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CIULLA > Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacteria > Flashcards

Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A test for the hydrolysis of esculin in the presence of bile is especially useful in identifying species of the genus

A. Abiotrophia
B. Corynebacterium
C. Enterococcus
D. Staphylococcus

A

C. Enterococcus

  • And other Group D Streps
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2
Q
  1. The organism associated with a disease characterized by the presence of a pseudomembrane in the throat and the production of an exotoxin that is absorbed into the bloodstream with a lethal affect is

A. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pyogens
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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3
Q
  1. Enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for causing

A. Carbuncles
B. Enterocolitis
C. Impetigo
D. Scalded Skin Syndrome

A

B. Enterocolitis

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4
Q
  1. Abiotrophia, formerly known as nutritionally variant streptococci, will not grow on routine blood or chocolate agars because they are deficient in

A. Hemin
B. Pyridoxal
C. VItamin B
D. Thiophene-2-carboxylic hydrazide

A

B. Pyridoxal

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5
Q
  1. Exfoliatin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for causing

A. Enterocolitis
B. Toxic Shock Syndrome
C. Scalded Skin Syndrome
D. Staphylococcal pneumonia

A

C. Scalded Skin Syndrome

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6
Q
  1. Streptococcus pyogens can be preemptively identified using a(n)

A. PYR disk
B. ONPG disk
C. SPS disk
D. Optochin disk

A

A. PYR disk

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7
Q
  1. A gram positive coccus that is catalase positive, nonmotile, lysostaphin resistant, and modified oxidase positive is best identified as a member of the genus

A. Micrococcus
B. Lactococcus
C. Pediococcus
D. Staphylococcus

A

A. Micrococcus

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8
Q
  1. Nocardia asteroides infections in humans characteristically produce

A. Carbuncles
B. Draining cutaneous sinuses
C. Spetic shock
D. Serous effusions

A

B. Draining cutaneous sinuses

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9
Q
  1. Erysipelothrix infections in humans characteristically produce

A. Pathology at the point of entrance of the organism
B. Central nervous system pathology
C. Pathology in the lower respiratory tract
D. The formation of abscesses in visceral organs

A

A. Pathology at the point of entrance of the organism

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10
Q
  1. In the CAMP test, a single streak of a bets-hemolytic Streptococcus is placed perpendicular to a streak of beta-lysin producing Staphylococcus aureus. After incubation, a zone of increased lysis in the shape of an arrowhead is notes; this indicates the presumptive identification of

A. S. agalactiae
B. S. bovis
C. S. equinus
D. S. pyogens

A

A. S. agalactiae

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11
Q
  1. Staphylococcus saprophyticus, a recognized pathogen, is a cause of

A. Furuncles
B. Impetigo
C. Otitis media
D. UTI

A

D. UTI

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12
Q
  1. The color plate 26 (Gram positive rod) shows the gram stain of a blood culture of a 23 year old pregnant woman who presented with fever and flu like symptoms in her ninth month. The isolate on blood agar produced small, translucent beta-hemolytic colonies. Which of the following is the most likely etiologic agent in this case?

A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Propionibacterium acnes
C. Straptococcus agalactiae
D. Streptococcus pyogens

A

A. Listeria monocytogenes

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13
Q
  1. The etiologic agent most commonly assicated with septicemia and meningitis of newborns is

A. Strep agalactiae
B. Strep bovis group
C. Strep pneumoniae
D. Strep pyogens

A

A. Strep agalactiae

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most commonly isolated species of Bacillus in opportunistic infections such as bacteremia, post-traumatic infections of the eye, and endocarditis?

A. B. circulans
B. B. cereus
C. B. licheniformis
D. B. subtilis

A

B. B. cereus

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15
Q
  1. Loeffler’s serum medium is recommended for the cultivation of

A. Abiotrophia sp.
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Leuconostoc sp.
D. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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16
Q
  1. On Tinsdale agar, colonies of Corynebacterium diphtheriae are characterized by the observance of

A. Liquification of the agar surrounding the colonies on the medium
B. Opalescent colonies in the surrounding agar
C. Black colonies on the culture medium surrounded by brown halos
D. Pitting of the agar medium surrounding the colonies

A

C. Black colonies on the culture medium surrounded by brown halos

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17
Q
  1. Precipitates of diphtheria toxin and antitoxin formed in agar gels are an in vitro means for detecting toxogenic strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The name of this test procedure is the

A. D-test
B. Elek test
C. Hodge test
D. Nagler test

A

B. Elek test

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18
Q
  1. The etiological agent of the disease erysipelas is

A. Staph aureus
B. Strep moniliformis
C. Strep agalactiae
D. Strep pyogenes

A

D. Strep pyogenes

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19
Q
  1. Staphylococcus aureus, when present, could most likely be recovered from a stool sample if the primary plating medium included

A. Bismuth sulfite
B. Phenylethyl alcohol
C. Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose
D. Xylose-lysine-desoxycholate

A

B. Phenylethyl alcohol

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20
Q
  1. A common member of the normal flora of the upper respiratory tract is

