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AE3 Advancement > AE3 Exam Questions > Flashcards

AE3 Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

To what training manual(s) should you refer to study general principles of leadership?

A) Military requirements for Petty Officer Third Class, NAVEDTRA 12044

B) Basic Military Requirements, NAVEDTRA 12018

C) Both A and B

D) Blue Hackets Manual

A

C) Both A and B

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2
Q

In what year were the pay grades E-8 and E-9 established?

A) 1958

B) 1948

C) 1942

D) 1911

A

A) 1958

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3
Q

In what year was the first use of a pilot ejection seat used for emergency escape?

A) 1943

B) 1945

C) 1951

D) 1949

A

D) 1949

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4
Q

What was the first operationally equipped jet plane in history to fly faster than 1,00 mph?

A) F9F-2/5 Panther

B) F2H-1 Banshee

C) F8U-1 Crusader

D) FJ-1 Fury

A

C) F8U-1 Crusader

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5
Q

The ABF rating operates, maintains, and performs maintenance on aviation fueling and lubricating oil systems.

A) True

B) False

A

A) True

ABF (Aviation boatswains mate fuel)

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6
Q

As a member of a line maintenance crew, what are your first duties as an Airman?

A) Move aircraft

B) Participate in working parties

C) Stand security watches

D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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7
Q

The first requirement for an enlisted rating in aviation pertained to what type of work?

A) Radio

B) Ordinance

C) Electrical

D) Mechanics

A

D) Mechanics

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8
Q

What was the name of the worlds first nuclear powered aircraft carrier?

A) USS Nimitz

B) USS Forrestal

C) USS Enterprise

D) USS Coral Sea

A

C) USS Enterprise

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9
Q

Who established the Aircraft Intermediate Maintenance Department (AIMD) on all operating aircraft carried in 1967?

A) President of the United States

B) Secretary of the Navy

C) Secretary of Defense

D) Chief of Naval Operations

A

D) Chief of Naval Operations

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10
Q

In what year did the Secretary of Defense lift the ban, allowing women into combat roles and combat ship assignments?

A) 1994

B) 1991

C) 1993

D) 1992

A

C) 1993

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11
Q

What rating maintains and repairs gasoline engines and associated automotive systems?

A) AME

B) AMH

C) AMS

D) AS

A

D) AS

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12
Q

On March 1948, the Navy’s first jet carrier landing was made on what aircraft carrier?

A) USS Boxer

B) USS Lexington

C) USS Langley

D) USS Saratoga

A

A) USS Boxer

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13
Q

What do the S-3 Viking, SH-3 Sea King, and SH-2 Seasprite have in common?

A) They are used for troop transport

B) All are helicopters

C) Their mission is to locate and track submarines

D) They are built by the same aircraft manufacturer

A

C) Their mission is to locate and track submarines

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14
Q

What rating is responsible for inspecting, maintaining, and repairing armament equipment?

A) AA

B) AM

C) AO

D) AG

A

C) AO

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15
Q

What rating packs and rigs parachutes and life rafts?

A) AW

B) PR

C) AT

D) AD

A

B) PR

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16
Q

At the end of 1911, what total number of aircraft did the Navy have?

A) Three

B) Four

C) One

D) Two

A

A) Three

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17
Q

Conduct that is fraternization is excused when which, if any, of the following conditions are met?

A) There is mutual agreement

B) Parties are in different jobs at the same command

C) Parties later get married

D) None of the above

A

D) None of the above

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18
Q

Which of the following safety precautions should be observed when an ohmmeter is used?

A) Always start with the highest scale of the meter

B) De-energize the circuit before connecting the meter

C) Observe proper polarity

D) All of the above

A

B) De-energize the circuit before connecting the meter

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19
Q

With training, you should be able to activate the EEBD within the maximum period of what time?

A) 20 seconds

B) 40 seconds

C) 10 seconds

D) 30 seconds

A

D) 30 seconds

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20
Q

Which of the following countries is NOT working toward acquiring nuclear weapons capability?

A) France

B) Saudi Arabia

C) Iran

D) Iraq

A

A) France

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21
Q

For procurement of the aircraft hardware from supply, the specification number and factory part number are converted to what number?

A Cross-reference numbers
B Stock numbers
C Air Force-Navy numbers
D
Standard numbers
A

B Stock numbers

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22
Q

A toroidal core is used in a saturable-core reactor o counteract which of the following effects?

A Hysteresis
B Copper loss
C Both A and B above
D The effect of load flux on control flux

A

D The effect of load flux on control flux

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23
Q

What is the angle between the chord line and the relative wind called?

A The angle of attack
B The angle of incidence
C The result angle
D The control angle

A

A The angle of attack

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24
Q

What person is the head of the Navy Department?

A The Secretary of the Navy
B The CNO
C The Secretary of Defense
D The DCNO

A

A The Secretary of the Navy

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25
Q

What department is responsible for the combat information center?

