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CIULLA > Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacteria > Flashcards

Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q
  1. In suspected cases of brucellosis, the optimal specimen to be collected for the isolation of the etiologic agent is

A. Blood
B. Urine
C. CSF
D. Nasopharyngeal exudates

A

A. Blood

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2
Q
  1. The majority of clinical isolates of Klebsiella are

A. K. ozaenae
B. K. pneumoniae
C. K. aerogenes
D. K. oxytoca

A

B. K. pneumoniae

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3
Q
  1. The enterotoxins of both Vibrio cholerae O1 and noninvasive (toxigenic) strains of Escherichia coli produce serious diarrhea by what mechanism?

A. Stimulation of adenylate cyclase, which gives rise to excessive fluid secretions by the cells of the small intestine
B. Penetration of the bowel mucosa
C. Stimulation of colicin production
D. Elaboration of a dermonecrotizing toxin

A

A. Stimulation of adenylate cyclase, which gives rise to excessive fluid secretions by the cells of the small intestine

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4
Q
  1. Colonies of Neisseria sp. turn color when a redox regent if applied. The color change is indicative of the activity of the bacterial enzyme

A. Beta-galactoside
B. Urease
C. Cytochrome oxidase
D. Pheylalanine deaminase

A

C. Cytochrome oxidase

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true of Shigela sonnei?

A. Large numbers of organisms must be ingested to produce disease.
B. The organism produces an inflammatory condition in the large intestine with bloody diarrhea.
C. The organism produces disease most commonly in the pediatric population.
D. The organism is a delayed lactose fermenter.

A

A. Large numbers of organisms must be ingested to produce disease.

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6
Q
  1. An environmental sampling study of respiratory therapy equipment produced cultures of a yellow, nonfermentative (at 48 hrs), gram neg bacillus from several of the nebulizers, which would most likely be species of

A. Chryseobacterium
B. Pseudmonas
C. Alcaligenes
D. Moraxella

A

A. Chryseobacterium

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7
Q
  1. The characteristics of being lactose negative, citrate negative, urease negative, and nonmotile best describe which organism?

A. Proteus vulgaris
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Salmonella enterica
D. Shigella dysenteriae

A

D. Shigella dysenteriae

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8
Q
  1. A non fermentative gram neg bacillus that is oxidase positive, motile, and grows well on Mac agar is

A. Aeromonas hyrophila
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
D. Yersinia enterocolitica

A

A. Aeromonas hyrophila

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9
Q
  1. Fecal cultures are inoculated on thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose agar specifically for the isolation of

A. Shigella
B. Vibrio
C. Campybacter
D. Shigella

A

B. Vibrio

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10
Q
  1. The K antigen of the family Enterobacteriaceae is

A. Heat labile
B. The somatic antigen
C. Located on the flagellum
D. The antigen used to group Shigella

A

A. Heat labile

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11
Q
  1. The causitive agent of melioidosis is

A. Burkholderia cepacia
B. Burkholderia pseudomallei
C. Moraxella catarrhalis
D. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

A

B. Burkholderia pseudomallei

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12
Q
  1. Which microorganism will grow only on culture media supplemented with either cysteine or cystine?

A. Actinobacillus lignieresii
B. Bartonella bacilliformis
C. Francisella tularensis
D. Kingella kingae

A

C. Francisella tularensis

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13
Q
  1. A culture of a decubitus ulcer grew a gram neg facultative bacillus. On TSI it produced an acid slant, acid butt, and gas. Test reactions in other media were as follows:
    Citrate: Neg
    Indole: Pos
    Urease: Neg
    ONPG: Pos
    VP: Neg

A. Enterobacter cloacae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Citrobacter (diversus) koseri
D. Providencia stuartii

A

B. Escherichia coli

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14
Q
  1. An example of an oxidase-positive, glucose nonfermenting organism is

A. Aeromonas hydrophila
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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15
Q
  1. A fastidious gram neg bacillus was isolated from a case of periodontal disease, which upon darkfield examination was noted to have gliding motility. The most likely identification of this etiologic agent would be

A. Capnocytophaga
B. Chromobacterium
C. Kingella
D. Plesiomonas

A

A. Capnocytophaga

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16
Q
  1. The species of Vibrio closely associated with rapidly progressing wound infections seen in patients with underslying liver disease is

A. V. alginolyticus
B. V. cholerae
C. V. vulnifuicus
D. V. parahaemolyticus

A

C. V. vulnifuicus

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17
Q
  1. Severe disseminated intravascular cogulation often complications cases of septicemia caused by

A. Acinetobacter sp.
B. Moraxella sp.
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Neisseria meningitidis

A

D. Neisseria meningitidis

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18
Q
  1. The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine protects against which serotype?

