Aeromedical Impact of Selected Ophthamologic Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 7 conditions discussed.

A
  1. Keratoconus
  2. Topographical pattern suggestive of keratoconus
  3. Cataract
  4. Glaucoma
  5. Ocular HTN
  6. Lattice retinal degeneration
  7. Central serous retinopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe what is occurring in keratoconus.

A

The cornea is abnormally shaped (like a cone) and thin, causing irregular astigmatism.Large astigmatism.
Image distortion.
Fail depth perception
Problems with contrast.
Is progressive– initially correctable with rigid gas permeable (RGP) contacts, but later cannot be corrected to 20/20. May require transplant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the aeromedical concern in keratoconus?

A

Poor contact lens fit
Contact lens failure in flight (does not sit properly secondary to abnormal shape of corneal; at risk of movement with G-force)
Corneal hydrops (acute, painful corneal separation with 20/400 vision instantly)
Decreased vision
Progression to need for corneal transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

At what point is someone who is a trained asset DQ’s with keratoconus?

A

With loss of depth perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What % of pts with topographical pattern suggestive of keratinous progress to keratoconus? Over what time frame? Why does this matter

A

30% in 10 years. Is DQ for IFC 1 physical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is cataracts?

A

Clouding of the lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name 6 causes of cataracts.

A
  1. Natural aging
  2. Medications (i.e. steroids)
  3. Ocular trauma
  4. Radiation (i.e. UV)
  5. Metabolic dz (i.e. DM, Wilson’s)
  6. Congenital/genetic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define mild cataracts. What is the areomedical implication?

A

Correctable to 20/20, may continue to fly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define moderate cataracts. What are the aeromedical considerations?

A

Continued refractive shift with inability to correct to 20/20. Glare. Need increased light to read.

FCII will require surgery (which is earlier than in standard population)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 4 lens characteristics that are approved aeromedically?

A

Acrylic
Monofocal
1 or 3 piece
Clear (NOT blue-blocking yellow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What risk is increased following cataract surgery?

A

3x increased risk of retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the required follow-up after cataract surgery?

A

1 month, then annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define aeromedical glaucoma.

A

IOP >30 mmHg (regardless of whether optic neuropathy is present)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What occurs pathologically in glaucoma?

A

progressive optic neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What 4 findings are seen on exam in glaucoma?

A
  1. Enlarged cup/disc ratio (>0.4) or asymmetric (>0.2 difference)
  2. Thinning of retinal nerve fiber layer on OCT
  3. VF defects
  4. Increased IOP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name 4 mechanisms of action of secondary glaucoma?

A
  1. Medications (steroids, TPM)
  2. Trauma (damage to drainage system)
  3. Mechanical (particulate blockage)
  4. Anatomic (blockage)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name 3 aeromedical hazards of glaucoma.

A
  1. Progressive occult loss of peripheral or central VF loss
  2. Acquired color/contrast deficit
  3. Eventual incisional surgery or visual loss leads to DQ
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the preferred way for IOP measurement?

A

Goldmann applanation tonometry (GAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 3 aeromedical approved treatments for glaucoma?

A
  1. Timilol
  2. Latanaprost
  3. Laser surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define ocular hypertension

A

Evidence of elevated intraocular pressures (measured by applanation tonometry, without “correction” for central corneal thickness; two or more IOPs over 21 mmHg on two separate occasions) without evidence of optic neuropathy (retinal nerve fiber loss and disc based visual field defect).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the etiologies of ocular HTN?

A

Same as glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What differentiates ocular HTN from glaucoma?

A

No evidence of optic neuropathy on retinal nerve fiber layer analysis, visual field testing, or structural changes or asymmetry of optic nerve cupping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the goal of treatment?

A

Risk stratification (those with risk factors should be treated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name 7 risk factors for glaucoma.

A
  1. High IOP
  2. Family history – primary relative
  3. Race (African American)
  4. Age (higher)
  5. Myopia (high myopia)
  6. Central corneal thickness (< 540 um)
  7. Low diastolic arterial perfusion pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Name 4 parts to the ocular HTN/glaucoma work-up?
1. Humphrey Visual Field 30-2 2. Diurnal GAT IOP (At least three measurements two hours apart) 3. Dilated fundus and optic nerve evaluation 4. Retinal nerve fiber layer analysis by OCT
26
Define central chorioretinopathy (CSR).
A serous/exudative neurosensory retinal detachment secondary to a breakdown of the retinal pigmented epithelial (RPE) retinal blood barrier; also known as a pigmented epithelial detachment (PED)
27
What is the clinical presentation?
smoky, smudge in or near central fixation
28
List 3 risk factors for CSR?
1. Heavy stress exposure (Pilots, engineers, physicians) 2. Type A personality 3. Exogenous steroid exposure
29
What is the treatment for CSR? What does the FS need to be wary of?
Observation x 3 mo. Stress reduction. Off-base ophtho will want to treat with laser. This should not be done until later in the course in aeromedical patients.
30
What is the prognosis for CSR?
May fully resolve or have retinal damage.
31
What is the risk of recurrence of CSR?
50% first year, 40% lifetime after first year (either eye)
32
List 4 aeromedical hazards of CSR.
1. Acquired color and contrast deficit 2. Retinal scarring / pigment mottling 3. Visual field defects 4. Metamorphopsia (abn Amsler grid)
33
List 3 types or retinal changes.
1. Lattice retinal degeneration 2. Retinal breaks/tears 3. Retinal detachment
34
How does lattice retinal degeneration present?
Usually found on annual eye exam
35
What patients are high risk for lattice retinal degeneration?
High myopia (>5.00)
36
What is the prognosis of lattice retinal degeneration?
Rarely progressive but at higher risk for retinal detachment (30%)
37
What is the treatment for lattice retinal degeneration?
Low risk-- observation | High risk-- laser retinopexy
38
What are two types of retinal detachment?
Macula on or off
39
How does macula-on retinal detachment present?
Flashing lights Floaters Veils No sig vision acuity change
40
How does macula-off retinal detachment present?
Marked decreased visual acuity | h/o macula-on sx (i.e. flashes/floaters)
41
What is the management priority of the two types of retinal detachment?
Macula-on: Emergent | Macula-off: Urgent (couple days)
42
What is the prognosis of macula-off retinal detachment?
Macula-off: low likelihood of full recovery
43
Name 3 aeromedical hazards of glaucoma.
1. Progressive occult loss of peripheral or central VF loss 2. Acquired color/contrast deficit 3. Eventual incisional surgery or visual loss leads to DQ
44
What is the preferred way for IOP measurement?
Goldmann applanation tonometry (GAT)
45
What are the 3 aeromedical approved treatments for glaucoma?
1. Timilol 2. Latanaprost 3. Laser surgery
46
Define ocular hypertension
Evidence of elevated intraocular pressures (measured by applanation tonometry, without “correction” for central corneal thickness; two or more IOPs over 21 mmHg on two separate occasions) without evidence of optic neuropathy (retinal nerve fiber loss and disc based visual field defect).
47
What are the etiologies of ocular HTN?
Same as glaucoma
48
What differentiates ocular HTN from glaucoma?
No evidence of optic neuropathy on retinal nerve fiber layer analysis, visual field testing, or structural changes or asymmetry of optic nerve cupping
49
What is the goal of treatment?
Risk stratification (those with risk factors should be treated)
50
Name 7 risk factors for glaucoma.
1. High IOP 2. Family history – primary relative 3. Race (African American) 4. Age (higher) 5. Myopia (high myopia) 6. Central corneal thickness (< 540 um) 7. Low diastolic arterial perfusion pressure
51
Name 4 parts to the ocular HTN/glaucoma work-up?
1. Humphrey Visual Field 30-2 2. Diurnal GAT IOP (At least three measurements two hours apart) 3. Dilated fundus and optic nerve evaluation 4. Retinal nerve fiber layer analysis by OCT
52
Define central chorioretinopathy (CSR).
A serous/exudative neurosensory retinal detachment secondary to a breakdown of the retinal pigmented epithelial (RPE) retinal blood barrier; also known as a pigmented epithelial detachment (PED)
53
What is the clinical presentation?
smoky, smudge in or near central fixation
54
List 3 risk factors for CSR?
1. Heavy stress exposure (Pilots, engineers, physicians) 2. Type A personality 3. Exogenous steroid exposure
55
What is the treatment for CSR? What does the FS need to be wary of?
Observation x 3 mo. Stress reduction. Off-base ophtho will want to treat with laser. This should not be done until later in the course in aeromedical patients.
56
What is the prognosis for CSR?
May fully resolve or have retinal damage.
57
What is the risk of recurrence of CSR?
50% first year, 40% lifetime after first year (either eye)
58
List 4 aeromedical hazards of CSR.
1. Acquired color and contrast deficit 2. Retinal scarring / pigment mottling 3. Visual field defects 4. Metamorphopsia (abn Amsler grid)
59
List 3 types or retinal changes.
1. Lattice retinal degeneration 2. Retinal breaks/tears 3. Retinal detachment
60
How does lattice retinal degeneration present?
Usually found on annual eye exam
61
What patients are high risk for lattice retinal degeneration?
High myopia (>5.00)
62
What is the prognosis of lattice retinal degeneration?
Rarely progressive but at higher risk for retinal detachment (30%)
63
What is the treatment for lattice retinal degeneration?
Low risk-- observation | High risk-- laser retinopexy
64
What are two types of retinal detachment?
Macula on or off
65
How does macula-on retinal detachment present?
Flashing lights Floaters Veils No sig vision acuity change
66
How does macula-off retinal detachment present?
Marked decreased visual acuity | h/o macula-on sx (i.e. flashes/floaters)
67
What is the management priority of the two types of retinal detachment?
Macula-on: Emergent | Macula-off: Urgent (couple days)
68
What is the prognosis of the two types of retinal detachment?
Macula-on:
69
List 4 aeromedical hazards of retinal detachment?
Macula-on: loss of best peripheral vision Macula-off: Loss of best central vision --> color/contrast deficits Cataract formation Refractive error --> blindness
70
List 4 items included in the work-up for waiver.
1. DFE 2. Review of signs/sx (i.e. floaters/flashes/veil) 3. 5% precision visual acuity (low contrast) 4. VFs