A Administration
B Maintenance
C Air
D Operations

A

D Operations

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26
Q

What name is given to a group of devices that either produce light or use light in their operation?

A Optometry
B Optokenetic
C Optoelectronic
D Ophthalmology

A

C Optoelectronic

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27
Q

Polarization has what effects on an electrical cell?

A Decreases internal resistance, thereby decreasing the output voltage

B Decreases internal resistance, thereby increasing the ouput voltage

C Increases internal resistance, thereby increasing the output voltage

D Increases internal resistance, thereby decreasing the output voltage

A

D Increases internal resistance, thereby decreasing the output voltage

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28
Q

How many different models of anti-g suits are used in the navy?

A Two
B Four
C Three
D One

A

A Two

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29
Q

Which of the following systems are control systems?

A Open-loop
B Closed-loop
C Both A and B above
D All of the above

A

C Both A and B above

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30
Q

At-sea, which of the following indications may be a symptom of a dangerous condition?

A Wisp of smoke
B Minor loss of Power
C Excessive warmth of a bulkhead
D All of the above

A

D All of the above

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31
Q

Compared to the VOM, the electronic digital multimeter has which of the following advantages?

A It Has a higher input impedance
B it can be read directly without using a scale
C it had little or no loading effect on the circuit under test
D All of the above

A

D All of the above

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32
Q

A material whose resistance decreases as the temperature increases has what temperature coefficient?

A Positive
B Zero
C Neutral
D Negative

A

D Negative

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33
Q

Which of the following conditions is the most probable cause for a grounded circuit?

A A tripped circuit breaker
B Frayed insulation on wiring
C A blown fuse
D Loose terminal lugs

A

B Frayed insulation on wiring

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34
Q

What term is used to define abnormal resistance or impedance that interferes with the normal signal flow?

A Reduction
B Reflectometry
C Discontinuity
D Distortion

A

C Discontinuity

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35
Q

Aluminum has the tendency to flow away from a point where pressure is applied. This tendency is known as?

A Crystallization
B Creep
C Flowing
D Feed through l

A

B Creep

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36
Q

What letter suffix in the wire identification identifies the wire as being a ground?

A B
B A
C N
D C

A

C N

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37
Q

The output of the phase detector in a phase-angle voltmeter is proportional to the signal amplitude multiplied by which of the following angles of phase difference?

A Tangent
B Cotangent
C Sine
D Cosine

A

D Cosine

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38
Q

Why must materials to be soldered be cleaned just prior to the soldering process?

A To ensure the solder will adhere to the surface
B To prevent the solder from becoming brittle from impurities and eventually failing
C To prevent an uneven flow of solder to the surface
D Each of the above

A

A To ensure the solder will adhere to the surface

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39
Q

What type of indication device is usually installed in the stator circuit of a torque synchro system?

A An overload indicator
B A voltmeter indicator
C A blown-fuse indicator
D An ohmmeter indicator

A

A An overload indicator

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40
Q

The issuance of aviation ordnance is a function of what department?

A Air operations
B Weapons
C Security
D Administration

A

D Weapons

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41
Q

The terms right or left used in relation to any of the structural units refer to the right or left of the pilot seated in the cockpit?

A True
B False

A

B False

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42
Q

What is the main advantage of a shunt motor over a series motor?

A A shunt motor maintains a more constant speed under varying load conditions than a series motor

B A shunt motor develops higher torque at lower speeds than a series motor

C A shunt motor can be operated at higher speeds than a series motor

D A shunt motor draws less current from the source than a series motor

A

A A shunt motor maintains a more constant speed under varying load conditions than a series motor

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43
Q

On a Vernier micrometer, the ten spaces on the vernier are equivalent to what number of spaces on the thimble?

A Nine
B Twelve
C Five
D Seven

A

A Nine

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44
Q

The personnel that rig, pack, and inspect survival equipment are commonly called Parachute Riggers. What is the correct title for this rating?

A Survival Riggers
B Aircrew Survival Equipmentman (PR)
C Ejection and Survival Technicians
D Aircrew support Technicians

A

B Aircrew Survival Equipmentman (PR)

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45
Q

The coil in a galvanometer rotates to allow measurement of current. Which of the following actions cause this reaction?

A Tension of the hairspring and the magnetism produced by the permanent magnet

B Magnetism of the permanent magnet and magnetism produced by current in the movable cool

C Current flowing in opposite directions through two coils

D Magnetism produced by current flowing in the movable coil and the tension of the hairspring

A

B Magnetism of the permanent magnet and magnetism produced by current in the movable coil

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46
Q

You should NEVER take which of the following items into a magazine?

A Naked lights
B Matches
C Both A and B

A

C Both A and B

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47
Q

How many levels of decontamination are there?

A Four
B One
C Three
D Two

A

A Four

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48
Q

What is the purpose of the small hook on the double rescue hook?