A. Serotype a
B. Serotype b
C. Serotype c
D. Serotype d

A

B. Serotype b

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19
Q
  1. Salmonella Typhi exhibits a characterisitc biochemical pattern, which differentiates it from the other salmonellae. Which of the following is not characteristic of S. Typhi?

A. Large amounts of H2S are produced in TSI agar
B. Agglutination in Vi grouping serum
C. Lysine decarboxylase protive
D. Citrate negative

A

A. Large amounts of H2S are produced in TSI agar

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20
Q
  1. The sexually acquired disease characteristerized by genital ulcers and tender inguinal lymphphadenopathy, which is caused by a small, gram-negative bacillus, is known as

A. Chancroid
B. Bacterial vaginosis
C. Syphilis
D. Trachoma

A

A. Chancroid

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following diseases is most likely to be acquired from a hot tub or whirlpool?

A. Q fever
B. Eryipelas
C. Acinetobacter cellulitis
D. Pseudomonas dermatitis

A

D. Pseudomonas dermatitis

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22
Q
  1. Campylobacter spp. are associated most frequently with case of

A. Osteomyelitis
B. Gastroenteritis
C. Endocarditis
D. Appendicitis

A

B. Gastroenteritis

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23
Q
  1. An organism occasionally misidentified as an enteric pathogen becuase it produces a large amount of H2S is

A. Burkholderia cepacia
B. Burkholderia pseudomallei
C. Pseudomonas putida
D. Shewanella putrefaciens

A

D. Shewanella putrefaciens

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24
Q
  1. The etiologic agent of whooping cough is

A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Brucella suis
C. Francisella tularensis
D. Haemophilus ducreyi

A

A. Bordetella pertussis

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25
Q
  1. An important characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae or the infection it produces is

A. A gram strain of the organism reveals gram-negative bacilli
B. Asymptomatic infections are common in females
C. Produces disease in humans and domestic animals
D. The bacteria survive long periods outside the host’s body

A

B. Asymptomatic infections are common in females

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following organisms would mostly likely produce the biochemical reactions shown in Color Plate 27 (TSI: K/H2S , Urea: Neg, TDA: Neg, Lysine: Pos

A. Citrobacter freundii
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Providencia rettgeri
D. Salmonella

A

D. Salmonella

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27
Q
  1. A gram negative, “kidney bean” cellular morphology is a distiguishing characteristic of

A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Bartonella spp.
D. Actinobacter spp.

A

A. Neisseria meningitidis

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following nonfermenters is rarely isolated in the US?

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
C. Burkholderia mallei
D. Burkholderia cepacia

A

C. Burkholderia mallei

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29
Q
  1. Erythromycin eye drops are routinely administered to infants to prevents infection by

A. E. coli
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

30
Q
  1. Neisseria lactamica closely resembles Neisseria meningitidis but can be differentiated from it by its ability to metabolize

A. Maltose
B. Lactose
C. Glucose
D. Sucrose

A

B. Lactose

31
Q
  1. A causitive agent of the form of conjunctivitis known as pinkeye is

A. Haemophilus aegyptius
B. Moraxella lacunata
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Klebsiella ozaenae

A

A. Haemophilus aegyptius

32
Q
  1. The single species in the genus Hafnia is

A. alvei
B. gergoviae
C. ruckeri
D. tarda

A

A. alvei

33
Q
  1. Acinetobacter baumannii

A. Requires cysteine
B. Is oxidase negative
C. Ferments glucose
D. Does not grow on MacConkey agar

A

B. Is oxidase negative

34
Q
  1. Legionella pneumonphila is the etiologic agent of both Legionnaires disease and

A. Swine fever
B. Pontiac fever
C. Rift Valley fever
D. San Joaquin Valley fever

A

B. Pontiac fever

35
Q
  1. In suspected cases of brucellosis, what is the most sensitive specimen to submit for culture?

A. Bone marrow
B. Nasopharyngeal swab
C. Sputum
D. Stool

A

A. Bone marrow

36
Q
  1. Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication after infection with

A. E. coli O157:H7
B. Salmonella Typhi
C. Vibrio cholerae O1
D. Yersinia enterocolitica

A

A. E. coli O157:H7

37
Q
  1. Identify the fermentative agent that may infect reptiles and fish as well as humans when they are exposed to contaminated soil or water.