A. Cornybacterium jeikeium
B. Lactobacillus
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Virdans streptococcus

A

D. Virdans streptococcus

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21
Q
  1. Streptococci obtain all their energy from a fermentation of sugars to

A. Formic acid
B. Lactic acid
C. Succine acid
D. Valeric acid

A

B. Lactic acid

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22
Q
  1. Streptococci are unable to synthesize the enzyme

A. Catalase
B. Kinase
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Lipase

A

A. Catalase

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23
Q
  1. The beta-hemolysis produced by group A Streptococcus seen on the surface of a sheep blood agar plate is primarily the result of streptolysin

A. H
B. M
C. O
D. S

A

D. S

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24
Q
  1. When an infection due to Streptomyces is suspected, isolates can be separated from most other bacteria by

A. Heat shocking the culture
B. Incubating the culture at 25* C
C. Incubating the culture at greater than 37* C
D. Drying the specimen before inoculating the culture media

A

B. Incubating the culture at 25* C

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25
Q
  1. The production of H2S is one characteristic used to differentiate which of the aerobic gram-positive bacilli?

A. Corynebacterium
B. Erysipelothrix
C. Lactobacillus
D. Nocardia

A

B. Erysipelothrix

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26
Q
  1. Growth in a 48 hour semisolid agar stab culture at room temperature reveals lateral filamentous growth away from the stab near the top of the medium. This observation is most characteristic of which organism?

A. Rhodococcus sp.
B. Corynebacterium urealyticum
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Listeria monocytogenes

A

D. Listeria monocytogenes

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27
Q
  1. A former species of Corynebacterium pathogenic for swine, horses, and cattle is also known to cause disease in comprimised hosts. This organism when grown on culture media produces pale pink colonies that help to presumptively identify it as

A. Arcanobacterium hemolyticum
B. Actinomyces naeslundii
C. Gardnerella vaginalis
D. Rhodococcus equi

A

D. Rhodococcus equi

28
Q
  1. Which one of the following is not appropriate when describing Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A. Bile-resistant
B. Alpha-hemolytic
C. Lancet-shaped, gram positive diplococcus
D. Virulent strains are encapsulated

A

A. Bile-resistant

29
Q
  1. Nocardia can be differentiated from Actinomyces based on

A. Nocardia being an obligate anaerobe
B. The partial-acid fast staining reaction of Actinomyces
C. The production of sufur granules in cases of nocardiosis
D. Nocardia being catalase positive

A

D. Nocardia being catalase positive

30
Q
  1. Enterococcus faecium is characteristically

A. Inhibited by the presence of bile in culture media
B. Able to grow in the presence of high concentrations of salt
C. PYR positive
D. Beta-hemolytic

A

B. Able to grow in the presence of high concentrations of salt

31
Q
  1. A negative PYR (L-pyrolidonyl-a-napthylamide) test is demonstrated by

A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Enterococcus faecium
C. Streptococcus pyogens
D. Viridans streptococci

A

D. Viridans streptococci

32
Q
  1. A gram stain of a sputum specimen from a patient with a suspected case of lobar pneumonia reveals many white blood cells and many gram-positive cocci, which are primarily diplococci. Which of the following statements would be appropriate, given these findings?

A. A PYR test should be performed on the culture isolate.
B. An Elek test should be performed on the culture isolate.
C. An optochin test should be performed on the culture isolate.
D. A hippurate hydrolysis test should be performed on the culture isolate.

A

C. An optochin test should be performed on the culture isolate.

33
Q
  1. A child presented in August at the pediatric clinic with a superficial skin infection of the neck. The large, itchy lesions were cultured, and the diagnosis of impetigo was made. One of the etiologic agents of this clinical condition is

A. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

D. Streptococcus pyogenes

34
Q
  1. An identifying characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus is

A. DNAse negative
B. Coagulase negative
C. Mannitol fermentation positive
D. Growth inhibition in presence of increased salt

A

C. Mannitol fermentation positive

35
Q
  1. Which of the following organisms is able to hydrolyze sodium hippurate to benzoic acid and glycine?

A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Enterococcus faecalis

A

A. Streptococcus agalactiae

36
Q
  1. Which of the following is not characteristic of Listeria monocytogenes?

A. CAMP test positive
B. Catalase negative
C. Esculin hydrolysis positive
D. Motile

A

B. Catalase negative

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is not associated with Staphylococcus aureus?

A. Endotoxin production
B. CLumping factor production
C. Deoxyribonuclease production
D. Hemolysin production

A

A. Endotoxin production

38
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of staphylococci that would help in their isolation from clinical specimens?

A. Bile resistance
B. Growth at 55* C
C. High salt tolerance
D. Resistance to novobiacin

A

C. High salt tolerance

39
Q
  1. Which of the following species of Bacillus is nonmotile?

A. B. cereus
B. B. subtilis
C. B. anthracis
D. B. thuringiensis

A

C. B. anthracis

40
Q
  1. Which of the following diseases involves erythrogenic toxin?

A. Cutaneous anthrax
B. Diphtheria
C. Impetigo
D. Scarlet fever

A

D. Scarlet fever

41
Q
  1. Cultures of the posterior pharynx are most commonly submitted to the clinical laboratory for the detection of

A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

D. Streptococcus pyogenes

42
Q
  1. Streptococcus sanguis, a viridans streptococcus, is most commonly associated with which of the following clinical conditions?