A Secure medieval litter to the aircraft
B Handling light cargo
C Attachment of a rescue device
D For hoisting personnel

A

B Handling light cargo

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49
Q

The forces that act through the center of gravity of a gyro and do not cause precession are referred to by what term?

A Forces of erection
B Forces of induction
C Forces of isolation
D Forces of translation

A

D Forces of translation

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50
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major classification of DC generators?

A Lap- wound
B Series- wound
C Compound- wound
D Shunt- wound

A

A Lap- Wound

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51
Q

At what intervals are the aircraft directors usually positioned along the flight deck during operations that require taxiing of aircraft?

A 50-100 ft
B 20-40 ft
C 5-10 ft
D 100-200 ft

A

A 50-100 ft

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52
Q

When you are testing a transistor with a transistor tester, for the reading to have a +/- 15 percent accuracy, the resistance from the emitter to base must be what minimum value?

A 50 ohms
B 300 ohms
C 200 ohms
D 100 ohms

A

B 300 ohms

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53
Q

Before replacing a major component in an aircraft, the AE should make which of the following determinations?

A Whether the intended replacement is a suitable substitute

B Whether the appropriate work center has been assigned the replacement task

C Whether the repair will require a test flight

D whether the component is defective

A

D Whether the component is defective

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54
Q

You are reading a wire identification code . Which of the following types of information can you gain?

A Circuit function
B Wire size
C Wire segment
D Each of the above

A

D Each of the above

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55
Q

Which of the following letters is NOT used to identify a wire identify a wire segment?

A E
B Z
C X
D O

A

D O

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56
Q

What type of voltmeter is a precision voltmeter that compares an unknown voltage with an internal reference voltage?

A phase-angle voltmeter
B Fluke Model 8100A
C Time-domain Reflectometry
D Differentual voltmeter

A

D Differential voltmeter

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57
Q

Which of the following types of meters are contained in multimeter?

A Ammeter, voltmeter, and ohmmeter
B Voltmeter, frequency meter, and ohmmeter
C Frequency meter, ohmmeter, and ammeter
D Frequency meter, ammeter, and voltmeter

A

A Ammeter, voltmeter, and ohmmeter

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58
Q

A megger is prevented from exceeding its rated output voltage by the action of a…

A Variable resistor
B Voltage regulator
C Friction clutch
D Diode limited

A

C Friction clutch

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59
Q

For precise resistance measurements, you should use what instruments?

A Megger
B Wheatstone
C Multimeter
D Ohmmeter

A

B Wheatstone

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60
Q

When stamping wires or cables, the distance between markings should not exceed what maximum distance?

A 3 inches
B 15 inches
C 6 inches
D 24 inche

A

B 15 inches

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61
Q

When a multimeter is not being used, the selector switch should be in which of the following positions?

A Low resistance
B High DC volts
C High resistance
D High AC volts

A

D High AC volts

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62
Q

An ammeter is is connected into a circuit in which of the following ways?

A In parallel with the circuit
B In series-parallel with the circuit
C Both 1 and 2 above
D In series with the circuit

A

D In series with the circuit

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63
Q

What instrument should you use to troubleshoot fuel quantity coaxial cables?

A Ammeter
B Time-domain reflectometer
C Phase-angle voltmeter
D Wheatstone bridge

A

B Time-domain reflectometer

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64
Q

A permanent-magnet, moving-coil meter mechanism can be adapted to measure alternating current and voltage if it is used with which of the following devices?

A A transformer
B A rectifier
C A reactor
D A transponder

A

A A rectifier

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65
Q

Which of the following values can be measured by using an oscilloscope?

A Frequency
B Voltage amplitude
C Phase difference
D Each of the above

A

D Each of the above

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66
Q

Before making an adjustment to any system, you should consult which of the following publications?

A NAVSUP 2002
B MIM
C IPB
D NATOPS

A

B MIM

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67
Q

Which of the following is standar feature of the Fluke Model 8100A digital multimeter?

A A selectable input filter
B A full four-digit readout
C A power source of 115 volts or 230 volts can be used
D Each of the above

A

D Each of the above

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68
Q

To test insulation for high resistance, grounds, and leakage, what meter should you use?

A Megger
B Multimeter
C Ohmmeter
D VTVM

A

A Megger

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69
Q

A dual trace oscilloscope differs from a dual- beam osilloscope in that dual the dual trace device uses (a) what number of electron beams and (b) what number of channels?

A a-1 b-2
B a-2 b-1
C a-1 b-1
D a-2 b-1

A

A a-1 b-2

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70
Q

To read a vernier caliper, you must be able to understand which of the following scales?

A Steel rule
B Vernier
C Both A and B
D British thermal unit

A

C Both A and B

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71
Q

Scheduling workloads to ensure the efficient movement of all aircraft and parts through the AIMD is the responsibility of what branch?

A Quality assurance
B Supply
C Material control
D Production control

A

D Production control

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72
Q

What is the force that is created by an airfoil?

A Gravity
B Lift
C Drag
D Thrust

A

B Lift

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73
Q

What are two available lengths of the TF-1A and TD-1b tie-down chain assemblies?

A 10 and 15 ft
B 9 and 14 ft
C 20 and 25 ft
D 5 and 10 ft

A

B 9 and 14 ft

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74
Q

When an aircraft fails to hook in an arresting gear cable and is required to enter the traffic pattern again, the action is known by what term?

A Bolter
B Miss
C Skip
D Wave-off

A

A Bolter

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75
Q

When a series DC motor is operated without a load, which of the following conditions occurs?

A The armature draws excessive current
B The voltage requirement increases
C The armature speeds out of control
D The armature will not turn

A

C The armature speeds out of control

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76
Q

Why is a lockwasher NOT used with an aluminum terminal?

A The washer will reduce conductivity at the terminal

B The washer will increase resistance and heat causing eventual failure

C The washer will gouge the lug and cause deterioration

D The washer will set up a corrosive action between dissimilar metals

A

C The washer will gouge the lug and cause deterioration

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77
Q

The emergency escape breathing device (EEBD) supplies breathable air for what maximum period of time?

A 25 minutes
B 20 minutes
C 15 minutes
D 10 minutes

A

C 15 minutes

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78
Q

When you are selecting FORWARD or REVERSE power measurements, what component(s) of the RF wattmeter is/are restricted to 180 degrees; rotation range?

A The coupler-detector
B The POWER RANGE knob
C The U-Type connector
D Both B and C

A

A The coupler-detector

79
Q

What is the recommended procedure for cooling overheated wheel, brake, and tire assemblies?

A Discharge a short burst of CO2 at the assemblies
B Allow assemblies to cool in surrounding air
C Apply water fog to cool the brakes
D Direct a steady stream of water at the assemblies

A

B Allow assemblies to cool in surrounding air

80
Q

Which of the following organizations is normally smaller than a naval air station?

A The Naval Aviation Logistics Center
B The Naval Station
C The Naval Air Facility
D The Naval Test Center

A

C The Naval Air Facility

81
Q

Which of the following data does the inertial navigation system (INS) provide to the overall tactical system?

A Accurate Velocity
B Attitude
C Heading data
D Each of the above

A

D Each of the above

82
Q

The Voltage used to prevent false synchronization a is known by what term?

A Stickoff voltage
B Source voltage
C Signal voltage
D Error voltage

A

A Stickoff voltage

83
Q

The maximum capacity of the 9mm service pistol can hold how many rounds in the magazine?

A 10 rounds
B 5 rounds
C 15 rounds
D 20 rounds

A

C 15 rounds

84
Q

What type of life preserver is designed for constant-wear and attaches to the SV-2 series survival vest?

A LPA
B LPP
C LPU

A

C LPU

85
Q

At the local level, you may insulate tools for use on what type of circuit?

A Low-voltage
B High-voltage
C Low-resistance
D High-resistance

A

A Low-voltage

86
Q

When you find a damaged power tool electrical cord, what action should you take?

A Replace the cord
B Cover it with rudder tape
C Shorten the cord to remove the damaged part
D Repair the damage with insulating tape

A

A Replace the cord

87
Q

When using compressed air to clean out fixtures and jigs, you should observe the proper safety precautions. Also, you should maintain the air pressure below what maximum value?

A 10 PSI
B 20 PSI
C 30 PSI
D 40 PSI

A

C 30 PSI

88
Q

While using an electric drill, you experience an electrical shock. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause?

A The voltage source is too low
B The voltage source is too high
C An incorrectly grounded drill
D An overload drill

A

C An incorrectly grounded drill

89
Q

What alloy is used to make most nonmagnetic tools?

A Copper-Constantine
B Beryllium-copper
C Nickel-iron
D Cadmium

A

B Beryllium-copper

90
Q

If one of your tools becomes worn, damaged, or broken, you should report this fact to what person?

A Work center supervisor
B Division officer
C Material control officer
D Crew leader

A

A Work center supervisor

91
Q

Which of the following is the primary reason why a person should not move about after receiving an electrical shock?

A Nerves have been damaged
B The heart is temporarily weakened
C The brain is impaired
D Muscles have been damaged

A

B The heart is temporarily weakened

92
Q

If electrical equipment is to be repaired, what action should you take before beginning the actual work?

A Secure the main power switches in the open position and properly tag them

B Remove the dudes for the associated circuits

C Station an individual with a fire extinguisher near the work area

D Short out the main supply switches

A

A Secure the main power switches in the open position and properly tag them

93
Q

Discrepancies found before, during, or after a flight require what type of maintenance?

A Scheduled
B Field
C Unscheduled
D Preventive

A

C Unscheduled

94
Q

If you are working on high-voltage circuits or around wires having exposed surfaces, you should keep told and equipment that have metal parts what minimum number of feet from the work area?

A 5 feet
B 6 feet
C 4 feet
D 2 feet

A

C 4 feet

95
Q

You need to apply voltage to a power tool having a three-wire system. The receptacle is a two-wire type. To connect the tool to this voltage source, you should use an adapter with an external ground wire and connect it to which of the following configurations?

A Connect the safety ground wire to the center screw of the receptacle before plugging in the tool

B Connect the safety ground wire of the adapter to the tool case

C Tape the exposed ground wire terminal

D Connect the safety ground to a good ground before plugging in the tool

A

D Connect the safety ground to a good ground before plugging in the tool

96
Q

Under what category(ies) can all maintenance performed on naval aircraft be grouped?

A Preventive only
B Scheduled and preventive
C Scheduled and unscheduled
D Unscheduled only

A

C Scheduled and unscheduled

97
Q

An accident-free naval career can best be achieved by following which of the following courses of action?

A Constantly reading technical manuals

B Taking a common-sense approach towards safety

C Making a list of all potential work hazards

D Reading all naval rules and regulations

A

B Taking a common-sense approach towards safety

98
Q

If you swallow gasoline, which of the following actions should you take?

A Swallow three glasses of saltwater to induce vomiting

B Drink large amounts of milk or water and take 4 tablespoons of vegetable oil, if available

C Swallow a solution of bicarbonate of soda and water

D Take two aspirins and two glasses of water

A

B Drink large amounts of milk or water and take 4 tablespoons of vegetable oil, if available

99
Q

What term best describes a single object in a modern number system?

A Base
B Unit
C Number
D Digit

A

B Unit

100
Q

Which of the following types of calipers contain a straight measuring rule?

A Transfer calipers
B Spring-joint calipers
C Slide calipers
D Hermaphrodite calipers

A

C Slide calipers

101
Q

What type of squadron is employed for various missions that include enemy attack, search, bombing, mining, and torpedo warfare?

A Fighter
B Early Warning
C Bomber
D Attack

A

D Attack

102
Q

Which of the following designations is a classification of rocket launchers?

A 2.75 inch of 5.0 inch
B Reusable
C Non reusable
D Each of the above

A

D Each of the above

103
Q

Turbine blades are normally made from what alloy?

A Aluminum
B Copper
C Steel
D Magnesium

A

C Steel

104
Q

Which of the following types of life rafts is equipped with boarding ramps?

A 7 man raft
B 12 man raft
C 4 man raft
D 20 man raft

A

D 20 man raft

105
Q

The primary cell is completely discharged when which of the following conditions exist?

A The cathode is completely eaten away
B The event ingredient in the electrolyte is used up
C Voltage of the cell is reduced to zero
D Each of the above

A

D Each of the above

106
Q

Which of the following factors determine(s) the amount of precession that will result from a given applied force?

A Rotor speed
B Rotor weight
C Rotor shape
D Eacg of the above

A

D Each of the above

107
Q

One of the prime dangers to the semiconductor is heat. Excessive current generated by heat which eventually destroys a diode is called…

A Thermionic emission
B Thermal runaway
C Thermoplastic action
D Junction overload

A

B Thermal runaway

108
Q

Which of the following information is included in the MMP?

A Current list of QAR’s
B High-time components
C Schedule of technical training
D Each of the above

A

D Each of the above

109
Q

What are three transistor configurations?

A Common emitter, common base, and common collector
B Common anode, common collector, and common base
C Common base, common grid, and common output
D Common emitter, common base, and common output

A

A Common emitter, common base, and common collector

110
Q

What is the difference in application between the two classifications of synchros?

A Light vs. Heavy load
B High frequency vs. Low frequency operation
C Mechanical vs. electrical output
D Circular vs Straight line motion

A

A Light vs. Heavy load

111
Q

Which of the following does not require the use of a circuit protection device?

A Excessive current
B High resistance
C Abnormal heating
D Cathode, base, collector

A

B High resistance

112
Q

THE AIM-120 AMRAAM is an advanced middle system and offers performance improvements over which of the following misled?

A Maverick
B Sidewinder
C Sparrow
D Shrike

A

C Sparrow

113
Q

Many definitions are used to describe problem
Drinking or alcoholism. Which of the following statements describes an alcoholic?

A Person who depends on alcohol to help him/her function in everyday life

B Person who frequents bars for the purpose of getting drunk

C Person who depends on friends to purchase alcohol

D Person who thinks that he/she must drink to be accepted

A

A Person who depends on alcohol to help him/her function in everyday life

114
Q

Which of the following ratings maintains aircraft engines and related systems?

A AO
B AD
C AE
D AS

A

B AD

115
Q

What names were given to the U.S military and Allied Forces operations in the Middle East involving the invasion of Kuwait by Iraq in 1990?

A Operation Provide Comfort
B Operation Iron Eagle
C Operation Desert Fox
D Operation Desert Shield and Desert Storm

A

D Operation Desert Shield and Desert Storm

116
Q

The ABH rating is responsible for performing which of the following tasks?

A Operate catapult launch and retract panels
B Rig, inspects, and proof-load cables and fittings
C Direct the movement and spotting of aircraft
D Operate aviation fueling systems

A

C Direct the movement and spotting of aircraft

117
Q

Removing, installing, and rigging the flight control surfaces on a naval aircraft is the responsibility of what rating?

A AMS
B AMH
C AS
D AME

A

A AMS

118
Q

Which of the following ratings is responsible for accomplishing photographic work required by the naval service?

A PR
B PH now MC
C AK
D AW

A

B PH now MC

119
Q

What is the final basic operation in maintaining command of the seas?

A Logistic support
B Search and rescue
C Scouting the forward area
D Antisubmarine warfare

A

B Search and rescue

120
Q

What rating makes visual and instrumental observations of weather and sea conditions?

A AX
B AW
C AG
D AS

A

C AG

121
Q

In what year did Naval Aviation celebrate its 75th anniversary?

A 1983
B 1979
C 1981
D 1986

A

D 1986

122
Q

What characteristics make radar suitable for directing fire control radar systems?

A Range measurements
B Target display
C Narrow focus radar beam
D All of the above

A

D All of the above

123
Q

What term identifies a series of FF’s designed to temporarily store information?

A Register
B Data word
C DIP package
D Counter

A

A Register

124
Q

Operation of the turbofan engine is similar to which of the following gas turbine engines?

A Turboshaft
B Turboprop
C Turbojet
D Turbopulse

A

B Turboprop

125
Q

How many “V” rings are incorporated on the survivor’s rescue strop?

A Three
B Four
C One
D Two

A

D Two

126
Q

If light energy collides with an orbiting electron, what happens to the electron?

A Electron will merge with the nucleus

B Electron will jump to an orbit close to the nucleus

C Electron will jump to an orbit further from the nucleus

D Electron will move around the same orbit faster

A

C Electron will jump to an orbit further from the nucleus

127
Q

Long-range airborne communications sets operate in what band of frequencies?

A From 3 to 30 kilohertz
B From 30 to 300 megahertz
C From 30 to 300 kilohertz
D From 3 to 30 megahertz

A

D From 3 to 30 megahertz

128
Q

What rating operates tactical support center systems to analyze and classify data?

A AG
B AZ
C AW
D AK

A

C AW

129
Q

The Navy purchased its first aircraft on what date?

A October 30, 1911
B June 14, 1910
C May 8, 1911
D April 21, 1898

A

C May 8, 1911

130
Q

What is the name of the first Space Shuttle to fly with an all-Navy crew?

A Enterprise
B Challenger
C America
D Columbia

A

D Columbia

131
Q

What was the first combat ship to receive permanently assigned women?

A USS Washington
B USS Stennis
C USS Eisenhower
D USS Nimitz

A

C USS Eisenhower

132
Q

Which of the following tasks is NOT a responsibility of the AZ rating?

A Prepare reports and correspondence
B Identify, store, and issue aviation supplies and spare parts
C Operate technical libraries
D Maintain aircraft status board

A

B Identify, store, and issue aviation supplies and spare parts

133
Q

In what year was the navy first interested in airplanes as a naval weapon?

A 1888
B 1911
C 1910
D 1898

A

D 1898

134
Q

Leadership and what other element are now a part of your everyday life in the Navy?

A Motivation
B Maintenance
C Organization
D Training

A

D Training

135
Q

The Westinghouse 19A jet engine was developed for the Navy in what year?

A 1943
B 1973
C 1963
D 1953

A

A 1943

136
Q

What total number of basic operations are there in the primary function of naval aviation?

A Five
B Eight
C Seven
D Six

A

A Five

137
Q

You are troubleshooting an electrical device that is not receiving any power. What check should you make first?

A Check for visible indications of trouble
B Check for fuse or circuit breaker
C Check for loose connector pins
D Check the power source

A

A Check for visible indications of trouble

138
Q

The intensity of electrical shock is determined by which of the following properties?

A Current
B Electromagnetic force
C Voltage
D Impedance

A

A Current

139
Q

Which of the following is NOT a safety practice to follow when using a soldering iron?

A Hold small soldering jobs with pliers or clamps

B Provide ventilation for the iron while it is on the rest rack

C Disconnect the iron during temporary absences from the work area

D Shake the iron to get rid of excess solder

A

D Shake the iron to get rid of excess solder

140
Q

When using tools, you should observe which of the following rules?

A Use tools for their intended purpose

B Maintain tools in good repair

C Replace tools that are damaged or not working properly

D Each of the above

A

D Each of the above

141
Q

Which of the following is the cause of most accidents in electrical and electronic work centers?

A Improper grounding
B Carelessness
C Exposed electrical fixtures
D Moving machinery

A

B Carelessness

142
Q

Which of the following statements describes the hazards of compressed air?

A It can inject minute foreign bodies into the skin

B It can rupture cell tissue and cause severe wound

C It can pass through clothing and may cause fatal injury

D Each of the above

A

D Each of the above

143
Q

What color is the safety ground wire for electrical tools?

A Green
B Black
C White
D Red

A

A Green

144
Q

When an aircraft anti-collision light is operating on the flight line, it warms personnel of what potential hazard?

A Aircraft engines are operating
B Ordnance loading in progress
C Aircraft refueling
D Liquid oxygen converters being filled

A

A Aircraft engines are operating

145
Q

When fighting an electrical fire, you should use which of the following fire-extinguishing agents?

A Soda and water
B Water (H2O)
C Carbon dioxide (CO2)
D Foam

A

C Carbon dioxide (CO2)

146
Q

The difference in potential across a resistor, created by current through the resistor, is an example of which of the following forces?

A Inertia
B Electromotive
C Inductive
D Resistive

A

B Electromotive

147
Q

Which of the following factors should be considered when selecting a primary cell as a power source?

A Power equipment
B Type of electrolyte used
C Container material
D All of the above

A

A Power equipment

148
Q

What rating normally maintains communications and navigational equipment?

A AC
B AE
C AW
D AT

A

D AT

149
Q

Which of the following is a criteria for a person’s sexual behavior to be considered sexual harassment?

A Unwelcome
B Sexual in nature
C Occur in or impact your work
D Each of the above

A

D Each of the above

150
Q

How many types of parachutes are used by the Navy?

A Four
B Two
C Three
D One

A

C Three

151
Q

Which of the following drugs can cause the heart or arteries to burst and cause a massive coronary?

A Crack
B Amphetamines
C Phencyclidine
D Codeine

A

A Crack

152
Q

What characteristic of series-wound generators makes them unsuitable for most applications?

A Output voltages varies as speed varies

B Output voltage varies as the load current varies

C They’re not capable of supplying heavy loads

D They require external field excitation

A

B Output voltage varies as the load current varies

153
Q

For which of the following reasons are conductors laced together?

A To present a neat appearance
B To help support each other
C To aid in tracing conductors
D Each of the above

A

D Each of the above

154
Q

What is the maximum number of possible outputs in a differential amplifier?

A One
B Three
C Two
D Four

A

C Two

155
Q

Which of the following types of rectifiers replaces the bulky selenium rectifier?

A Copper-oxide rectifier
B Silicon rectifier
C Metallic rectifier
D Half-wave rectifier

A

B Silicon rectifier

156
Q

What safety wiring method should be used in places that are hard to reach?

A Double-wire method
B Wire-wrapping method
C Single-wire method
D Clip-locking method

A

C Single-wire method

157
Q

What type of carrier squadron uses both fixed wing aircraft and helicopters for search and attack of enemy submarines?

A Composite
B Anti-submarine
C Airborne Early Warning
D Attack

A

B Anti-submarine

158
Q

You should inform your subordinates of their standing in the division in which of the following ways?

A By use of a memorandum
B By the use of counseling
C By awarding special privileges
D By giving awards

A

B By the use of counseling

159
Q

What are the major types of aircraft maintenance?

A Rework and upkeep
B Organizational, intermediate, and Depot
C Scheduled and unscheduled
D Standard and special

A

A Rework and upkeep

160
Q

Which of the following individuals is NOT a special assistant to the CO/XO of a naval air station?

A Aviation safety officer
B General safety officer
C Chaplain
D Quality assurance officer

A

D Quality assurance officer

161
Q

Electrostatic fields have what effect on (a) free electrons and (b) bound electrons?

A (a) Attracts them to positive charges (b) Frees them from their orbits

B (a) Attracts them to negative charges (b) Frees them from their orbits

C (a) Attracts them to positive charges (b) Distorts their orbit

D (a) Attracts them to negative charges (b) Distorts their orbit

A

D (a) Attracts them to negative charges (b) Distorts their orbit

162
Q

What force overcomes drag?

A Thrust
B Lift
C Momentum
D Weight

A

A Thrust

163
Q

What system is used to provide for a standardized recall and scheduling of test equipment into calibration facilities?

A MDCC
B SCLSIS
C METER
D MEASURE

A

D MEASURE

164
Q

The electrostatic meter movement reacts to which of the following electrical properties?

A Current
B Resistance
C Power
D Voltage

A

A Current

165
Q

What series helmet is designed for all helicopter aircrew members?

A HGU-84/P
B HGU-68(v)/P
C APH-23/v
D PPH-11/S

A

A HGU-84/P

166
Q

A star washer may be used what total number of times?

A One
B Two
C Three
D Four

A

A One

167
Q

Normally, which of the following signs is the first emotional reaction following a dose of heroin?

A A state of extreme stress
B A State of inactivity
C A feeling of weightlessness
D A feeling of relief

A

D A feeling of relief

168
Q

What material is most widely used as a conductor in electrical equipment?

A Gold
B Copper
C Silver
D Aluminum

A

B Copper

169
Q

What color cranial, jersey, and floatation vest identifies aircraft handling directors?

A Yellow
B Blue
C Green
D Purple

A

A Yellow

170
Q

In alternators with low speed prime movers, only what type of rotor may be used?

A Geared
B Salient-pole
C Armature
D Turbine driven

A

B Salient-pole

171
Q

If excess solder adheres to the tip of a soldering iron, how should you remove it?

A Dip the tip in water
B Shake it off
C Wipe it off on a clean cloth
D Flow flux over the tip

A

C Wipe it off on a clean cloth

172
Q

What is/are the term(s) applied to the space between and around charged bodies in which their influence is felt?

A Electric field of force
B Electrostatic field
C Dielectric field
D Each of the above

A

D Each of the above

173
Q

How should laced cable groups that run parallel to each other be bound together?

A With square knots
B With half hitches
C With marling hitches
D With telephone hitches

A

D With telephone hitches

174
Q

Which of the following is NOT a method for coupling amplifier stages?

A Resistor
B Impedance
C Transformer
D RC

A

A Resistor

175
Q

What is the symbol for inductance?

A H
B L
C XL
D IND

A

A H

176
Q

The reading of a wattmeter is dependent upon which of the following circuit characteristics?

A Current
B Voltage
C Power factor
D All of the above

A

D All of the above

177
Q

Which of the following is the mission of frigate?

A Defensive operations against surface ships

B Open ocean escort and patrol

C Offensive operations against subsurface ships

D Protective screens

A

B Open ocean escort and patrol

178
Q

What term describes the use of four binary digits to represent one decimal digit?

A Octal-coded binary
B Binary-coded decimal
C Decimal-coded binary
D Hexadecimal notion

A

B Binary-coded decimal

179
Q

In reference to micrometers in general, which of the following statements is true?

A Micrometers should be coated with a light coat of oil to prevent rust

B Graduations on micrometers should be painted so they can easily be read

C Should be stored where humidity is high to prevent rust

D Should be kept in a single container to save storage space

A

A Micrometers should be coated with a light coat of oil to prevent rust

180
Q

What is the purpose of a shunt in a DC ammeter?

A To increase the linearity of the meter movement

B To increase the current range of the meter

C To decrease the sensitivity of the meter

D To decrease meter damping

A

B To increase the current range of the meter

181
Q

All stresses imposed on the aircraft wings are transmitted to what area?

A The stress teaser plugs
B The fuselage structure
C The outer layer or shield of the wings
D The surrounding atmosphere

A

B The fuselage structure

182
Q

Operational readiness of a squadron is the responsibility of what officer?

A Commanding officer
B Operations officer
C Executive officer
D Flight officer

A

A Commanding officer

183
Q

What will the probable result of connecting an ammeter (or milliammeter) in PARALLEL with a source of voltage or a circuit component?

A A higher than normal meter reading

B A normal meter reading

C A burned-out meter that will provide no useful readings

D A lower than normal meter reading

A

C A burned-out meter that will provide no useful readings

184
Q

One consideration in choosing the value of a meter shunt resistance is that the meter readings should be in the midscale range. Which of the following factors is another consideration?

A The meter is protected from unexpected surge currents

B Minimum loading effect will be experienced midscale

C Meter shielding against magnetic interference is greater near midscale

D Meter switching is easier for midscale deflection

A

A The meter is protected from unexpected surge currents

185
Q

Common tapes and rules usually are NOT graduated smaller than what fraction of an inch?

A 1/4 inch
B 1/2 inch
C 1/16 inch
D 1/8 inch

A

C 1/16 inch

186
Q

In what year did naval aviation celebrate its 75th anniversary?

A 1981
B 1983
C 1979
D 1986

A

D 1986

187
Q

While on active duty, you must wear you ID tags under which of the following conditions?

A In time of war
B When engaged in flight operations
C When prescribed by the CNO
D All of the above

A

D All of the above

188
Q

What is the primary use of the CCU-45/B impulse cartridge?

A To eject seats

B To release and eject stores from an aircraft in flight

C To eject and deploy seat drove chutes

D To remove cockpit canopies

A

B To release and eject stores from an aircraft in flight

189
Q

What is the difference in application between the two classifications of synchros?

A High frequency vs. Low frequency

B Circular vs. Straight line motion

C Light vs. Heavy load

D Mechanical.vs. Electrical output

A

C Light vs. Heavy load

190
Q

What maximum number of Phoenix missles may be launched from a single aircraft with simultaneous guidance against widely separated targets?

A 8
B 4
C 6
D 2

A

C 6

191
Q

Of the following equipment, which one requires an OPNAV 4790/51 card?

A Engine test cells
B GB1A’s
C VAST stations
D PME equipment

A

C VAST stations

192
Q

Voltage is induced in what part of an alternator?

A Commutator
B Armature
C Field
D Brushes

A

B Armature

193
Q

Which class of amplifier allows collector current to flow for more than 180 degrees of the input signal, but less than 360 degrees?

A B
B C
C A
D AB

A

D AB

AE3 Advancement (2 decks)

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