A. Aeromonas
B. Chromobacterium
C. Chryseobacterium
D. Enterobacter

A

A. Aeromonas

38
Q
  1. Campylobacter jejuni is

A. Nonmotile
B. Oxidase negative
C. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
D. A straight gram neg bacillus

A

C. Hippurate hydrolysis positive

39
Q
  1. Which of the following has a negative oxidase test?

A. Aeromonas
B. Chryseobacterium
C. Hafnia
D. Vibrio

A

C. Hafnia

40
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A. Adversely affected by fatty acids in clinical specimens
B. Rapid growth on sheep blood agar
C. Ferments glucose on sheep blood agar
D. ONPG positive

A

A. Adversely affected by fatty acids in clinical specimens

41
Q
  1. The method of serogrouping Shigella used in the clinical laboratory is based on

A. Bacteriocins
B. H antigens
C. K antigens
D. O antigens

A

D. O antigens

42
Q
  1. The symptom of diffuse, watery diarrhea that produces a relatively clear stool containing mucus flecks is suggestive of an infection caused by

A. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
B. Shigella dysenteriae
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Yersinia enterocolitica

A

C. Vibrio cholerae

43
Q
  1. An example of a halophilic microorganism is

A. Morganella morganii
B. Plesiomonas shigelloides
C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
D. Yersinia pestis

A

C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus

44
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is not true of Brucella?

A. Infection may occus via abrasions of the oral mucosa, conjunctiva, and genitals.
B. They are fastidious and require supplemented media for isolation.
C. The risk of accidental laboratory infection is no greater than with any other organism.
D. Phage and dye sensitivity tests are used for identification to the species level.

A

C. The risk of accidental laboratory infection is no greater than with any other organism.

45
Q
  1. Infection of the gastric mucosa leading to gastritis or peptic ulcers is most commonly associated with

A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Shigella sonnei

A

B. Helicobacter pylori

46
Q
  1. Which of the following does not describe Acinetobacter sp.?

A. Commonly susceptible to most antimicrobials
B. Generall coccobacillary in morphology
C. Oxidase negative
D. Infections associated with use of medical devices

A

A. Commonly susceptible to most antimicrobials

47
Q
  1. Explosive watery diarrhea with severe abdominal pain after eating raw shellfish is most characteristic of infection caused by

A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Vibrio parahemolyticus

A

D. Vibrio parahemolyticus

48
Q
  1. An unheated suspension of Salmonella typhi typically poduces affutination of Vi antisera. After heating the same suspension, agglutination will occus in which grouping sera?

A. A
B. B
C. C1
D. D

A

D. D

49
Q
  1. The species of Campylobacter noted to produce septicemia, septic arthritis, meningitis, jaundice with hepatomegaly, and thrombophlebitis in debilitated patients is

A. C. coli
B. C. fetus
C. C. laris
D. C. sputorum

A

B. C. fetus

50
Q
  1. Shigella sonnei is differentiated from other Shigella sp. by

A. A positive ONPG
B. Its positive phenylalanine deaminase
C. Its negative oxidase reaction
D. Its ability to demonstrate motility at 22*C

A

A. A positive ONPG

51
Q
  1. A positive Voges-Proskauer reaction is characteristic of

A. Enterobacter aerogenes
B. E. coli
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Providencia rettgeri

A

A. Enterobacter aerogenes

52
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true regarding virulent strains of Vibrio cholerae?

A. Adherent to enterocytes
B. Mucinase production
C. Nonmotile
D. Toxigenic

A

C. Nonmotile

53
Q
  1. The classic toxigenic strains of which serogroup are implicated in epidemic infections of Vibrio cholerae?

A. O1
B. O2
C. O3
D. O4

A

A. O1

54
Q
  1. Brucella spp. are

A. The etiologic agents of relapsing fever
B. Small spiral organisms
C. Primarily a cause of endogenous human infections
D. Intracellular pathogens

A

D. Intracellular pathogens

55
Q
  1. Which of the following reactions is typical for E. coli?

A. Beta-hemolytic on sheep blood agar
B. Colorless colonies on Mac agar
C. Colorless colonies on xylose-lysine-desoxycholate agar
D. Green colonies with black centers on Hekton enteric agar

A

A. Beta-hemolytic on sheep blood agar

56
Q
  1. Yersinia pestis is characterisically

A. Urease negative
B. Hydrogen sulfide positive
C. Motile at 20-25*C
D. Oxidase positive

A

A. Urease negative

57
Q
  1. Lack of motility is characteristic of

A. Enterobacter cloacae
B. Klebsiella oxytoca
C. Morganella morganii
D. Providencia stuartii

A

B. Klebsiella oxytoca

58
Q
  1. In cases of legionellosis

A. Person-to-person transmission is common
B. Farm animals are important animal reseroirs
C. Patients can present with a self-limited nonpneumonic febrile illness
D. Specimens may be cold enriched to enhance recovery of the organism

A

C. Patients can present with a self-limited nonpneumonic febrile illness

59
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Klebsiella (Calymmatobacterium) granulomatis?

A. Is often sexually transmitted
B. Is isolated on chocolate agar
C. Is the causative agent of granultoma inguinale
D. Can be diagnosed by detection of Donovan bodies in clinical specimens

A

B. Is isolated on chocolate agar

60
Q
  1. A positive DNase would be seen with

A. E. coli
B. Klebsiella oxytoca
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Serratia marcescens

A

D. Serratia marcescens

61
Q
  1. A negative citrate reaction is charaacteristic of

A. Citrobacter freundii
B. Enterobacter aerogenes
C. Serratia marcescens
D. Shigella boydii

A

D. Shigella boydii

62
Q
  1. Isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A. Is enhanced by cold enrichment
B. Requires incubation under increased CO2
C. From contaminated sited is made easier by the use of CIN agar
D. Is not affected if clinical specimen is refrigerated before culturing

A

B. Requires incubation under increased CO2

63
Q
  1. A positive indole reaction is characterisitc of

A. E. coli
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Salmonella Choleraesuis
D. Serratia marcescens

A

A. E. coli

64
Q
  1. Which one of the following organisms would be produce a yellow slant and yellow butt on TSI agar after incubating 18 hrs?

A. E. coli
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Salmonella Typhimurium
D. Shigella sonnei

A

A. E. coli

65
Q
  1. Pyocyanin is characteristically produced by

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Pseudomonas fluorescens
C. Shewanella putrefaciens
D. Stenotrophomonas maltophillia

A

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

66
Q
  1. Color Plate 28 (many PMNs) shows a gram stain of a CSF from a 1-year old girls suspected of having meningitis. After 24 hours of growth, small tan colonies were isolated on chocolate agar incubated in CO2. Sheep blood agar also incubated in CO2 had no growth. Which of the following organisms should be suspected?

A. Brucella canis
B. Bordetella parapertussis
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Neisseria meningitidis

A

C. Haemophilus influenzae

67
Q
  1. Which of the following is true concerning Campylobacter jejuni?

A. Catalase neg
B. Isolated at 24*C
C. Hydrogen sulfide pos
D. A leading cause of bacterial diarrhea worldwide

A

D. A leading cause of bacterial diarrhea worldwide

68
Q
  1. Of the following microorganisms, which one will turn a dark purple when tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine hydrochloride is applied?

A. Acinetobacter baumannii
B. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
C. Moraxella catarrhalis
D. Yersinia enterocolitica

A

C. Moraxella catarrhalis

69
Q
  1. Cardiobacterium hominis, an inhabitant of the upper respiratory tract of humans, has been recovered as the etiologic agent from cases of endocarditis. An identifying characteristic of the organism is

A. Positive oxidase
B. Positive catalase
C. Indole negative
D. Inability to grow on sheep blood agar

A

C. Indole negative

70
Q
  1. Vibrio vulnificus is a well established human pathogen that is known to cause

A. Gastroenteritis
B. Pneumonia
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Wound infections

A

D. Wound infections

CIULLA (7 decks)

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