A. Otitis media
B. Pharyngitis
C. Relapsing fever
D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

43
Q
  1. Rust-colored sputum in cases of lobar pneumonia is characteristic of which of the following possible etiologic agents?

A. Corynebacterium jeikeium
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

44
Q
  1. A urine culture from a 23-year-old female grew a catalase-positive gram-positive coccus (>100,000 cfu/mL), which would most likely be

A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B. Enterococcus faecalis
C. Streptococcus bovis group
D. Streptococcus viridans

A

A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

45
Q
  1. Cystine-tellurite blood agar plates are recommended for the isolation of

A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Streptococcus agalaciae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Group D streptococci

A

A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

46
Q
  1. The pulmonary form of anthrax is known as

A. Valley Fever
B. Walking pneumonia
C. Farmer’s lung
D. Woolsorters disease

A

D. Woolsorters disease

47
Q
  1. Pleomorphic gram-positive bacilli in a gram strain best describes

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum

A

D. Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum

48
Q
  1. An aerobic gram-positive rod known to cause bacteremia in hospitalized immunocompromised patients is

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Corynebacterium jeikeium
C. Corynebacterium ulcerans
D. Corynebacterium urealyticum

A

B. Corynebacterium jeikeium

49
Q
  1. A bone marrow transplant patient on immunosuppressive therapy developed a pulmonary abscess with symptoms of neurologic involvement. A brain abscess was detected by MRI, and aspirated material grew an aerobic, filamentous, branching gram-positive organism, which stained weakly acid-fast. The most likely etiologic agent in this case would be

A. Actinomyces israelii
B. Nocardia aderoides
C. Mycobacteroum tuberculosis
D. Propionibacterium acnes

A

B. Nocardia aderoides

50
Q
  1. Which of the following is catalse negative?

A. Bacillus
B. Corynebacterium
C. Leuconostoc
D. Listeria

A

C. Leuconostoc

51
Q
  1. Colonies of Listeria monocytogenes on a sheep blood agar plate most closely resemble colonies of

A. Corynebacterium diptheriae
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus bovis group
D. Rhodococcus equi

A

B. Streptococcus agalactiae

52
Q
  1. The most common etiologic agent of infections associated with the surgical insertion of prosthetic devices such as artificial heart valves and cerebrospinal fluid shunts is

A. Corynebacterium urealyticum
B. Staphylococcus capitis
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Streptococcus mutans

A

C. Staphylococcus epidermidis

53
Q
  1. The description of “Medusa head” colonies on solid agar is most characteristic of

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Enterococcus faecalis
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

A. Bacillus anthracis

54
Q
  1. Which of the following is most likely to be isolated in cultures from the anterior nares of healthcare workers?

A. Bacillus cereus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A

C. Staphylococcus aureus

55
Q
  1. Ethyhydrocupreine HCl susceptability is a presumptive test for the identification of

A. Viridans pyogenes
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

56
Q
  1. Solubility in the presence of sodium desoxycholate is characteristic of

A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus mutans
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

57
Q
  1. Family members attending a picnic became ill about 2 hours after eating. The illness what characterized by rapid onset of violent vomiting. The most likely bacterial cause of such symptoms would be food poisoning caused by

A. Enterococcus faecium
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

D. Staphylococcus aureus

58
Q
  1. The novobiocin susceptibility test is used for the identification of

A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A

D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

59
Q
  1. Tellurite reduction is used for the presumptive identification of

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A

B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

60
Q
  1. The etiologic aagent of the majority of adult joint infections is

A. Abiotrophia sp.
B. Leuconostoc sp.
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

C. Staphylococcus aureus

61
Q
  1. What of the following is associated with infections in humans often linked to deli meats and improperly pasteurized dairy paroducts?

A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Leuconostoc
D. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

B. Listeria monocytogenes

62
Q
  1. Bacillus cereus has been implicated as the etiologic agent in cases of

A. Food poisioning
B. Impetigo
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Toxic shock syndrome

A

A. Food poisioning

63
Q
  1. The etiologic agent of “malignant pustule” is

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Corynebacterium ulcerans
C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D. Listeria monocytogenes

A

A. Bacillus anthracis

64
Q
  1. An infant was hospitalized with a severe, tender erythema. The child’s epidermis was loose, and large areas of skin could be peeled off. The condition described is most consistant with a clinical syndrome associated with

A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

B. Staphylococcus aureus

65
Q
  1. A catalase-negative gram positive coccus is isolated from a urine sample of a hospitalized patient. The bacterium poduced a black pigment on bile-esculin agar and formed acid from glucose in the presence of 6.5% NaCl. What is the most likely identification of this bacterium?

A. Abriotrophia sp.
B. Enterococcus faecalis
C. Group B strep
D. Group D strep

A

B. Enterococcus faecalis

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