You Down To 100’ Above The Touchdown Zone?
If you can see the white approach light system and nothing else, you can descend down to 100’ above touchdown zone elevation, regardless of the type of approach you’re flying (even if it’s a non-precision approach). But at the 100’ point, you need other visual references to go lower

112
Q

What Gets You Down To The Runway? If you see any of these references, you can descend down to the runway and land:

A

If you see any of these references, you can descend down to the runway and land:
The approach light systems’ red terminating bars or red side row bars used on ALSF-1 and ALSF-2 systems
The runway threshold
The threshold lights
The runway end identifier lights they’re the flashing strobes on the corners of the runway’s approach threshold
The visual approach slope indicator this includes both VASIs and PAPIs
The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings The touchdown zone lights
The runway or runway markings
The runway lights

113
Q

How Do You Know What Lights To Look For?

A

How Do You Know What Lights To Look For?
When you look at your approach chart, you’ll see the lights listed in two places. The top of the chart shows the type of approach lighting system for your approach runway
The second spot you can look is the airport diagram. Not only does it have the approach light system, it also tells you the type of runway lighting

114
Q

Civilian airport beacon colors are:

A

Civilian airport beacon colors are GREEN & WHITE

115
Q

When you are within 4 nautical miles and 2500’ of the surface of a Class C airport, you are speed restricted to:

A

When you are within 4 nautical miles and 2500’ of the surface of a Class C airport, you are speed restricted to 200 knots

116
Q

What happens to air temperature as it passes through the Venturi of a carburetor?

A

It gets colder, because the air speeds up and pressure decreases

117
Q

You’re a non-instrument rated private pilot. Can you pick up a Special VFR clearance from ATC?

A

Yes, but only between sunrise and sunset. After sunset, you need to be instrument rated, and flying an instrument capable aircraft.

118
Q

What’s the minimum weather a pilot needs for Special VFR?

A

1SM visibility, and clear of clouds

119
Q

What is the purpose of differential ailerons?

A

They reduce adverse yaw

120
Q

Minimum Descent Altitude MDA will provide how many feet minimum clearance above the highest obstacle along the approach path?

A

Minimum Descent Altitude MDA will provide 250 feet minimum clearance above the highest obstacle along the approach path. Increases are applied in 20 foot increments.

121
Q

IFR Takeoff Minimums 121/135:

A

Two engines or less, 1 statute mile or RVR 5000. More than two engines, 1/2 statute mile or RVR 2400. Zero/Zero takeoffs are legal only for Part 91 operations.

122
Q

Can some operations take off with less than IFR takeoff minimums?

A

An operation that requires two pilots may be issued Op Specs that allow a 500 RVR takeoff under certain conditions.

123
Q

Single Pilot IFR Takeoff Minimums?

A

Takeoff minimum equal to the lowest authorized straight in Cat 1 IFR landing minimums for that airport.

124
Q

Is autopilot authorized to use in leu of required second pilot for IFR takeoffs?

A

Negative

125
Q

If you intend to takeoff with weather less than landing minimums you must file a?

A

If you takeoff with wx below landing minimums you must file a TAKEOFF ALTERNATE that is within one hour flight time at normal cruise per 135.217 or at normal cruise with one engine inoperative per 121.617, aircraft with 3 or more engines must be within 2 hours flying time. The TAKEOFF ALTERNATE MUST have weather at or above IFR landing minimums.

126
Q

Per 91.1039 and 135.217 No person may takeoff where weather conditions are below IFR landing minimums unless there is an?

A

Per 91.1039 and 135.217 No person may takeoff where weather conditions are below IFR landing minimums unless there is an ALTERNATE AIRPORT WITHIN 1 HOURS FLYING TIME at normal cruise speed in still air.

127
Q

Non 135, can you begin an approach if the reported weather is below approach minimums?

A

You cannot begin the approach unless weather is AT OR ABOVE approach minimums. VISIBILITY IS CONTROLLING, ceiling must be considered for Part 135.

128
Q

Ceiling must be considered when beginning an approach, but it does not prevent the pilot from attempting the approach unless

A

Ceiling must be considered when beginning an approach, but it does not prevent the pilot from attempting the approach unless CEILING REQUIRED is noted on the approach chart.

129
Q

If you have begun the approach and later weather goes below minimums can you continue?

A

If you have begun the approach and later weather goes below minimums you CAN continue the approach and land if you find at MDA or DH that the ACTUAL WEATHER is at least equal to landing minimums.

130
Q

Which has precedence, Tower Visibility or RVR?

A

RVR if available TAKES PRECEDENCE OVER TOWER VISIBILITY

131
Q

Descent Below DH or MDA requires

A

Descent Below DH or MDA requires

  1. Must have the landing environment in sight
  2. Flight visibility MUST be at least equal to landing minimums
  3. Must be in position for normal approach and landing
  4. May not descend below 100 feet above TDZ unless red terminating or side row bars are visible
132
Q

If operating under Part 91 are you required to use FLIGHT or REPORTED Visibility?

A

91.175 does not require the use of reported visibility for Part 91 operations.

133
Q

A precaution to the operation of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller is to:

A

A precaution to the operation of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller is to don’t let manifold pressure in inches exceed prop rpm in hundreds. Always follow the manufacturers recommended for power settings.

134
Q

How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a towered airport?

A

How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a towered airport? Call Flight Service. You could ask tower to relay but there is no guarantee.

135
Q

What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?

A

What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist? Both advection and upslope fog require wind to form.

136
Q

AVGAS weighs approx. how much per gallon?

A

AVGAS weighs approx. how much per gallon? 6 lbs

137
Q

What is the right of way rule for converging aircraft?

A

What is the right of way rule for converging aircraft? The one on your right has the right of way.

138
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

What is hypoxia? Reduced, or not enough oxygen in the body.

139
Q

Sky coverage for Broken?

A

Sky coverage for Broken? 5/8 to 7/8 of the sky covered. Overcast is 8/8.

Aeronautical Knowledge / FAR AIM (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions